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200-301 Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1 Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

Options:

A.

802.1q trunks

B.

Cisco vPC

C.

LLDP

D.

LACP

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Questions 5

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

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200-301 Report Card

Questions 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type is configured to reach the internet?

Options:

A.

host route

B.

default route

C.

floating static route

D.

network route

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Questions 7

Which protocol does an access point use to draw power from a connected switch?

Options:

A.

Internet Group Management Protocol

B.

Adaptive Wireless Path Protocol

C.

Cisco Discovery Protocol

D.

Neighbor Discovery Protocol

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Questions 8

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Questions 9

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.

B.

They allow encrypted traffic.

C.

They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth

D.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

E.

They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

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Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC-2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 11

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Options:

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

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Questions 12

Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?

Options:

A.

policy plane

B.

management plane

C.

control plane

D.

data plane

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Questions 13

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message: " % Connection refused by remote host " Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

Options:

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

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Questions 14

Refer to the exhibit.

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

Options:

A.

Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

B.

Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

C.

Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

D.

Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

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Questions 15

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 16

If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?

Options:

A.

The new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

B.

The previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.

C.

The new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.

D.

The two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.

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Questions 17

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

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Questions 18

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

ip helper-address

B.

ip address dhcp

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp relay

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Questions 19

What is the benefit of configuring PortFast on an interface?

Options:

A.

After the cable is connected, the interface uses the fastest speed setting available for that cable type

B.

After the cable is connected, the interface is available faster to send and receive user data

C.

The frames entering the interface are marked with higher priority and then processed faster by a switch.

D.

Real-time voice and video frames entering the interface are processed faster

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Questions 20

Which type of traffic is sent with pure iPsec?

Options:

A.

broadcast packets from a switch that is attempting to locate a MAC address at one of several remote sites

B.

multicast traffic from a server at one site to hosts at another location

C.

spanning-tree updates between switches that are at two different sites

D.

unicast messages from a host at a remote site to a server at headquarters

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Questions 21

Refer to the exhibit.

The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

Options:

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

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Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?

Options:

A.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity

B.

The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.

C.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connectivity

D.

The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1

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Questions 23

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?

Options:

A.

802.1x

B.

IP Source Guard

C.

MAC Authentication Bypass

D.

802.11n

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Questions 24

Refer to the exhibit.

What does router R1 use as its OSPF router-ID?

Options:

A.

10.10.1.10

B.

10.10.10.20

C.

172.16.15.10

D.

192.168.0.1

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Questions 25

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

Options:

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

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Questions 26

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

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Questions 27

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

Options:

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

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Questions 28

What is a function of TFTP in network operations?

Options:

A.

transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password

B.

transfers files between file systems on a router

C.

transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link

D.

transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades

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Questions 29

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again

B.

when the cable length limits are exceeded

C.

when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex

D.

when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used

E.

when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted

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Questions 30

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

Options:

A.

route with the lowest cost

B.

route with the next hop that has the highest IP

C.

route with the shortest prefix length

D.

route with the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 31

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?

Options:

A.

internal BGP route

B.

/24 route of a locally configured IP

C.

statically assigned route

D.

route learned through EIGRP

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Questions 32

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 33

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?

Options:

A.

It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points

B.

It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.

C.

It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.

D.

It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

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Questions 34

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address?

Options:

A.

DTP

B.

STP

C.

VTP

D.

802.10

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Questions 35

Refer to the exhibit.

If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

Options:

A.

192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.15.5

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Questions 36

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

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Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

The switch port interface trust state becomes untrusted

B.

The switch port remains administratively down until the interface is connected to another switch

C.

Dynamic ARP inspection is disabled because the ARP ACL is missing

D.

The switch port remains down until it is configured to trust or untrust incoming packets

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Questions 38

What is a requirement when configuring or removing LAG on a WLC?

Options:

A.

The Incoming and outgoing ports for traffic flow must be specified If LAG Is enabled.

B.

The controller must be rebooted after enabling or reconfiguring LAG.

C.

The management interface must be reassigned if LAG disabled.

D.

Multiple untagged interfaces on the same port must be supported.

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Questions 39

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

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Questions 40

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 The requirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to and from the connecting client.

Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 41

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks?

Options:

A.

Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane

B.

Only traditional networks natively support centralized management

C.

Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations

D.

Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane

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Questions 42

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support LP connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

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Questions 43

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding state actions from the left to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

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Questions 44

Which protocol does a REST API use to communicate?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

SNMP

C.

HTTP

D.

STP

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Questions 45

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3?

Options:

A.

applies 802.1x authentication

B.

usesTKIP

C.

employs PKI to identify access points

D.

protects against brute force attacks

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Questions 46

Drag and drop the Ansible terms from the left onto the right.

Options:

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Questions 47

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is updating the configuration on router R1 to connect a new branch office to the company network R2 has been configured correctly. Which command must the engineer configure so that devices at the new site communicate with the main office?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.25.25 0 255 255 255.0 192.168.2.1

B.

ip route 172.25.25 1 255 255 255 255 g0/1

C.

ip route 172.25.25.0.255.255.255.0.192.168.2.2

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Questions 48

How does authentication differ from authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

B.

Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access

C.

Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network

D.

Authentication is used to verify a person ' s identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

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Questions 49

Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute?

Options:

A.

1 Hz signal

B.

1 GHz signal

C.

60 Hz signal

D.

60 GHz signal

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration parameter is preventing host C from reaching the internet?

Options:

A.

automatic DNS

B.

default gateway

C.

IP network mask

D.

IP address assignment

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Questions 51

The address block 192 168 32 0/24 must be subnetted into smaller networks The engineer must meet these requirements

• Create 8 new subnets

• Each subnet must accommodate 30 hosts

• Interface VLAN 10 must use the last usable IP in the first new subnet

• A Layer 3 interface is used

Which configuration must be applied to the interface?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 52

How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model?

Options:

A.

TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately.

B.

TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery.

C.

TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments.

D.

TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering.

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Questions 53

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two conclusions about this configuration? {Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+.

B.

This is a root bridge.

C.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1.

D.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1.

E.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+.

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Questions 54

Which components are contained within a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

physical resources, including the NIC, RAM, disk, and CPU

B.

configuration files backed by physical resources from the Hypervisor

C.

applications running on the Hypervisor

D.

processes running on the Hypervisor and a guest OS

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Questions 55

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring router R2 as a replacement router on the network After the initial configuration is applied it is determined that R2 failed to show R1 as a neighbor Which configuration must be applied to R2 to complete the OSPF configuration and enable it to establish the neighbor relationship with R1?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit. Which type of JSON data is shown?

