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200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Refer to the exhibit. How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

B.

Remove the overload keyword froin the ip nat inside source command.

C.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

D.

Add the ip nat inside and ip nat outside commands under both interfaces.

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Questions 5

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask for route 172.16.4.0?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.192

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.240.0

D.

255.255.248.0

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200-301 Report Card

Questions 6

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

Options:

A.

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.

They assign IP addresssses to devices.

C.

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

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Questions 7

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

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Questions 8

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 9

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?

Options:

A.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240

B.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240

C.

10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224

D.

10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224

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Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

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Questions 11

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

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Questions 12

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

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Questions 13

Which plane is centralized by an SDN controller?

Options:

A.

management-plane

B.

control-plane

C.

data-plane

D.

services-plane

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Questions 14

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

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Questions 15

Drag and drop the characteristics of networking from the left onto the networking types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 16

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

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Questions 17

An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static route for prefix 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64. The next hop must be 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1 The route must be reachable via the R1 Gigabit 0/0 interface. Which command configures the designated route?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

B.

R1(config-if)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

C.

R1(config-if)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

D.

R1(config)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

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Questions 18

A default route must be configured to temporarily use a local broadband modem with the IP addressss of 192.168.1.1 until a WAN circuit is installed. The WAN circuit will use an external routing protocol that exchanges network prefixes between two separate autonomous systems on the Internet. Only a default route will be received by the ISP Which configuration must be applied to allow the new WAN circuit to take precedence when It Is In place?

Options:

A.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1

B.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 25

C.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 track 1

D.

Ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 20

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Questions 19

Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?

Options:

A.

Router2

B.

Router3

C.

Router4

D.

Router5

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Questions 20

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

Options:

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

queueing

C.

bad NIC

D.

broadcast storm

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Questions 21

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Questions 22

Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States?

Options:

A.

channels 2, 7, 9, and 11

B.

channels 1, 6, 11, and 14

C.

channels 2, 7, and 11

D.

channels 1, 6, and 11

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Questions 23

Which architecture is best for small offices with minimal wirelesss needs and no central management?

Options:

A.

cloud-based AP

B.

split MAC

C.

autonomous AP

D.

mesh network

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Questions 24

Which command do you enter so that a switch configured with Rapid PVST + listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

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Questions 25

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Options:

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

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Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

What must be configured to enable 802.11w on the WLAN?

Options:

A.

Set PMF to Required.

B.

Enable MAC Filtering.

C.

Enable WPA Policy.

D.

Set Fast Transition to Enabled

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Questions 27

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0.4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 28

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 29

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

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Questions 30

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic that is flowing over interface TenGigabitEthernet0/0 experiences slow transfer speeds. What is the reason for the issue?

Options:

A.

heavy traffic congestion

B.

a duplex incompatibility

C.

a speed conflict

D.

queuing drops

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Questions 31

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growith. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 32

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

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Questions 33

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Questions 34

What is a function performed by a web server?

Options:

A.

provide an application that is transmitted over HTTP

B.

send and retrieve email from client devices

C.

authenticate and authorize a user ' s identity

D.

securely store files for FTP access

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Questions 35

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.

Options:

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Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

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Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for new hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 38

What is the default port-security behavior on a trunk link?

Options:

A.

It causes a network loop when a violation occurs.

B.

It disables the native VLAN configuration as soon as port security is enabled.

C.

It places the port in the err-disabled state if it learns more than one MAC address.

D.

It places the port in the err-disabled state after 10 MAC addresses are statically configured.

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Questions 39

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

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Questions 40

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Options:

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

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Questions 41

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

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Questions 42

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209 165 201 1 Each route is present within the routing table Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.1.1.19?

Options:

A.

F0/4

B.

F0/0

C.

F0/1

D.

F0/3

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Questions 43

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

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Questions 44

Why would VRRP be implemented when configuring a new subnet in a multivendor environment?

Options:

A.

when a gateway protocol is required that support more than two Cisco devices for redundancy

B.

to enable normal operations to continue after a member failure without requiring a change In a host ARP cache

C.

to ensure that the spanning-tree forwarding path to the gateway is loop-free

D.

to interoperate normally with all vendors and provide additional security features for Cisco devices

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Questions 45

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

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Questions 46

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 47

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 48

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10.70.128.0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

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Questions 49

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2.126?

Options:

A.

10.165.20.126

B.

10.165.20.146

C.

10.165.20.166

D.

10.165.20.226

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Questions 51

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic Neighbor Discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all Neighbor Discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit Neighbor Discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 52

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix did router R1 learn from internal EIGRP?

Options:

A.

192.168.10/24

B.

192.168.3.0/24

C.

192.168.2.0/24

D.

172.16 1.0/24

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Questions 53

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

B.

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

C.

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

D.

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

E.

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

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Questions 54

Refer to the exhibit.

What are the two steps an engineer must take to provide the highest encryption and authentication using domain credentials from LDAP?

Options:

A.

Select PSK under Authentication Key Management

B.

Select WPA+WPA2 on Layer 2 Security

C.

Select Static-WEP + 802.1X on Layer 2 Security

D.

Select WPA Policy with TKIP Encryption

E.

