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200-301 Cisco Certified Network Associate Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What is the purpose of the service-set identifier?

Options:

A.

It identifies the wired network to which a network device is connected.

B.

It identifies a wireless network for a mobile device to connect.

C.

It identifies the wireless network to which an application must connect.

D.

It identifies the wired network to which a user device is connected.

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Questions 5

Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?

Options:

A.

firewall

B.

switch

C.

access point

D.

wireless controller

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200-301 Report Card

Questions 6

Which statement about Link Aggregation when implemented on a Cisco Wireless LAN Controller is true?

Options:

A.

To pass client traffic two or more ports must be configured.

B.

The EtherChannel must be configured in "mode active"

C.

When enabled the WLC bandwidth drops to 500 Mbps

D.

One functional physical port is needed to pass client traffic

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Questions 7

What is a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

a workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address

B.

a host that is configured to request an IP address automatically

C.

a server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

D.

a router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.

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Questions 8

What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

centralize the management of access points in an enterprise network

B.

support standalone or controller-based architectures

C.

serve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network

D.

provide secure user logins to devices on the network.

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Questions 9

Which protocol uses the SSL?

Options:

A.

HTTP

B.

SSH

C.

HTTPS

D.

Telnet

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Questions 10

Refer to the exhibit.

Which switch becomes the root of a spanning tree for VLAN 20 if all li links are of equal speed?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 11

Which two components comprise part of a PKI? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

preshared key that authenticates connections

B.

RSA token

C.

CA that grants certificates

D.

clear-text password that authenticates connections

E.

one or more CRLs

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Questions 12

What is an expected outcome when network management automation is deployed?

Options:

A.

A distributed management plane must be used.

B.

Software upgrades are performed from a central controller

C.

Complexity increases when new device configurations are added

D.

Custom applications are needed to configure network devices

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Questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. Router-WAN1 has a new connection via Gi0/0 to the ISP. Users running the web applications indicate that connectivity is unstable to the internet. What is causing the interface issue?

Options:

A.

Small frames less than 64 bytes are rejected due to size.

B.

The receive buffer is full due to a broadcast storm.

C.

Frames are discarded due to a half-duplex negotiation.

D.

Broadcast packets are rejected because ARP timeout is enabled.

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Questions 14

Why is TCP desired over UDP for application that require extensive error checking, such as HTTPS?

Options:

A.

UDP operates without acknowledgments, and TCP sends an acknowledgment for every packet received.

B.

UDP reliably guarantees delivery of all packets, and TCP drops packets under heavy load.

C.

UDP uses flow control mechanisms for the delivery of packets, and TCP uses congestion control for efficient packet delivery.

D.

UDP uses sequencing data tor packets to arrive in order, and TCP offers trie capability to receive packets in random order.

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Questions 15

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied

B.

issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number

C.

composed of up to 65.536 available addresses

D.

used without tracking or registration

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Questions 16

What is a capability of FTP in network management operations?

Options:

A.

encrypts data before sending between data resources

B.

devices are directly connected and use UDP to pass file information

C.

uses separate control and data connections to move files between server and client

D.

offers proprietary support at the session layer when transferring data

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Questions 17

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber

B.

A BNC connector is used for fiber connections

C.

The glass core component is encased in a cladding

D.

Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections

E.

The data can pass through the cladding

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Questions 18

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?

Options:

A.

R2 is using the passive-interface default command

B.

R1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0

C.

R2 should have its network command in area 1

D.

R1 interface Gil/0 has a larger MTU size

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Questions 19

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two prefixes are included in this routing table entry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

192.168.1.17

B.

192.168.1.61

C.

192.168.1.64

D.

192.168.1.127

E.

192.168.1.254

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Questions 20

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer is in the process of establishing IP connectivity between two sites. Routers R1 and R2 are partially configured with IP addressing. Both routers have the ability to access devices on their respective LANs. Which command set configures the IP connectivity between devices located on both LANs in each site?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 21

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is tasked with verifying network configuration parameters on a client workstation to report back to the team lead. Drag and drop the node identifiers from the left onto the network parameters on the right.

Options:

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Questions 22

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?

Options:

A.

Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services

B.

Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services

C.

Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control

D.

Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control

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Questions 23

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to?

Options:

A.

point-to-multipoint

B.

point-to-point

C.

broadcast

D.

nonbroadcast

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Questions 24

Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?