Options:

A.

sequence

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 57

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

longest prefix match

B.

highest administrative distance

C.

highest metric

D.

lowest metric

E.

lowest cost to reach the next hop

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Questions 58

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 59

Refer to the exhibit.

An OSPF neighbor relationship must be configured using these guidelines:

• R1 is only permitted to establish a neighbor with R2

• R1 will never participate in DR elections

• R1 will use a router-id of 101.1.1.

Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 60

A network engineer must migrate a router loopback interface to the IPv6 address space. If the current IPv4 address of the interface is 10.54.73.1/32, and the engineer configures IPv6 address 0.0.0.0.0:ffff:a36:4901, which prefix length must be used?

Options:

A.

/64

B.

/96

C.

/124

D.

/128

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Questions 61

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 62

Which plane is centralized in software-defined networking?

Options:

A.

application

B.

services

C.

control

D.

data

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Questions 63

Drag and drop the TCP and UDP characteristics from the lett onto the corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 64

Which set of actions satisfies the requirement for multifactor authentication?

Options:

A.

The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in an authentication app on a mobile device.

B.

The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link.

C.

The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on a login screen.

D.

The user enters a user name and password, and then re-enters the credentials on a second screen.

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Questions 65

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 66

An engineer has configured the domain name, user name, and password on the local router. What is the next step to complete the configuration tor a Secure Shell access RSA key?

Options:

A.

crypto key Import rsa pem

B.

crypto key pubkey-chain rsa

C.

crypto key generate rsa

D.

crypto key zeroize rsa

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Questions 67

An engineer is configuring router R1 with an IPv6 static route for prefix 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64. The next hop must be 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1 The route must be reachable via the R1 Gigabit 0/0 interface. Which command configures the designated route?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

B.

R1(config-if)#ipv6 route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 2019:C15C:0CAF:E002::1

C.

R1(config-if)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

D.

R1(config)#ip route 2019:C15C:0CAF:E001::/64 GigabitEthernet0/0

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Questions 68

What is a zero-day exploit?

Options:

A.

It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available

B.

It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data.

C.

It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth

D.

It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SOL server.

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Questions 69

Refer to the exhibit.

Which set of commands must be applied to the two switches to configure an LACP Layer 2 EtherChannel?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 70

What is the benefit of using FHRP (First Hop Redundancy Protocol)?

Options:

A.

Reduced ARP traffic on the network

B.

Balancing traffic across multiple gateways in proportion to their loads

C.

Reduced management overhead on network routers

D.

Higher degree of availability

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Questions 71

Which interface IP address serves as the tunnel source for CAPWAP packets from the WLC to an AP?

Options:

A.

service

B.

trunk

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual AP connection

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Questions 72

Refer to the exhibit.

A Cisco engineer creates a new WLAN called lantest. Which two actions must be performed so that only high-speed 2.4-Ghz clients connect? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Broadcast SSID option

B.

Enable the Status option.

C.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802 11g Only.

D.

Set the Radio Policy option to 802.11a Only.

E.

Set the Interface/Interface Group(G) to an interface other than guest

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Questions 73

What is the role of syslog level 7 in network device health monitoring?

Options:

A.

It provides information about error conditions visible on the network device.

B.

It shares normal operational messages from the network equipment.

C.

It sends outputs from various debug commands on the device.

D.

It warns about emergency conditions on the network appliance.

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Questions 74

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

Loopback0

C.

10.1.1.1

D.

10.1.1.3

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Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a Layer 3 port-channel interface with LACP. The configuration on the first device is complete, and it is verified that both interfaces have registered the neighbor device in the CDP table. Which task on the neighbor device enables the new port channel to come up without negotiating the channel?

Options:

A.

Change the EtherChannel mode on the neighboring interfaces to auto.

B.

Configure the IP address of the neighboring device.

C.

Bring up the neighboring interfaces using the no shutdown command.

D.

Modify the static EtherChannel configuration of the device to passive mode.

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Questions 76

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of JSON data is represented?

Options:

A.

string

B.

array

C.

number

D.

object

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Questions 77

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes.

B.

Select ASCII from the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank.

C.

Select PSK from the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key.

D.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes.

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Questions 78

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table?

Options:

A.

It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN.

B.

It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port.

C.

It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame.

D.

It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame.

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Questions 79

Refer to the exhibit.

When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet?

Options:

A.

Null0

B.

VIan58

C.

Vlan60

D.

VIan59

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Questions 80

Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?

Options:

A.

Small frames less than 64 bytes are rejected due to size.

B.

The receive buffer is full due to a broadcast storm.

C.

Frames are discarded due to a half-duplex negotiation.

D.

Broadcast packets are rejected because ARP timeout is enabled.

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Questions 81

Drag and drop the statements about networking from me left onto the corresponding networking types on the right

Options:

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Questions 82

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts

B.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts

C.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

D.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

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Questions 83

What is a specification for SSIDS?

Options:

A.

They are a Cisco proprietary security feature.

B.

They must include one number and one letter.

C.

They define the VLAN on a switch.

D.

They are case sensitive.

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Questions 84

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator configures the CPE to provide internet access to the company headquarters. Traffic must be load-balanced via ISP1 and ISP2 to ensure redundancy. Which two command sets must be configured on the CPE router? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

B.

B.

C.

C.

D.

D.

E.

E.

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Questions 85

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 86

A router received three destination prefixes:10.0.0/18, and 10.0.0/24. When the show ip route command is executed, which output does it return?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 87

Which set of methods is supported with the REST API?

Options:

A.

GET, POST, MOD, ERASE

B.

GET, POST, ERASE, CHANGE

C.

GET, PUT, POST, DELETE

D.

GET, PUT, ERASE, CHANGE

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Questions 88

Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

config network secureweb enable

B.

config certificate generate web admin

C.

config network webmode enable

D.

config network telnet enable

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Questions 89

Refer to the exhibit.

The P2P blocking action option is disabled on the WLC.

Options:

A.

Enable the Static IP Tunneling option.

B.

Disable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Check the DHCP Addr. Assignment check box.

D.

Set the P2P Blocking Action option to Forward-UpStream.

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Questions 90

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines.

B.

It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes.

C.

It enables configuration task automation.

D.

It provides increased scalability and management options.

E.

It increases security against denial-of-service attacks.