Select 802.1X from under Authentication Key Management

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Questions 55

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route must be configured on R1 so that OSPF routing is used when OSPF is up. but the server is still reachable when OSPF goes down?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 172.16.2.2 100

B.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 gi0/1 125

C.

ip route 10.1.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 100

D.

ip route 10.1.1.10 255.255.255.255 gi0/0 125

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit.

Which action must be taken to ensure that router A is elected as the DR for OSPF area 0?

Options:

A.

Configure the OSPF priority on router A with the lowest value between the three routers.

B.

Configure router B and router C as OSPF neighbors of router A.

C.

Configure the router A interfaces with the highest OSPF priority value within the area.

D.

Configure router A with a fixed OSPF router ID

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Questions 57

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

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Questions 58

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Questions 59

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

Options:

A.

encrypts data before sending between data resources

B.

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

C.

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

D.

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

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Questions 60

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

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Questions 61

Drag and drop the functions from the left onto the correct network components on the right

Options:

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Questions 62

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct.

Which IP address is the source IP?

Options:

A.

10.4.4.4

B.

10.4.4.5

C.

172.23.103.10

D.

172.23.104.4

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Questions 63

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?

Options:

A.

VTP

B.

DTP

C.

egress traffic

D.

ingress traffic

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Questions 64

An engineer must configure a /30 subnet between two routers. Which usable IP address and subnet mask combination meets this criteria?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 65

Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?

Options:

A.

WSA

B.

Firepower

C.

ASA

D.

FireSIGHT

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Questions 66

What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

achieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering

B.

runs applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests

C.

handles requests from multiple workstations at the same time

D.

runs the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers

E.

housed solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client

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Questions 67

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

Options:

A.

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

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Questions 68

Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 is unable to ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken on router R1 to resolve the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

set the default network as 20.20.20.0/24

B.

set the default gateway as 20.20.20.2

C.

configure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

D.

configure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network

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Questions 69

How does HSRP provide first hop redundancy?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic by assigning the same metric value to more than one route to the same destination m the IP routing table.

B.

It load-balances Layer 2 traffic along the path by flooding traffic out all interfaces configured with the same VLAN.

C.

It forwards multiple packets to the same destination over different routed links n the data path

D.

It uses a shared virtual MAC and a virtual IP address to a group of routers that serve as the default gateway for hosts on a LAN

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Questions 70

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

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Questions 71

Which MAC address is recognized as a VRRP virtual address?

Options:

A.

0000.5E00.010a

B.

0005.3711.0975

C.

0000.0C07.AC99

D.

0007.C070/AB01

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Questions 72

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

Options:

A.

worm

B.

malware

C.

DDoS

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 73

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 74

What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?

Options:

A.

Enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

Configure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs

C.

Change native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID

D.

Implement port security on internet-facing VLANs

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Questions 75

When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440

B.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422

C.

spanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0

D.

spanning -tree vlan 200 root primary

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Questions 76

Which command automatically generates an IPv6 address from a specified IPv6 prefix and MAC address of an interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address dhcp

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::/64 eui-64

C.

ipv6 address autoconfig

D.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:5:112::2/64 link-local

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Questions 77

What uses HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different hosts?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

OpenStack

C.

OpFlex

D.

REST

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Questions 78

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

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Questions 79

Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

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Questions 80

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

Options:

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

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Questions 81

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

Options:

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

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Questions 82

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

Options:

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Questions 83

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

Options:

A.

default-router

B.

default-gateway

C.

ip helper-address

D.

dns-server

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Questions 84

What is the purpose of using First Hop Redundancy Protocol in a specific subnet?

Options:

A.

Filter traffic based on destination IP addressing

B.

Sends the default route to the hosts on a network

C.

ensures a loop-free physical topology

D.

forwards multicast hello messages between routers

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Questions 85

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

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Questions 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which password must an engineer use to enter the enable mode?

Options:

A.

adminadmin123

B.

default

C.

testing1234

D.

cisco123

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Questions 87

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Options:

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

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Questions 88

Which global command encrypt all passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

password-encrypt

B.

enable password-encryption

C.

enable secret

D.

service password-encryption

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Questions 89

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

B.

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

C.

send LWAPP packets to access points.

D.

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

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Questions 90

Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?

Options:

A.

intrusion detection

B.

user awareness

C.

physical access control

D.

network authorization

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Questions 91

Which output displays a JSON data representation?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 92

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

Options:

A.

5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoverlapping channels.

B.

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.

C.

5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

D.

Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

E.

Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoverlapping channels.

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Questions 93

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asynchronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 94

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

Options:

A.

BPDUfilter

B.

PortFast

C.

Backbonefast

D.

BPDUguard

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Questions 95

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B.

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

C.

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

D.

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

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Questions 96

In software-defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?

Options:

A.

management plane

B.

control plane

C.

policy plane

D.

data plane

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Questions 97

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

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Questions 98

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol. SW1 is set to dynamic desirable.

What is the result of this configuration?

Options:

A.

The link is in a down state.

B.

The link is in an err-disabled state.

C.

The link becomes an access port.

D.

The link becomes a trunk port.

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Questions 99

What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?

Options:

A.

ISATAP

B.

GRE over IPsec

C.

IPsec over ISATAP

D.

GRE

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Questions 100

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

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Questions 101

Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific networks?