Options:

A.

1,6,11

B.

1,5,10

C.

1,2,3

D.

5,6,7

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Questions 25

Which type of API allows SDN controllers to dynamically make changes to the network?

Options:

A.

northbound API

B.

REST API

C.

SOAP API

D.

southbound API

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Questions 26

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport nonegotiate

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Questions 27

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The core and distribution layers perform the same functions

B.

The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains

C.

The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.

D.

The core layer maintains wired connections for each host

E.

The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

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Questions 28

What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?

Options:

A.

to analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet

B.

to transmit wireless traffic between hosts

C.

to pass traffic between different networks

D.

forward traffic within the same broadcast domain

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Questions 29

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured?

Options:

A.

passive

B.

mode on

C.

auto

D.

active

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Questions 30

Refer to the exhibit.

For security reasons, automatic neighbor discovery must be disabled on the R5 Gi0/1 interface. These tasks must be completed:

• Disable all neighbor discovery methods on R5 interface GiO/1.

• Permit neighbor discovery on R5 interface GiO/2.

• Verify there are no dynamically learned neighbors on R5 interface Gi0/1.

• Display the IP address of R6*s interface Gi0/2.

Which configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 31

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message?

Options:

A.

0

B.

2

C.

4

D.

6

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Questions 32

Which JSON data type is an unordered set of attribute- value pairs?

Options:

A.

array

B.

string

C.

object

D.

Boolean

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Questions 33

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1?

Options:

A.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

B.

configuring a password for the console port

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 34

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

Options:

A.

IPS

B.

firewall

C.

access point

D.

switch

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Questions 35

Refer to the exhibit An IPv6 address must be obtained automatically on the LAN interface on R1 Which command must be implemented to accomplish the task?

Options:

A.

Ipv6 address 2001:dbB:d8d2:1008:4343:61:0010::/64

B.

Ipv6 address autoconfig

C.

Ipv6 address fe80::/10

D.

Ipv6 address dhcp

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Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit.

Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4

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Questions 37

Refer to the exhibit.

The EtherChannel is configured with a speed of 1000 and duplex as full on both ends of channel group 1. What is the next step to configure the channel on switch A to respond to but not initiate LACP communication?

Options:

A.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode on

B.

interface range gigabitethernet0/0/0-15 channel-group 1 mode desirable

C.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

interface port-channel 1 channel-group 1 mode passive

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Questions 38

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. A network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet passes through R2.

Which command must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100

B.

ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115

C.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100

D.

ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115

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Questions 39

Refer to the exhibit. This ACL is configured to allow client access only to HTTP, HTTPS, and DNS services via UDP. The new administrator wants to add TCP access to the DNS service. Which configuration updates the ACL efficiently?

Options:

A.

ip access-list extended Services35 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

B.

no ip access-list extended Servicesip access-list extended Services30 permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

C.

ip access-list extended Servicespermit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domain

D.

no ip access-list extended Servicesip access-list extended Servicespermit udp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 any eq 53permit tcp 10.0.0.0 0.255.255.255 host 198.51.100.11 eq domaindeny ip any any log

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Questions 40

How does authentication differ from authorization?

Options:

A.

Authentication verifies the identity of a person accessing a network, and authorization determines what resource a user can access.

B.

Authentication is used to record what resource a user accesses, and authorization is used to determine what resources a user can access

C.

Authentication is used to determine what resources a user is allowed to access, and authorization is used to track what equipment is allowed access to the network

D.

Authentication is used to verify a person's identity, and authorization is used to create syslog messages for logins.

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Questions 41

An engineer must update the configuration on two PCs in two different subnets to communicate locally with each other. One PC is configured with IP address 192.168.25.128/25 and the other with 192.168.25.100/25. Which network mask must the engineer configure on both PCs to enable the communication?

Options:

A.

255.255.255.224

B.

255.255.255.248

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.252

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Questions 42

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring an EtherChannel using LACP between Switches 1 and 2 Which configuration must be applied so that only Switch 1 sends LACP initiation packets?

Options:

A.

Switch 1 (config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwrtch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

B.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passiveSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

C.

Switch1{config-if)£channel-group 1 mode activeSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode passive

D.

Switch1(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode onSwitch2(config-if)#channel-group 1 mode active

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Questions 43

Refer to the exhibit.