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Questions 91

A switch is a forwarding a frame out of an interfaces except the interface that received the frame. What is the technical term for this process?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

CDP

C.

flooding

D.

multicast

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Questions 92

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the subnet mask of the route to the 10.10.13.160 prefix?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.240

B.

255.255.255.128

C.

255.255.248.

D.

255.255.255.248

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Questions 93

What is a reason to implement IPv4 private addressing?

Options:

A.

Reduce the risk of a network security breach

B.

Comply with PCI regulations

C.

Comply with local law

D.

Reduce the size of the forwarding table on network routers

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Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Se0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers reach one another? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

C.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Questions 95

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

Options:

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

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Questions 96

Refer to the exhibit.

Clients on the WLAN are required to use 802.11r. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

Under Protected Management Frames, set the PMF option to Required.

B.

Enable CCKM under Authentication Key Management.

C.

Set the Fast Transition option and the WPA gtk-randomize State to disable.

D.

Set the Fast Transition option to Enable and enable FT 802.1X under Authentication Key Management.

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Questions 97

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the management access configuration of switch SW1 to allow secured, encrypted remote configuration. Which two commands or command sequences must the engineer apply to the switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

SW1(config)#enable secret ccnaTest123

B.

SW1(config)#username NEW secret R3mote123

C.

SW1(config)#line vty 0 15 SW1(config-line)#transport input ssh

D.

SW1(config)# crypto key generate rsa

E.

SW1(config)# interface f0/1 SW1(confif-if)# switchport mode trunk

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Questions 98

What is the difference between SNMP traps and SNMP polling?

Options:

A.

SNMP traps are used for proactive monitoring, and SNMP polling is used for reactive monitoring.

B.

SNMP traps send periodic updates via the MIB, and SNMP polling sends data on demand.

C.

SNMP traps are initiated by the network management system, and network devices initiate SNMP polling.

D.

SNMP traps are initiated using a push model at the network device, and SNMP polling is initiated at the server.

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Questions 99

Which mechanism allows WPA3 to provide a higher degree of security than its predecessors?

Options:

A.

special-character support in preshared Keys

B.

SAE password-based key exchange

C.

automatic device pairing

D.

certificate-based authentication

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Questions 100

What is a reason why an administrator would choose to implement an automated network management approach?

Options:

A.

Reduce inconsistencies in the network configuration.

B.

Enable " box by box " configuration and deployment.

C.

Decipher simple password policies.

D.

Increase recurrent management costs.

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Questions 101

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the component details on the right.

Options:

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Questions 102

Refer to the exhibit.

What is missing from this output for it to be executed?

Options:

A.

double quotes C " ) around the " Cisco Devices " string

B.

curly brace ()) at the end

C.

exclamation point (!) at the beginning of each line

D.

square bracket ([) at the beginning

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Questions 103

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

Options:

A.

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

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Questions 104

Drag and drop the descriptions of IP protocol transmissions from the left onto the IP traffic types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 105

A wireless access point is needed and must meet these requirements:

• " zero-touch " deployed and managed by a WLC

• process only real-time MAC functionality

• used in a split-MAC architecture. Which access point type must be used?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

mesh

D.

cloud-based

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Questions 106

A network engineer is replacing the switches that belong to a managed-services client with new Cisco Catalyst switches. The new switches will be configured for updated security standards, including replacing Telnet services with encrypted connections and doubling the modulus size from 1024. Which two commands must the engineer configure on the new switches? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

crypto key generate rsa general-keys modulus 1024

B.

transport input all

C.

crypto key generate rsa usage-keys

D.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 2048

E.

transport Input ssh

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Questions 107

An engineer must configure neighbor discovery between the company router and an ISP

What is the next step to complete the configuration if the ISP uses a third-party router?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally.

B.

Disable CDP on gi0/0.

C.

Enable LLDP TLVs on the ISP router.

D.

Disable auto-negotiation.

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Questions 108

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

Options:

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Questions 109

Which AP mode serves as the primary hub in a point-to-multipoint network topology.

Options:

A.

FlexConnect

B.

SE-Connect

C.

bridge

D.

local

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Questions 110

Drag and drop the statements about AAA from the left onto the corresponding AAA services on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 111

What determines the sequence in which materials are planned during the material requirements planning (MRP) run?

Options:

A.

The control parameters of the MRP run

B.

The creation date of the materials

C.

The low-level code of the materials

D.

The replenishment lead time of the materials

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Questions 112

Which (unction generally performed by a traditional network device is replaced by a software-defined controller?

Options:

A.

encryption and decryption for VPN link processing

B.

building route tables and updating the forwarding table

C.

changing the source or destination address during NAT operations

D.

encapsulation and decapsulation of packets in a data-link frame

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Questions 113

An engineer is configuring a switch port that is connected to a VoIP handset. Which command must the engineer configure to enable port security with a manually assigned MAC address of abod-bod on voice VLAN 4?

Options:

A.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd

B.

switchport port-security mac-address abed.abed.abed vlan 4

C.

switchport port-security mac-address sticky abcd.abcd.abcd vlan 4

D.

switchport port-security mac-address abcd.abcd.abcd vlan voice

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Questions 114

What should a network administrator consider when deciding to implement automation?

Options:

A.

Automated systems may have difficulty expanding network changes at scale.

B.

Network automation typically is limited to the configuration and management of virtual devices within a network.

C.

Network automation typically increases enterprise management operating costs.

D.

Manual changes frequently lead to configuration errors and inconsistencies.

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Questions 115

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

Options:

A.

FF00:1/12

B.

2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128

C.

2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64

D.

FE80::1/10

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Questions 116

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

console

B.

Telnet

C.

Bash

D.

SSH

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Questions 117

Refer to the exhibit.

Given the following switch MAC addresses, which switch will be elected as the root bridge?

SW1: 0C:5A:05:53:27:17

SW2: 0C:0A:A8:1A:3C:9D

SW3: 0C:0A:18:81:83:19

SW4: 0C:0A:05:22:05:97

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 118

An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure IEEE 802.1p

B.

configure IEEE 802.1q

C.

configure ISL

D.

configure DSCP

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Questions 119

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

latency

B.

port security violation

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

nothing plugged into the port

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Questions 120

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 121

When a switch receives a frame for a known destination MAC address, how is the frame handed?

Options:

A.

sent to the port identified for the known MAC address

B.

broadcast to all ports

C.

forwarded to the first available port

D.

flooded to all ports except the one from which it originated

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Questions 122

A frame that enters a switch fails the Frame Check Sequence. Which two interface counters are incremented? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

runts

B.

giants

C.

frame

D.