Options:

A.

CPU ACL

B.

TACACS

C.

Flex ACL

D.

RADIUS

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Questions 102

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

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Questions 103

Drag and drop the characteristics of network architectures from the left onto the type of architecture on the right.

Options:

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Questions 104

which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?

Options:

A.

communicates between the controller and the physical network hardware

B.

reports device errors to a controller

C.

generates statistics for network hardware and traffic

D.

facilitates communication between the controller and the applications

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Questions 105

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1 Which action is taken by S1?

Options:

A.

It forwards it out G0/3 only

B.

It is flooded out every port except G0/0.

C.

It drops the frame.

D.

It forwards it out interface G0/2 only.

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Questions 106

Which two actions are performed by the Weighted Random Early Detection mechanism? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

It drops lower-priority packets before it drops higher-priority packets

B.

It can identify different flows with a high level of granularity

C.

It guarantees the delivery of high-priority packets

D.

It can mitigate congestion by preventing the queue from filling up

E.

It supports protocol discovery

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Questions 107

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

B.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

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Questions 108

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

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Questions 109

What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.

to mitigate delays over slow links

B.

to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

C.

to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to

D.

be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

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Questions 110

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of configuration is represented in the output?

Options:

A.

Ansible

B.

JSON

C.

Chef

D.

Puppet

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Questions 111

Which security program element involves installing badge readers on data-center doors to allow workers to enter and exit based on their job roles?

Options:

A.

role-based access control

B.

biometrics

C.

multifactor authentication

D.

physical access control

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Questions 112

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 113

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

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Questions 114

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

Options:

A.

enable secret

B.

service password-encryption

C.

username Cisco password encrypt

D.

enable password

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Questions 115

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

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Questions 116

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?

Options:

A.

A TCP connection has been torn down

B.

An ICMP connection has been built

C.

An interface line has changed status

D.

A certificate has expired.

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Questions 117

Which command entered on a switch configured with Rapid PVST+ listens and learns for a specific time period?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 max-age 6

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 hello-time 10

C.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 priority 4096

D.

switch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 1 forward-time 20

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Questions 118

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

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Questions 119

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?

Options:

A.

The port transitions to STP blocking

B.

The port transitions to the root port

C.

The port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.

D.

The port goes into error-disable state

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Questions 120

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Options:

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Questions 121

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

Options:

A.

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

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Questions 122

Drag and drop the use cases for device-management technologies from the left onto the corresponding.

Options:

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Questions 123

Refer to the exhibit.

The primary route across Gi0/0 is configured on both routers. A secondary route must be configuredd to establish connectivity between the workstation networks. Which command set must be configuredd to complete this task?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 124

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

Options:

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

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Questions 125

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

Options:

A.

TACACS server

B.

wireless access point

C.

RADIUS server

D.

wireless LAN controller

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Questions 126

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 127

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSDN data is shown?

Options:

A.

sequence

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 128

Refer to the exhibit.

PC A is communicating with another device at IIP address 10.227.225.255. Through which router does router Y route the traffic?

Options:

A.

router A

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router D

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Questions 129

A HCP pool has been created with the name CONTROL. The pool uses the next to last usable IP addressss as the default gateway for the DHCP clients. The server is located at 172.16 32.15. What is the step in the process for clients on the 192.168.52.0/24 subnet to reach the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

ip forward-protocol udp 137

B.

ip default-network 192.168.52.253

C.

ip helper-addresss 172.16.32.15

D.

ip default-gateway 192.168.52.253

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Questions 130

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

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Questions 131

Drag and drop the statement about AAA services from the left to the corresponding AAA services on the right.

Options:

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Questions 132

What are two disadvantages of a full-mesh topology? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It needs a high MTU between sites.

B.

It has a high implementation cost.

C.

It must have point-to-point communication.

D.

It requires complex configuration.

E.

It works only with BGP between sites.

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Questions 133

How do UTP and STP cables compare?

Options:

A.

STP cables are cheaper to procure and easier to install and UTP cables are more expensive and harder to install.

B.

UTP cables are less prone to crosstalk and interference and STP cables are more prone to crosstalk and interference.

C.

UTP cables provide taster and more reliable data transfer rates and STP cables are slower and less reliable.

D.

STP cables are shielded and protect against electromagnetic interference and UTP lacks the same protection against electromagnetic interference.

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Questions 134

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

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Questions 135

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 10.0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

longest prefix match

B.

highest administrative distance

C.

highest metric

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

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Questions 136

What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.

It enables dynamic flow identification.

B.

It enables policy-based routing.

C.

It provide best-effort service.

D.

It limits bandwidth usage.

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Questions 137

Which benefit does Cisco ONA Center provide over traditional campus management?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center leverages SNMPv3 tor encrypted management, and traditional campus management uses SNMPv2.

B.

Cisco DNA Center automates HTTPS for secure web access, and traditional campus management uses HTTP.

C.

Cisco DNA Center leverages APIs, and traditional campus management requires manual data gathering.

D.

Cisco DNA Center automates SSH access for encrypted entry, and SSH Is absent from traditional campus management.

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Questions 138

A network analyst is tasked with configuring the date and time on a router using EXEC mode. The date must be set to January 1. 2020 and the time must be set to 12:00 am. Which command should be used?