CRC

E.

input errors

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Questions 123

On workstations running Microsoft Windows, which protocol provides the default gateway for the device?

Options:

A.

DHCP

B.

STP

C.

SNMP

D.

DNS

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Questions 124

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

B.

support standalone or controller-based architectures

C.

serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

D.

provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

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Questions 125

Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?

Options:

A.

1729.0.0/16

B.

172.28.0.0/16

C.

192.0.0.0/8

D.

209.165.201.0/24

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Questions 126

Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?

Options:

A.

read

B.

update

C.

create

D.

delete

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Questions 127

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

Options:

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Questions 128

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 129

What are two similarities between UTP Cat 5e and Cat 6a cabling? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Both operate at a frequency of 500 MHz.

B.

Both support runs of up to 55 meters.

C.

Both support runs of up to 100 meters.

D.

Both support speeds of at least 1 Gigabit.

E.

Both support speeds up to 10 Gigabit.

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Questions 130

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 131

Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 132

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

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Questions 133

What is a benefit of using a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

Central AP management requires more complex configurations

B.

Unique SSIDs cannot use the same authentication method

C.

It supports autonomous and lightweight APs

D.

It eliminates the need to configure each access point individually

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Questions 134

After installing a new Cisco ISE server, which task must the engineer perform on the Cisco WLC to connect wireless clients on a specific VLAN based on their credentials?

Options:

A.

Enable the allow AAA Override

B.

Enable the Even: Driven RRM.

C.

Disable the LAG Mode or Next Reboot.

D.

Enable the Authorized MIC APs against auth-list or AAA.

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Questions 135

Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?

Options:

A.

WPA2 + AES

B.

WPA + AES

C.

WEP

D.

WPA + TKIP

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Questions 136

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

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Questions 137

Refer to Exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

B.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

C.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

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Questions 138

Refer to the exhibit.

A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources.

Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

RIP route 10.0.0.0/30

B.

iBGP route 10.0.0.0/30

C.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/30

D.

EIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32

E.

OSPF route 10.0.0.0/16

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Questions 139

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

Options:

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

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Questions 140

Which command prevents passwords from being stored in the configuration as plain text on a router or switch?

Options:

A.

enable secret

B.

service password-encryption

C.

username Cisco password encrypt

D.

enable password

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Questions 141

Which access layer threat-mitigation technique provides security based on identity?

Options:

A.

Dynamic ARP Inspection

B.

using a non-default native VLAN

C.

802.1x

D.

DHCP snooping

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Questions 142

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

C.

it load-balances traffic between all three routes

D.

It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 143

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

Options:

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

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Questions 144

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of the spanning tree for VLAN 110?

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

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Questions 145

What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?

Options:

A.

SMTP

B.

SNMP

C.

TCP

D.

FTP

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Questions 146

Which command is used to specify the delay time in seconds for LLDP to initialize on any interface?

Options:

A.

lldp timer

B.

lldp holdtimt

C.

lldp reinit

D.

lldp tlv-select

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Questions 147

A network engineer must back up 20 network router configurations globally within a customer environment. Which protocol allows the engineer to perform this function using the Cisco IOS MIB?

Options:

A.

CDP

B.

SNMP

C.

SMTP

D.

ARP

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Questions 148

Refer to the exhibit. All routers in the network are configured R2 must be the DR. After the engineer connected the devices, R1 was elected as the DR. Which command sequence must be configure on R2 to Be elected as the DR in the network?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 149

In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.

B.

It uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.

C.

It protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.

D.

It stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality

E.

It encourages users to create stronger passwords.

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Questions 150

What is a DNS lookup operation?

Options:

A.

DNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available

B.

serves requests over destination port 53

C.

DNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down

D.

responds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server

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Questions 151

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

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Questions 152

What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?

Options:

A.

1.544 Mbps

B.

2.048 Mbps

C.

34.368 Mbps

D.

43.7 Mbps

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Questions 153

What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?

Options:

A.

SNMP

B.

DNS lookup

C.

syslog

D.

NTP

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Questions 154

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

Options:

A.

5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoveriapping channels.

B.

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.

C.

5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

D.

Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

E.

Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoveriapping channels.

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Questions 155

What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?

Options:

A.

initiates a ping request to the URL

B.

prompts the user to specify the desired IP address

C.

continuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled

D.

sends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL

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Questions 156

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 157

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company ' s security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

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Questions 158

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

Buy Now
Questions 159

A network administrator is asked to configure VLANS 2, 3 and 4 for a new implementation. Some ports must be assigned to the new VLANS with unused remaining. Which action should be taken for the unused ports?

Options:

A.

configure port in the native VLAN

B.

configure ports in a black hole VLAN

C.

configure in a nondefault native VLAN

D.

configure ports as access ports

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Questions 160

What is the purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.

to mitigate delays over slow links

B.

to provide fair queuing for buffered flows

C.

to limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to

D.

be a marking mechanism that identifies different flows

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Questions 161

Refer to the exhibit.

After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?

Options:

A.

Switch 1

B.

Switch 2

C.

Switch 3

D.

Switch 4

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Questions 162

What criteria is used first during me root port selection process?

Options:

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor ' s bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor ' s port ID

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Questions 163

Drag and drop the QoS congestion management terms from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

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Questions 164

Refer to the exhibit.

Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?

Options:

A.

The switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own.

B.

The source MAC address is changed.

C.

The source and destination MAC addresses remain the same.

D.

The destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff.

Buy Now
Questions 165

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

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Questions 166

Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?

Options:

A.

TACACS server

B.

wireless access point

C.

RADIUS server

D.

wireless LAN controller

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Questions 167

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

Options:

A.

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

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Questions 168

Which QoS Profile is selected in the GUI when configuring a voice over WLAN deployment?

Options:

A.

Bronze

B.

Platinum

C.

Silver

D.

Gold

Buy Now
Questions 169

Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (choose two.)

Options:

A.

5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 nonoveriapping channels.

B.

For maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the same channel.

C.

5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.

D.

Adjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.

E.

Cells that overlap one another are configured to use nonoveriapping channels.

Buy Now
Questions 170

What describes the operation of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources

B.

In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.

C.

Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.

D.

Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware

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Questions 171

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

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Questions 172

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 173

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root bridge?

Options:

A.

S1

B.

S2

C.

S3

D.

S4

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Questions 174

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

Options:

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

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Questions 175

Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?

Options:

A.

worm

B.

malware

C.

DDoS

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 176

Which statement identifies the functionality of virtual machines?

Options:

A.

Virtualized servers run most efficiently when they are physically connected to a switch that is separate from the hypervisor

B.

The hypervisor can virtualize physical components including CPU. memory, and storage

C.

Each hypervisor can support a single virtual machine and a single software switch

D.

The hypervisor communicates on Layer 3 without the need for additional resources

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Questions 177

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

Options:

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

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Questions 178

What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

register with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.

B.

use SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.

C.

send LWAPP packets to access points.

D.

monitor activity on wireless and wired LANs

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Questions 179

What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?

Options:

A.

different nonoverlapping channels

B.

different overlapping channels

C.

one overlapping channel

D.

one nonoverlapping channel

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Questions 180

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

Options:

A.

dual algorithm

B.

metric

C.

administrative distance

D.

hop count

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Questions 181

What are two improvements provided by automation for network management in an SDN environment? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Data collection and analysis tools establish a baseline for the network

B.

Artificial intelligence identifies and prevents potential design failures.

C.

Machine learning minimizes the overall error rate when automating troubleshooting processes

D.

New devices are onboarded with minimal effort

E.

Proprietary Cisco APIs leverage multiple network management tools.

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Questions 182

How does QoS optimize voice traffic?

Options:

A.

reducing bandwidth usage

B.

by reducing packet loss

C.

by differentiating voice and video traffic

D.

by increasing jitter

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Questions 183

Drag and drop the DHCP snooping terms from the left onto the descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 184

How are the switches in a spine-and-leaf topology interconnected?

Options:

A.

Each leaf switch is connected to one of the spine switches.

B.

Each leaf switch is connected to two spine switches, making a loop.

C.

Each leaf switch is connected to each spine switch.

D.

Each leaf switch is connected to a central leaf switch, then uplinked to a core spine switch.

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Questions 185

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding

B.

The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standby router

C.

Each router has a different IP address, both routers act as the default gateway on the LAN, and traffic is load-balanced between them

D.

The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway for devices on the LAN

E.

The two routers share the same interface IP address and default gateway traffic is load-balanced between them

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Questions 186

Which two command sequences must you configure on switch to establish a Layer 3 EtherChannel with an open-standard protocol? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode on

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode active

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0/1channel-group 10 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 10switchportswitchport mode trunk

E.

interface port-channel 10no switchportip address 172.16.0.1.255.255.255.0

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Questions 187

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

access-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

B.

no access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22

C.

access-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22

D.

no access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255

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Questions 188

Which WAN topology provides a combination of simplicity quality, and availability?

Options:

A.

partial mesh

B.

full mesh

C.

point-to-point

D.

hub-and-spoke

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Questions 189

An engineer is configuring an encrypted password for the enable command on a router where the local user database has already been configured Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left into the correct sequence on the right Not all commands are used

Options:

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Questions 190

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

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Questions 191

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator must turn off the Cisco Discovery Protocol on the port configured with address last usable address in the 10.0.0.0/30 subnet. Which command set meets the requirement?

Options:

A.

interface gi0/1no cdp enable

B.

interface gi0/1clear cdp table

C.

interface gi0/0no cdp advertise-v2

D.

interface gi0/0no cdp run

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Questions 192

What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)

Options:

A.

The environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic

B.

It allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network

C.

It allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.

D.

It allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network

E.

It requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet

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Questions 193

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

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Questions 194

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two configurations must the engineer apply on this network so that R1 becomes the DR? (Choose two.)

A)

B)

C)

D)

E)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

E.

Option E

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Questions 195

Drag and drop the attack-mitigation techniques from the left onto the Types of attack that they mitigate on the right.

Options:

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Questions 196

Refer to the exhibit.

Routers R1 and R3 have the default configuration The router R2 priority is set to 99 Which commands on R3 configure it as the DR in the 10.0 4.0/24 network?

Options:

A.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

B.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 100

C.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/0 R3(config-if)i=ip ospf priority 1

D.

R3(config)#interface Gig0/1 R3(config-if)#ip ospf priority 0

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Questions 197

Which characteristic differentiates the concept of authentication from authorization and accounting?

Options:

A.

user-activity logging

B.

service limitations

C.

consumption-based billing

D.

identity verification

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Questions 198

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer built a new L2 LACP EtherChannel between SW1 and SW2 and executed these show commands to verify the work. Which additional task allows the two switches to establish an LACP port channel?

Options:

A.

Change the channel-group mode on SW2 to auto

B.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to desirable.

C.

Configure the interface port-channel 1 command on both switches.

D.

Change the channel-group mode on SW1 to active or passive.

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Questions 200

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Questions 201

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Questions 202

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

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Questions 203

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Questions 204

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

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Questions 205

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 learns all routes via OSPF Which command configures a backup static route on R1 to reach the 192 168.20.0/24 network via R3?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.0.0 192.168.30.2

B.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 90

C.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2 111

D.

R1(config)#ip route 192.168.20.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.30.2

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Questions 206

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0 ' 1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

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Questions 207

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 208

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Options:

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Questions 209

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Options:

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Questions 210

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 211

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 212

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

Buy Now
Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command configures OSPF on the point-to-point link between routers R1 and R2?

Options:

A.

router-id 10.0.0.15

B.

neighbor 10.1.2.0 cost 180

C.

ipospf priority 100

D.

network 10.0.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0

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Questions 214

Refer to the exhibit.

Which minimum configuration items are needed to enable Secure Shell version 2 access to R15?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 215

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

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Questions 216

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer has started to configure replacement switch SW1. To verify part of the configuration, the engineer issued the commands as shown and noticed that the entry for PC2 is missing. Which change must be applied to SW1 so that PC1 and PC2 communicate normally?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 217

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

B.

serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

D.

correlates user activity with network events

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Questions 218

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must update the configuration on Switch2 so that it sends LLDP packets every minute and the information sent via LLDP is refreshed every 3 minutes Which configuration must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 219

Refer to the exhibit.

The link between PC1 and the switch is up. but it is performing poorly. Which interface condition is causing the performance problem?

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch on the interface

B.

There is an issue with the fiber on the switch interface.

C.

There is a speed mismatch on the interface.

D.

There is an interface type mismatch

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Questions 220

Which type of IPv6 address is similar to a unicast address but is assigned to multiple devices on the same network at the same time?

Options:

A.

global unicast address

B.

anycast address

C.

multicast address

D.

link-local address

Buy Now
Questions 221

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

Buy Now
Questions 222

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

Buy Now
Questions 223

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

Buy Now
Questions 224

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

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Questions 225

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 226

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

Buy Now
Questions 227

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

Buy Now
Questions 228

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

Buy Now
Questions 229

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring a new router on the network and applied this configuration. Which additional configuration allows the PC to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information command under interface Gi0/1.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp smart-relay command globally on the router

C.