Options:

A.

clock summer-time recurring

B.

clock timezone

C.

clock summer-time date

D.

clock set

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Questions 139

Refer to the exhibit.

The image server and client A are running an application that transfers an extremely high volume of data between the two. An engineer is configuring a dedicated circuit between R1 and R2. Which set of commands must the engineer apply to the routers so that only traffic between the image server and client A is forces to use the new circuit?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.128 10.10.10.6R2(config)#lp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.0 10.10.10.5

C.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.6R2(config)#tp route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.252 10.10.10.5

D.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

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Questions 140

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 141

What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

Multiple companies can use the same addresses without conflicts.

B.

Direct connectivity is provided to internal hosts from outside an enterprise network.

C.

Communication to the internet Is reachable without the use of NAT.

D.

All external hosts are provided with secure communication to the Internet.

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Questions 142

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the prefix length for the route that router1 will use to reach host A?

Options:

A.

/25

B.

/27

C.

/28

D.

/29

Buy Now
Questions 143

Why would a network administrator choose to implement automation in a network environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify the process of maintaining a consistent configuration state across all devices

B.

To centralize device information storage

C.

To implement centralized user account management

D.

To deploy the management plane separately from the rest of the network

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Questions 144

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

Options:

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

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Questions 145

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configure router R1 with a host route to the server. Which command must the engineer configure?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.0.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 10.10.10.10 255.255.255.255 192.168.0.2

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.0.2 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.10

D.

R1(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0 0.0 192.168.0.2

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Questions 146

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

Options:

A.

S 192.168.0.0/20 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

B.

S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

C.

S 192.168.2.0/28 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

D.

S 192.168.1.0/30 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1

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Questions 147

Refer to the exhibit.

The Router1 routing table has multiple methods to reach 10.10.10.0/24 as shown. The default Administrative Distance is used. Drag and drop the network conditions from the left onto the routing methods that Router1 uses on the right.

Options:

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Questions 148

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices?

Options:

A.

northbound interface

B.

software virtual interface

C.

southbound interface

D.

tunnel Interface

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Questions 149

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168.1.0/24 and why?

Options:

A.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing

B.

The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol

C.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance

D.

The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric.

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Questions 150

By default, how long will the switch continue to know a workstation MAC address after the workstation stops sending traffic?

Options:

A.

200 seconds

B.

300 seconds

C.

600 seconds

D.

900 seconds

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Questions 151

Drag and drop the Wi-Fi terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 152

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?

Options:

A.

192.168.30.1

B.

10.10.10.5

C.

10.10.10.6

D.

192.168.20.1

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Questions 153

When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

Options:

A.

Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC

B.

Re-associate the WLC with the access point.

C.

Re-enable the WLC interfaces

D.

Reboot the WLC

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Questions 154

In a cloud-computing environment what is rapid elasticity?

Options:

A.

control and monitoring of resource consumption by the tenant

B.

automatic adjustment of capacity based on need

C.

pooling resources in a multitenant model based on need

D.

self-service of computing resources by the tenant

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Questions 155

What is a characteristic of a collapsed-core network topology?

Options:

A.

It allows the core and distribution layers to run as a single combined layer.

B.

It enables the core and access layers to connect to one logical distribution device over an EtherChannel.

C.

It enables all workstations in a SOHO environment to connect on a single switch with internet access.

D.

It allows wireless devices to connect directly to the core layer, which enables faster data transmission.

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Questions 156

Which is a fact related to FTP?

Options:

A.

It uses block numbers to identify and mitigate data-transfer errors

B.

It always operates without user authentication

C.

It relies on the well-known UDP port 69.

D.

It uses two separate connections for control and data traffic

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Questions 157

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure the interface that connects to PC 1 and secure it in a way that only PC1 is allowed to use the port No VLAN tagging can be used except for a voice VLAN. Which command sequence must be entered to configure the switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 158

Refer to the exhibit.

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 159

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

Options:

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Questions 160

Refer to the exhibit.

Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why?

Options:

A.

SW2, because its MAC address is the highest

B.

SW3, because its priority is the highest

C.

SW4, because its priority is highest and its MAC address is lower

D.

SW1, because its priority is the lowest and its MAC address is higher

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Questions 161

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interface Serial0. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

Options:

A.

The permit command fails and returns an error code.

B.

The router accepts all incoming traffic to Serial0 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0.

C.

The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255 is allowed on Serial0.

D.

The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

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Questions 162

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

Options:

A.

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

B.

Comply with PCI regulations

C.

Comply with local law

D.

Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers

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Questions 163

Which security method is used to prevent man-in-the-middle attack?

Options:

A.

authorization

B.

authentication

C.

anti-replay

D.

accounting

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Questions 164

Which access point mode relies on a centralized controller for management, roaming, and SSID configuration?

Options:

A.

repeater mode

B.

autonomous mode

C.

bridge mode

D.

lightweight mode

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Questions 165

What is the purpose of configuring different levels of syslog for different devices on the network?

Options:

A.

to rate-limit messages for different severity levels from each device

B.

to set the severity of syslog messages from each device

C.

to identify the source from which each syslog message originated

D.

to control the number of syslog messages from different devices that are stored locally

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Questions 166

Refer to the exhibit.