Configure the ip helper-address 172.16.2.2 command under interface Gi0/0

D.

Configure the ip address dhcp command under interface Gi0/0

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Questions 230

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

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Questions 231

An engineer is configuring remote access to a router from IP subnet 10.139.58.0/28. The domain name, crypto keys, and SSH have been configured. Which configuration enables the traffic on the destination router?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 232

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

Buy Now
Questions 233

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 234

A network engineer must configure two new subnets using the address block 10 70 128 0/19 to meet these requirements:

• The first subnet must support 24 hosts

• The second subnet must support 472 hosts

• Both subnets must use the longest subnet mask possible from the address block

Which two configurations must be used to configure the new subnets and meet a requirement to use the first available address in each subnet for the router interfaces? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

interface vlan 1234ip address 10.70.159.1 255.255.254.0

B.

interface vlan 1148ip address 10.70.148.1 255.255.254.0

C.

interface vlan 4722ip address 10.70.133.17 255.255.255.192

D.

interface vlan 3002ip address 10.70.147.17 255.255.255.224

E.

interface vlan 155ip address 10.70.155.65 255.255.255.224

Buy Now
Questions 235

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

Buy Now
Questions 236

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration allows routers R14 and R86 to form an OSPFv2 adjacency while acting as a central point for exchanging OSPF information between routers?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 237

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

Buy Now
Questions 238

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is updating the R1 configuration to connect a new server to the management network. The PCs on the management network must be blocked from pinging the default gateway of the new server. Which command must be configured on R1 to complete the task?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#lp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.248 gi0/1

B.

R1(config)#jp route 172.16.2.2 255.255.255.255 gi0/0

C.

R1(config > #ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.15

D.

R1(conflg)#ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.5

Buy Now
Questions 239

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 240

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 241

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

Buy Now
Questions 242

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

Buy Now
Questions 243

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

Buy Now
Questions 244

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

Buy Now
Questions 245

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Questions 246

Refer to the exhibit.

The following must be considered:

• SW1 is fully configured for all traffic

• The SW4 and SW9 links to SW1 have been configured

• The SW4 interface Gi0/1 and Gi0/0 on SW9 have been configured

• The remaining switches have had all VLANs adde d to their VLAN database

Which configuration establishes a successful ping from PC2 to PC7 without interruption to traffic flow between other PCs?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 247

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 248

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

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Questions 249

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

Buy Now
Questions 250

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 251

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

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Questions 252

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

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Questions 253

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

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Questions 254

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration enables DHCP addressing for hosts connected to interface FastEthernetO/1 on router R4?

Options:

A.

interface FastEthernet0/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1iaccess-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

B.

interface FastEthernot0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit tcp host 10.0.1.1 eq 67 host 10.148.2.1

C.

interface FastEthernetO/0ip helper-address 10.0.1.1Iaccess-list 100 permit host 10.0.1.1 host 10.148.2.1 eq bootps

D.

interface FastEthernet0/1ip helper-address 10.0.1.1!access-list 100 permit udp host 10.0.1.1 eq bootps host 10.148.2.1

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Questions 255

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

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Questions 256

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

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Questions 257

How does Rapid PVST+ create a fast loop-free network topology?

Options:

A.

lt requires multiple links between core switches

B.

It generates one spanning-tree instance for each VLAN

C.

It maps multiple VLANs into the same spanning-tree instance

D.

It uses multiple active paths between end stations.

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Questions 258

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

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Questions 259

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

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Questions 260

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

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Questions 261

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

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Questions 262

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 currently is configured to use R3 as the primary route to the Internet, and the route uses the default administrative distance settings. A network engineer must configure R1 so that it uses R2 as a backup, but only if R3 goes down. Which command must the engineer configure on R1 so that it correctly uses R2 as a backup route, without changing the administrative distance configuration on the link to R3?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 1

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.201.5 10

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.226 1

D.

ip route 0,0.0.0 0.0.0.0 g0/1 6

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Questions 263

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

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Questions 264

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

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Questions 265

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

Buy Now
Questions 266

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

Buy Now
Questions 267

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

Options:

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

bad NIC

C.

high throughput

D.

broadcast storm

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Questions 268

What is represented by the word " LB13 " within this JSON schema?

Options:

A.

value

B.

object

C.

array

D.

key

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Questions 269

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 270

Which technology allows multiple operating systems to run a single physical server?

Options:

A.

Containers

B.

Cloud computing

C.

Application hosting

D.

Virtualization

Buy Now
Questions 271

Refer to the exhibit. Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces. The two circuits are operational and reachable across the WAN. Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

Options:

A.

Ri(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.62R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5 2

B.

Ri(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.5

C.

Ri(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.6R2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.5

D.

Ri(config)#ip route 10.10.13.10 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.2R2(config)#ip route 192.168.0.100 255.255.255.255 10.10.10.1

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Questions 272

Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?

Options:

A.

Use an access list to filter out the syslog messages.

B.

Turn off the logging monitor in global configuration mode.

C.

Disable logging to the console.

D.

Set the logging trap severity level to informational.

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Questions 273

What is a function of a Next-Generation IPS?

Options:

A.

Integrates with a RADIUS server to enforce Layer 2 device authentication rules

B.

Serves as a controller within a controller-based network

C.

Makes forwarding decisions based on learned MAC addresses

D.

Correlates user activity with network events

Buy Now
Questions 274

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

Options:

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

Buy Now
Questions 275

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

Options:

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

Buy Now
Questions 276

Refer to the exhibit.

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

Options:

A.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

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Questions 277

Which security protocol is appropriate for a WPA3 implementation?

Options:

A.

CCMP

B.

MD5

C.

TKIP

D.

GCMP

Buy Now
Questions 278

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

Options:

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

Buy Now
Questions 279

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 280

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

Options:

A.

REST API

B.

OpenFlow

C.

Southbound API

D.

NETCONF

Buy Now
Questions 281

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 282

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must replicate the AccessSw1 NTP configuration on a new switch. The engineer could not access privileged mode on AccessSw1 to view its configuration.

Which command must be applied to the new switch to replicate the configuration?

Options:

A.

ntp master

B.

ntp master 3

C.

ntp server 2001:db8:12::1

D.

ntp server 127.127.1.1

Buy Now
Questions 283

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Enable the MAC Filtering option

B.

Enable the OSEN Policy option

C.