A newly configured PC fails to connect to the internet using TCP port 80 to www cisco com Which setting must be modified for the connection to work?

Options:

A.

Subnet Mask

B.

DNS Servers

C.

Default Gateway

D.

DHCP Server

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Questions 167

PC1 tries to send traffic to newly installed PC2. The PC2 MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table of the switch, so the switch sends the packet to all ports in the same VLAN Which switching concept does this describe?

Options:

A.

MAC address aging

B.

MAC address table

C.

frame flooding

D.

spanning-tree protocol

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Questions 168

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

Options:

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

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Questions 169

Refer to the exhibit.

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 170

Which protocol must be implemented to support separate authorization and authentication solutions for wireless APs?

Options:

A.

RADIUS

B.

TACACS+

C.

802.1X

D.

Kerberos

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Questions 171

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abcd.abcd.abcd on voice VLAN 4?

Options:

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

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Questions 172

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100.

C.

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

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Questions 173

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a static network route between two networks so that host A communicates with host B. Drag and drop the commands from the left onto the routers where they must be configuredd on the right. Not all commands are used.

Options:

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Questions 174

What is the primary purpose of private address space?

Options:

A.

conserve globally unique address space

B.

simplify the addressing in the network

C.

limit the number of nodes reachable via the Internet

D.

reduce network complexity

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Questions 175

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization??

Options:

A.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

B.

configuring a password for the console port

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 176

What is a function of MAC address learning?

Options:

A.

It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces

B.

It increases the potential for MAC address flooding.

C.

It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks

D.

It increases security on the management VLAN

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Questions 177

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?

Options:

A.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active no shutdown

B.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode passive no shutdown

C.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode desirableno shutdown

D.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode on no shutdown

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Questions 178

Drag and drop the statements about access-point modes from the left onto the corresponding modes on the right.

Options:

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Questions 179

All physical cabling between the two switches is installed. Configure the network connectivity between the switches using the designated VLANs and interfaces.

1. Configure VLAN 100 named Compute and VLAN 200 named Telephony where required for each task.

2. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW2 to use the existing VLAN named Available.

3. Configure the connection between the switches using access ports.

4. Configure Ethernet0/1 on SW1 using data and voice VLANs.

5. Configure Ethemet0/1 on SW2 so that the Cisco proprietary neighbor discovery protocol is turned off for the designated interface only.

Options:

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Questions 180

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable the MAC Filtering option

B.

Enable the OSEN Policy option

C.

Enable the CCKM option for Authentication Key Management

D.

Enable the WPA2 Policy option

E.

Enable the 802.1X option for Authentication Key Management

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Questions 181

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 182

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN ' MONITORING ' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 183

An engineer observes high usage on the 2.4GHz channels and lower usage on the 5GHz channels. What must be configured to allow clients to preferentially use 5GHz access points?

Options:

A.

Re-Anchor Roamed Clients

B.

OEAP Split Tunnel

C.

11ac MU-MIMO

D.

Client Band Select

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Questions 184

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

Options:

A.

Cost 20

B.

Cost 30

C.

Cost 40

D.

Cost 50

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Questions 185

What is the purpose of the URI string in a REST request?

Options:

A.

To identify a resource on a target server.

B.

To transport data or payload to a remote resource.

C.

To specify the way in which a remote resource is modified.

D.

To respond with the data content encoding for a request.

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Questions 186

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

Options:

A.

Ri(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.62R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5 2

B.

Ri(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

C.

Ri(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5

D.

Ri(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

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Questions 187

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF. By default, to which type of OSPF network does this interface belong?

Options:

A.

point-to-point

B.

non-broadcast

C.

point-to-multipoint

D.

broadcast

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Questions 188

What is represented in line 3 within this JSDN schema?

Options:

A.

object

B.

key

C.

array

D.

value

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Questions 189

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

Options:

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

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Questions 190

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

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Questions 191

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresssses to hosts

B.

a router that statically assigns IP addresssses to hosts

C.

a host that is configured to request an IP addressss automatically

D.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP addressss

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Questions 192

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator configures the CPE to provide internet access to the company headquarters. Traffic must be load-balanced via ISP1 and ISP2 to ensure redundancy.

Which two command sets must be configured on the CPE router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1 255

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 255

ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 128.0.0.0 128.0.0.0 203.0.113.1

E.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.51.100.1

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 203.0.113.1 2

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Questions 193

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and must now remove the commands. Which two commands must be executed to correct the configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

no ip domain name ccna.cisco.com

B.

no login local

C.

no service password-encryption

D.

no ip name-server 198.51.100.210

E.

no hostname CPE

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Questions 194

Which type of encryption does WPA1 use for data protection?

Options:

A.

AES

B.

TKIP

C.

PEAP

D.

EAP

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Questions 195

Refer to the exhibit. Which next hop is used to route packets to the application server at 152.168.32.85?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.2

B.

10.10.2.2

C.

10.10.3.2

D.

10.10.4.2

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Questions 196

What is the role of SNMP in the network?