Enable the CCKM option for Authentication Key Management

D.

Enable the WPA2 Policy option

E.

Enable the 802.1X option for Authentication Key Management

Buy Now
Questions 284

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

Options:

A.

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

channel-group 1 mode on

C.

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

channel-group 1 mode active

Buy Now
Questions 285

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

B.

adds unknown source MAC addresses to the CAM table

C.

sends the frame back to the source to verify availability

D.

drops received MAC addresses not listed in the address table

Buy Now
Questions 286

In which way does a spine-and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

Options:

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch are added with redundant connections between them.

B.

A spine switch is added with at least 40 GB uplinks.

C.

A leaf switch is added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch is added with connections to every spine switch.

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Questions 287

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 288

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

Buy Now
Questions 289

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

RTP

C.

TCP

D.

IP

E.

ARP

Buy Now
Questions 290

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

Buy Now
Questions 291

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

Options:

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

Buy Now
Questions 292

How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.

To define the network path the API request should take

B.

To uniquely identify each client application

C.

To specify the type of data format the client prefers to receive

D.

To encrypt data sent in the API request

Buy Now
Questions 293

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the host address of 192.168.18.16?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet1/0

B.

GigabitEthernet0/0

C.

GigabitEthernet2/0

D.

Null0

Buy Now
Questions 294

Which type of wired port is required when an AP offers one unique SSID, passes client data and management traffic, and is in autonomous mode?

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

default

C.

trunk

D.

Bopess

Buy Now
Questions 295

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the let into the order on the right.

Options:

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Questions 296

Refer to the exhibit. Of the routes learned with dynamic routing protocols, which has the least preferred metric?

Options:

A.

EIGRP

B.

OSPF

C.

Local

D.

RIP

Buy Now
Questions 297

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented in line 2 within this JSON schema?

Options:

A.

key

B.

value

C.

object

D.

array

Buy Now
Questions 298

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

Buy Now
Questions 299

Refer to the exhibit. HQC needs to use a configuration that:

Handles up to 150,000 concurrent connections

Minimizes consumption of public IP addresses

Which configuration meets the requirements?

Options:

A.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.5 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat inside source list HQC interface gigabitEthernet0/0 overload

B.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.200.225 209.165.200.226 netmask 255.255.255.252ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

C.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.3 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat inside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

D.

ip nat pool NATPOOL 209.165.201.1 209.165.201.248 netmask 255.255.255.248ip nat outside source list HQC pool NATPOOL overload

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Questions 300

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

C.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 301

Refer to the exhibit. OSPF neighbors routers A, B, C, and D are sending a route for 10.227.150.160/27. When the current route for 10.227.150.160/27 becomes unavailable, which cost will router Y use to route traffic to 10.227.150.160/27?

Options:

A.

cost 20

B.

cost 30

C.

cost 40

D.

cost 50

Buy Now
Questions 302

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?

Options:

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

Buy Now
Questions 303

Which two northbound APIs are found in a software-defined network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST

C.

OpFlex

D.

SOAP

E.

NETCONF

Buy Now
Questions 304

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 305

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.255

Buy Now
Questions 306

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface does a packet take to reach the destination address of 10.10.10.147?

Options:

A.

Serial 0/0

B.

FastEthernet 0/2

C.

FastEthernet 0/0

D.

FastEthernet 0/1

Buy Now
Questions 307

Which syslog message logging level displays interface line protocol up/down events?

Options:

A.

Informational

B.

debugging

C.

alerts

D.

notifications

Buy Now
Questions 308

What is the difference between the TCP and UDP protocols?

Options:

A.

TCP ensures ordered, reliable data delivery, and UDP offers low latency and high throughput.

B.

TCP is used for transmitting data over the internet, and UDP is used for transmitting data over a local network.

C.

TCP manages multicast and broadcast data transfers, and UDP only handles unicast communications.

D.

TCP is used to ensure data integrity in a file transfer, and UDP is used to broadcast a message to multiple recipients.

Buy Now
Questions 309

How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?

Options:

A.

Reduces the response time for specific requests to devices with many interfaces

B.

Categorizes traffic and provides insights

C.

Allows the controller to be vendor-agnostic

D.

Streamlines monitoring using SNMP and other polling tools

Buy Now
Questions 310

Which default condition must be considered when an encrypted mobility tunnel is used between two Cisco WLCs?

Options:

A.

TCP port 443 and UDP 21 are used.

B.

Control and data traffic encryption are enabled.

C.

The tunnel uses the IPsec protocol for encapsulation.

D.

The tunnel uses the EolP protocol to transmit data traffic.

Buy Now
Questions 311

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

Buy Now
Questions 312

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

Options:

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

Buy Now
Questions 313

How is AI used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds

B.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection

C.

It exclusively predicts device malfunctions

D.

It guarantees zero packet loss in the network

Buy Now
Questions 314

Which feature of Digest Authentication prevents credentials from being sent in plaintext?

Options:

A.

SSL/TLS encryption

B.

Challenge-response mechanism

C.

Token-based authorization

D.

Public key infrastructure

Buy Now
Questions 315

What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?

Options:

A.

16

B.

32

C.

48

D.

64

Buy Now
Questions 316

What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?

Options:

A.

Security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS.

B.

Devices communicate with each other to establish a security policy.

C.

It creates a unified control point making security policies consistent across all devices.

D.

It exposes an API to configure locally per device for security policies.

Buy Now
Questions 317

What is the default interface for in-band wireless network management on a WLC?

Options:

A.

Redundant port

B.

Out-of-band

C.

Service port

D.

Wireless management

Buy Now
Questions 318

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

Options:

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

Buy Now
Questions 319

An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.224

B.

255.255.255.248

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.252

Buy Now
Questions 320

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

Options:

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Buy Now
Questions 321

Which role does AI play in monitoring network data flow?

Options:

A.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

B.

It exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

Buy Now
Questions 322

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a wireless LAN with Web Passthrough Layer 3 Web Policy. Which action must the engineer take to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Set the Layer 2 Security to 802.1X.

B.

Enable TKIP and CCMP256 WPA2 Encryption.

C.

Set the Layer 2 Security to None.

D.

Enable the WPA Policy.

Buy Now
Questions 323

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

Options:

A.

1

B.

24

C.

192.168.10.2

D.

0

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Questions 324

Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

Options:

A.

mesh

B.

local

C.

bridge

D.

point-to-point

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Questions 325

How are API keys used to enforce rate limiting?