Options:

A.

to monitor network devices and functions using a TCP underlay that operates on the presentation layer

B.

to collect data directly from network devices using an SSL underlay that operates on the transport layer

C.

to monitor and manage network devices using a UDP underlay that operates on the application layer

D.

to collect telemetry and critical information from network devices using an SSH underlay that operates on the network layer

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Questions 197

Which group of channels in the 802.1ib/g/n/ac/ax 2.4 GHz frequency Bands are nonoverlapping channels?

Options:

A.

channels 1, 5, and 10

B.

channels 1,6, and 11

C.

channels 1,5, and 11

D.

channels 1,6, and 10

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Questions 198

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

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Questions 199

Which IPsec mode encapsulates the entire IP packet?

Options:

A.

tunnel

B.

Q-in-Q

C.

SSL VPN

D.

transport

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Questions 200

Refer to the exhibit.

Router OldR is replacing another router on the network with the intention of having OldR and R2 exchange routes_ After the engineer applied the initial OSPF

configuration: the routes were still missing on both devices. Which command sequence must be issued before the clear IP ospf process command is entered to enable the neighbor relationship?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 201

Refer to the exhibit. Drag and drop the subnet masks froin the left onto the corresponding subnets on the right. Not all subnet masks used.

Options:

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Questions 202

Refer to the exhibit.

How many arrays are present in the JSDN data?

Options:

A.

one

B.

three

C.

six

D.

nine

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Questions 203

Refer to the exhibit. A VTY password has been set to Labtest32! for remote access. Which commands are required to allow only SSH access and to hide passwords in the running configuration?

Options:

A.

SW1#(config-line)#login local  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#crypto key generate rsa

B.

SW1#(config-line)#login local  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#enable secret test!2E

C.

SW1#(config-line)#transport input ssh  SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#service password-encryption

D.

SW1#(config-line)#exit  SW1(config)#aaa new-model

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Questions 204

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.32 is destined for the Internet. What is the administrative distance for the destination route?

Options:

A.

0

B.

1

C.

2

D.

32

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Questions 205

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

Options:

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

Buy Now
Questions 206

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

Options:

A.

via 10.0.4.2

B.

via 10.0.0.2

C.

via FastEthernet0/1

D.

via FastEthernet1/1

Buy Now
Questions 207

Refer to the exhibit.

The SW1 and SW2 Gi0/0 ports have been preconfigured. An engineer is given these requirements:

• Allow all PCs to communicate with each other at Layer 3.

• Configure untagged traffic to use VLAN 5.

• Disable VLAN 1 from being used.

Which configuration set meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1#interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5interface Gi0/2switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108SW2#interface Gi0/1switchport mode accessswitchport access vlan 7interface Gi0/7switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 7,9,108

B.

SW1#interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5interface Gi0/2switchport mode accessswitchport trunk allowed vlan 7,9,108SW2#interface Gi0/1switchport mode accessno switchport access vlan 1switchport access vlan 7interface Gi0/7switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5

C.

SW#1 -interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5interface Gi0/2switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108SW2#interface Gi0/1switchport mode accessswitchport access vlan 7interface Gi0/7switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108switchport trunk native vlan 5

D.

SW1#interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vian 5,7,9,108interface Gi0/2switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 7,9,108SW2#interface Gi0/1switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 7interface Gi0/7switchport mode trunkswitchport trunk allowed vlan 5,7,9,108

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Questions 208

Which authentication method requires the user to provide a physical attribute to authenticate successfully?

Options:

A.

password

B.

muftifactor

C.

biometric

D.

certificate

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Questions 209

Refer to the exhibit. The My_WLAN wirelesss LAN was configured with WPA2 Layer 2 PSK security. Which additional configuration must the administrator perform to allow users to connect to this WKAN on a different subnet called Data?

Options:

A.

Enable Broadcast SSID and select data froin the Interface/Interface Group drop-down list.

B.

Enable Status and select data froin the Interface/Interface Group drop-down list.

C.

Enable Status and set the NAS-ID to data.

D.

Enable Status and enable Broadcast SSID.

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Questions 210

A network engineer starts to implement a new wirelesss LAN by configuring the authentication server and creating the dynamic interface. What must be performed next to complete the basic configuration?

Options:

A.

Create the new WLAN and bind the dynamic interface to it.

B.

Install the management interface and add the management IP.

C.

Enable Telnet and RADIUS access on the management interface.

D.

Configure high availability and redundancy for the access points.

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Questions 211

Refer to the exhibit.

A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements:

• accommodates current configured VLANs

• expands the range to include VLAN 20

• allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs

Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 212

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

Options:

A.

Centralized cloud management platform

B.

Central WLC

C.

Individual AP

D.

Client device

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Questions 213

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

Options:

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

bad NIC

C.

high throughput

D.

broadcast storm

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Questions 214

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 215

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Options:

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Questions 216

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

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Questions 217

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Options:

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Questions 218

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches, and the network connectivity between them must be configured

1. Configure an LACP EtherChannel and number it as 1; configure it between switches SW1 and SVV2 using interfaces Ethernet0/0 and Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends

2 Configure the EtherChannel as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802.1 q tags.

4. Configure the native VLAN of the EtherChannel as VLAN 15.

Options:

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Questions 219

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 220

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 221

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

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Questions 222

How does authentication differ from authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

B.

Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access

C.

Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network

D.