Options:

A.

to specify the type of data format the client prefers to receive

B.

to define the network path the API request should take

C.

to encrypt data sent in the API request

D.

to uniquely identify each client application

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Questions 326

What is represented by the word " switch " within this JSON schema?

Options:

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

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Questions 327

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes

B.

Select ASCII from the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank

C.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes

D.

Select CCKM for the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to Hex, and enter the key

E.

Select PSK from the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key

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Questions 328

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Provides a single broadcast domain for all connected devices

B.

Performs packet fragmentation and reassembly

C.

Tracks the number of active TCP connections

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

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Questions 329

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 330

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4 ' s WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4 ' s LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 331

What are two behaviors of a point-to-point WAN topology? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It uses a single router to route traffic between sites.

B.

It leverages a dedicated connection.

C.

It connects remote networks through a single line.

D.

t delivers redundancy between the central office and branch offices.

E.

It provides direct connections between each router in the topology.

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Questions 332

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is adding another physical interface as a new member to the existing Port-Channel1 bundle.

Which command set must be configured on the new interface to complete the process?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active

B.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode active

C.

no switchport channel-group 1 mode on

D.

switchport switchport mode trunk

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Questions 333

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

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Questions 334

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

Options:

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

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Questions 335

Refer to the exhibit. Which routes are configured with their default administrative distances?

Options:

A.

Local

B.

EIGRP

C.

RIP

D.

OSPF

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Questions 336

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

Options:

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

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Questions 337

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

Reduces the forwarding table on network routers

B.

Used on the external interface of a firewall

C.

Used by ISPs when only one IP is needed to connect to the internet

D.

Address space which is isolated from the internet

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Questions 338

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

Options:

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

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Questions 339

What is a reason to implement HSRP on a network?

Options:

A.

to Identify the closest hop to the default gateway In a LAN network

B.

to provide load balancing over multiple gateways in a LAN network

C.

to optimally route traffic based on the forwarding capacity of the edge routing devices in the LAN network

D.

to ensure that user traffic in a LAN rapidly recovers from the failure of an edge routing device

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Questions 340

Drag and drop the AAA features from the left onto the corresponding AAA security services on the right Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 341

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI

B.

It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers

C.

It moves the control plane to a central point.

D.

It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwarding decisions

E.

It uses Telnet to report system issues.

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Questions 342

Refer to me exhibit.

Which action is taken by the router when a packet is sourced from 10.10.10.2 and destined for 10.10.10.16?

Options:

A.

It uses a route that is similar to the destination address

B.

It discards the packets.

C.

It floods packets to all learned next hops.

D.

It Queues the packets waiting for the route to be learned.

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Questions 343

Which QoS tool is used to optimize voice traffic on a network that is primarily intended for data traffic?

Options:

A.

FIFO

B.

WFQ

C.

PQ

D.

WRED

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Questions 344

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

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Questions 345

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

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Questions 346

What Is a syslog facility?

Options:

A.

Host that is configured for the system to send log messages

B.

password that authenticates a Network Management System to receive log messages

C.

group of log messages associated with the configured severity level

D.

set of values that represent the processes that can generate a log message

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Questions 347

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

Options:

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

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Questions 348

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Options:

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Questions 349

What is a function of a Layer 3 switch?

Options:

A.

move frames between endpoints limited to IP addresses

B.

transmit broadcast traffic when operating in Layer 3 mode exclusively

C.

forward Ethernet frames between VLANs using only MAC addresses

D.

flood broadcast traffic within a VLAN

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Questions 350

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

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Questions 351

An administrator must secure the WLC from receiving spoofed association requests. Which steps must be taken to configure the WLC to restrict the requests and force the user to wait 10 ms to retry an association request?

Options:

A.

Enable Security Association Teardown Protection and set the SA Query timeout to 10

B.

Enable MAC filtering and set the SA Query timeout to 10

C.

Enable 802.1x Layer 2 security and set me Comeback timer to 10

D.

Enable the Protected Management Frame service and set the Comeback timer to 10

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Questions 352

Which unified access point mode continues to serve wireless clients after losing connectivity to the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller?

Options:

A.

sniffer

B.

mesh

C.

flexconnect

D.

local

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Questions 353

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right

Options:

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Questions 354

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

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Questions 355

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exiting Interface by 256.

B.

The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as the feasible successor.

C.

The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route

D.

The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the local router of the bandwidth on the link

E.

The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route

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Questions 356

Refer to the exhibit.

With which metric was the route to host 172.16.0.202 learned?

Options:

A.

0

B.

110

C.

38443

D.

3184439

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Questions 357

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Options:

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Questions 358

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.0.14. What is the destination route for the packet?

Options:

A.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1

B.

209.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0

C.

209.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0

D.

209.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0

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Questions 359

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

Options:

A.

northbound API

B.

REST API

C.

SOAP API

D.

southbound API

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Questions 360

Which result occurs when PortFast is enabled on an interface that is connected to another switch?

Options:

A.

Spanning tree may fail to detect a switching loop in the network that causes broadcast storms

B.

VTP is allowed to propagate VLAN configuration information from switch to switch automatically.

C.

Root port choice and spanning tree recalculation are accelerated when a switch link goes down

D.

After spanning tree converges PortFast shuts down any port that receives BPDUs.

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Questions 361

What is the purpose of an SSID?

Options:

A.

It provides network security

B.

It differentiates traffic entering access posits

C.

It identities an individual access point on a WLAN

D.

It identifies a WLAN

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Questions 362

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

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Questions 363

Refer to the exhibit.

Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity?

Options:

A.

between zones 1 and 2

B.

between zones 2 and 5

C.

between zones 3 and 4

D.

between zones 3 and 6

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Questions 364

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

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Questions 365

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

Options:

A.

Unicode

B.

base64

C.

decimal

D.

ASCII

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Questions 366

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

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Questions 367

What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

to automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down

B.

to route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet

C.

to enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails

D.

to support load balancing via static routing

E.

to control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router

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Questions 368

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

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Questions 369

Which type of IPv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as IPv4 public address?

Options:

A.

global unicast

B.

link-local

C.

unique local

D.

multicast

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Questions 370

Which two values or settings must be entered when configuring a new WLAN in the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller GUI? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

management interface settings

B.

QoS settings

C.

Ip address of one or more access points

D.

SSID

E.

Profile name

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Questions 371

How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?

Options:

A.

The CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port

B.

Switches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.

C.

The ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

D.

It requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Implementing and Administering Cisco Solutions (200-301 CCNA) v1.1
Last Update: Apr 7, 2026
Questions: 1240
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