Authentication is used to verify a person ' s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

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Questions 223

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 10.1.1.1

Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

Buy Now
Questions 224

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 225

OSPF must be configured between routers R1 and R2. Which OSPF configuration must be applied to router R1 to avoid a DR/BDR election?

Options:

A.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network broadcast

B.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf network point-to-point

C.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0interface e1/1ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252ip ospf cost 0

D.

router ospf 1network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0hello interval 15interface e1/1Ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.252

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Questions 226

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Questions 227

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 228

Drag and drop the statements about networking from the left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Options:

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Questions 229

Which PoE mode enables powered-device detection and guarantees power when the device is detected?

Options:

A.

dynamic

B.

static

C.

active

D.

auto

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Questions 230

Drag and drop the IPv6 address details from the left onto the corresponding types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 231

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

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Questions 232

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 233

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

Options:

A.

The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

C.

The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.

D.

The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

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Questions 234

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

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Questions 235

Drag and drop the QoS terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 236

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

Options:

A.

configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

B.

enable SLAAC on an interface

C.

disable the EUI-64 bit process

D.

explicitly assign a link-local address

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Questions 237

Which design element is a best practice when deploying an 802.11b wireless infrastructure?

Options:

A.

disabling TPC so that access points can negotiate signal levels with their attached wireless devices.

B.

setting the maximum data rate to 54 Mbps on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller

C.

allocating nonoverlapping channels to access points that are in close physical proximity to one another

D.

configuring access points to provide clients with a maximum of 5 Mbps

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Questions 238

In QoS, which prioritization method is appropriate for interactive voice and video?

Options:

A.

expedited forwarding

B.

traffic policing

C.

round-robin scheduling

D.

low-latency queuing

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Questions 239

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

Options:

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

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Questions 240

What are two characteristics of a public cloud implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

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Questions 241

which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/12

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Questions 242

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Telnet

B.

SSH

C.

HTTP

D.

HTTPS

E.

TFTP

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Questions 243

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default helto timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

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Questions 244

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

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Questions 245

Refer to the exhibit.

Shortly after SiteA was connected to SiteB over a new single-mode fiber path users at SiteA report intermittent connectivity issues with applications hosted at SiteB What is the cause of the intermittent connectivity issue?

Options:

A.

Interface errors are incrementing

B.

An incorrect SFP media type was used at SiteA

C.

High usage is causing high latency

D.

The sites were connected with the wrong cable type

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Questions 246

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Options:

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

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Questions 247

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 248

What is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a network management system to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

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Questions 249

What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service.

B.

Software-as-a-service

C.

control and distribution of physical resources

D.

services as a hardware controller.

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Questions 250

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

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Questions 251

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

link-local

C.

unique local

D.

multicast

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Questions 252

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R4 is dynamically learning the path to the server. If R4 is connected to R1 via OSPF Area 20, to R2 via R2 BGP, and to R3 via EIGRP 777, which path is installed in the routing table of R4?

Options:

A.

the path through R1, because the OSPF administrative distance is 110

B.

the path through R2. because the IBGP administrative distance is 200

C.

the path through R2 because the EBGP administrative distance is 20

D.

the path through R3. because the EIGRP administrative distance is lower than OSPF and BGP

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Questions 253

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

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Questions 254

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the networking parameters from the left onto the correct values on the right.

Options:

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Questions 255

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

Options:

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Helto packets

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Questions 256

What are network endpoints?

Options:

A.

act as routers to connect a user to the service provider network

B.

a threat to the network if they are compromised

C.

support inter-VLAN connectivity

D.

enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet

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Questions 257

Refer to the exhibit.

What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?

Options:

A.

modify helto interval

B.

modify process ID

C.

modify priority

D.

modify network type

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Questions 258

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

Options:

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

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Questions 259

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

Options:

A.

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

B.

broadcast to all ports

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

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Questions 260

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

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Questions 261

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is required to verify that the network parameters are valid for the user wireless LAN connectivity on a /24 subnet. Drag and drop the values from the left onto the network parameters on the right. Not all values are used.

Options:

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Questions 262

Drag and drop the TCP/IP protocols from the left onto the transmission protocols on the right

Options:

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Questions 263

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Options:

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Questions 264

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?

Options:

A.

RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication

B.

TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload

C.

TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them

D.

RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands

Buy Now
Questions 265

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

Options:

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

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Questions 266

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?

Options:

A.

Configure the version of SSH

B.

Configure VTY access.

C.

Create a user with a password.

D.

Assign a DNS domain name

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Questions 267

Refer to Exhibit.

Which configuration must be applied to the router that configures PAT to translate all addresses in VLAN 200 while allowing devices on VLAN 100 to use their own IP addresses?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 268

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

Options:

A.

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

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Questions 269

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message: " % Connection refused by remote host " Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

Options:

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

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Questions 270

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server. Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLAN 10, 11, 12, and 13. What is the next step in the configuration?

Options:

A.

Add PC A to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 fa VLAN segmentation

B.

Add VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation

C.

Add a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter-VLAN routing.

D.

Add PC A to the same subnet as the Fie Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication.

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Questions 271

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

Buy Now
Questions 272

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable NTP authentication.

B.

Verify the time zone.

C.

Disable NTP broadcasts

D.

Specify the IP address of the NTP server

E.

Set the NTP server private key

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Questions 273

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 274

What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?

Options:

A.

They support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength

B.

They provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable

C.

They offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode

D.

They accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module

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Questions 275

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

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Questions 276

Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?

Options:

A.

TKiP encryption

B.

AES encryption

C.

scrambled encryption key

D.

SAE encryption

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Questions 277

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Buy Now
Questions 278

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

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Questions 279

Refer to Exhibit.

Which action do the switches take on the trunk link?

Options:

A.

The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.

B.

The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcast domain.

C.

The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.

D.

The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

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Questions 280

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

Options:

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Buy Now
Questions 281

What is the primary different between AAA authentication and authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies a username and password, and authorization handles the communication between the authentication agent and the user database.

B.

Authentication identifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization validates the users password

C.

Authentication identifies and verifies a user who is attempting to access a system, and authorization controls the tasks the user can perform.

D.

Authentication controls the system processes a user can access and authorization logs the activities the user initiates

Buy Now
Questions 282

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the metric of the route to the 192.168.10.33/28 subnet?

Options:

A.

84

B.

110

C.

128

D.

192

E.

193

Buy Now
Questions 283

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Options:

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

Buy Now
Questions 284

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Options:

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

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Questions 285

Drag and drop to the characteristics of networking from the left onto the correct networking types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 286

Refer to the exhibit.

Only four switches are participating in the VLAN spanning-tree process.

Branch-1 priority 614440

Branch-2: priority 39082416

Branch-3: priority 0

Branch-4: root primary

Which switch becomes the permanent root bridge for VLAN 5?

Options:

A.

Branch-1

B.

Branch-2

C.

Branch-3

D.

Branch-4

Buy Now
Questions 287

What is the role of a firewall in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

Forwards packets based on stateless packet inspection

B.

Processes unauthorized packets and allows passage to less secure segments of the network

C.

determines which packets are allowed to cross from unsecured to secured networks

D.

explicitly denies all packets from entering an administrative domain

Buy Now
Questions 288

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Event Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

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Questions 289

Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

RADIUS

C.

TACACS+

D.

HTTP

Buy Now
Questions 290

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW1. PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 291

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Options:

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Questions 292

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANs 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANs with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

Options:

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

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Questions 293

Drag and drop the statement about networking from the left into the Corresponding networking types on the right. Not all statements are used.

Options:

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Questions 294

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

Options:

A.

Unicode

B.

base64

C.

decimal

D.

ASCII

Buy Now
Questions 295

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC addresss storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

Buy Now
Questions 296

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and pre-shared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option froin the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes.

B.

Select ASCII froin the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank.

C.

Select PSK froin the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key.

D.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes.

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Questions 297

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 298

Which components are contained within a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

physical resources, including the NIC, RAM, disk, and CPU

B.

configuration files backed by physical resources froin the Hypervisor

C.

applications running on the Hypervisor

D.

processes running on the Hypervisor and a guest OS

Buy Now
Questions 299

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring on this switch?

Options:

A.

A high number of frames smaller than 64 bytes are received.

B.

Frames are dropped after 16 failed transmission attempts.

C.

The internal transmit buffer is overloaded.

D.

An excessive number of frames greater than 1518 bytes are received.

Buy Now
Questions 300

Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network. Which set of actions corrects the configuration?

Options:

A.

Change the IP addressss to 172.16.1.6 and change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.248.

B.

Change the IP addressss to 172.16.1.9 and change the default gateway to 172.16.1.7.

C.

Change the IP addressss to 172.16.1.9 and change the DNS server to 172.16.1.12 only.

D.

Change the IP addressss to 172.16.1.6 and change the DNS servers to 172.18.1.12 and 172.16.1.13.

Buy Now
Questions 301

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

Options:

A.

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

channel-group 1 mode on

C.

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

channel-group 1 mode active

Buy Now
Questions 302

Which type of IPv4 address must be assigned to a server to protect it from external access and allow only internal users access while restricting internet access?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

public

C.

private

D.

multicast

Buy Now
Questions 303

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

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Questions 304

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP addressss 192.168.20.1?

Options:

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

Buy Now
Questions 305

A wirelesss access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• " zero-touch " deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

Buy Now
Questions 306

Which feature Is mandatory when configuring a new SSID for a wirelesss network running WPA3-Personal mode?

Options:

A.

Opportunistic Wireless Encryption

B.

Protected Management Frame

C.

Enhanced Open

D.

Fast Transition

Buy Now
Questions 307

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a subnet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet. The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

Options:

A.

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0Broadcast addresss: 10.7.54.255Usable IP addressss range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

B.

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.128.0Broadcast addresss: 10.7.55.255Usable IP addressss range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

C.

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.255.0Broadcast addresss: 10.7.54.255Usable IP addressss range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

D.

Subnet: 10.7.54.0Subnet mask: 255.255.254.0Broadcast addresss: 10.7.55.255Usable IP addressss range: 10.7.54.1 - 10.7.55.254

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Questions 308

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.255

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Questions 309

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 310

What is a valid IPv6 addresss record in DNS?

Options:

A.

A

B.

MX

C.

AAAA

D.

CNAME

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1
Last Update: May 21, 2026
Questions: 1240
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