Which next-hop IP address does Routed use for packets destined to host 10 10.13.158?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.5

B.

10.10.11.2

C.

10.10.12.2

D.

10.10.10.9

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Questions 44

Refer to the exhibit.

All traffic enters the CPE router from interface Serial0/3 with an IP address of 192 168 50 1 Web traffic from the WAN is destined for a LAN network where servers are load-balanced An IP packet with a destination address of the HTTP virtual IP of 192 1681 250 must be forwarded Which routing table entry does the router use?

Options:

A.

192.168.1.0/24 via 192.168.12.2

B.

192.168.1.128/25 via 192.168.13.3

C.

192.168.1.192/26 via 192.168.14.4

D.

192.168.1.224/27 via 192.168.15.5

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Questions 45

Which interface mode must be configured to connect the lightweight APs in a centralized architecture?

Options:

A.

WLAN dynamic

B.

management

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 46

What is the purpose of the ip address dhcp command?

Options:

A.

to configure an Interface as a DHCP server

B.

to configure an interface as a DHCP helper

C.

to configure an interface as a DHCP relay

D.

to configure an interface as a DHCP client

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Questions 47

What provides centralized control of authentication and roaming In an enterprise network?

Options:

A.

a lightweight access point

B.

a firewall

C.

a wireless LAN controller

D.

a LAN switch

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Questions 48

Refer to the exhibit.

Site A was recently connected to site B over a new single-mode fiber path. Users at site A report Intermittent connectivity Issues with applications hosted at site B. What is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

Heavy usage is causing high latency.

B.

An incorrect type of transceiver has been inserted into a device on the link.

C.

physical network errors are being transmitted between the two sites.

D.

The wrong cable type was used to make the connection.

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Questions 49

Which WLC management connection type is vulnerable to man-in-the-middle attacks?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

HTTPS

C.

Telnet

D.

console

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Questions 50

Refer to the exhibit.

An IP subnet must be configured on each router that provides enough addresses for the number of assigned hosts and anticipates no more than 10% growth for now hosts. Which configuration script must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 51

What is a function of Opportunistic Wireless Encryption in an environment?

Options:

A.

offer compression

B.

increase security by using a WEP connection

C.

provide authentication

D.

protect traffic on open networks

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Questions 52

Refer to the exhibit.

Users need to connect to the wireless network with IEEE 802. 11r-compatible devices. The connection must be maintained as users travel between floors or to other areas in the building What must be the configuration of the connection?

Options:

A.

Select the WPA Policy option with the CCKM option.

B.

Disable AES encryption.

C.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT 802.1x option.

D.

Enable Fast Transition and select the FT PSK option.

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Questions 53

What is a function of an endpoint on a network?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic between VLANs on a network

B.

connects server and client devices to a network

C.

allows users to record data and transmit to a tile server

D.

provides wireless services to users in a building

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Questions 54

Refer to the exhibit.

A company is configuring a failover plan and must implement the default routes in such a way that a floating static route will assume traffic forwarding when the primary link goes down. Which primary route configuration must be used?

Options:

A.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 GigabitEthernetl/0

B.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 tracked

C.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2 floating

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.0.2

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Questions 55

A network engineer must implement an IPv6 configuration on the vlan 2000 interface to create a routable locally-unique unicast address that is blocked from being advertised to the internet. Which configuration must the engineer apply?

Options:

A.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address ffc0:0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

B.

interface vlan 2000Ipv6 address fc00:0000:aaaa:a15d:1234:2343:8aca/64

C.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fe80;0000:aaaa::1234:2343/64

D.

interface vlan 2000ipv6 address fd00::1234:2343/64

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Questions 56

Drag and drop the Rapid PVST+ forwarding slate actions from the loft to the right. Not all actions are used.

Options:

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Questions 57

Refer to the exhibit.

What is a reason for poor performance on the network interface?

Options:

A.

The interface is receiving excessive broadcast traffic.

B.

The cable connection between the two devices is faulty.

C.

The interface is operating at a different speed than the connected device.

D.

The bandwidth setting of the interface is misconfigured

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Questions 58

Which two network actions occur within the data plane? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Add or remove an 802.1Q trunking header.

B.

Make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC.

C.

Run routing protocols.

D.

Match the destination MAC address to the MAC address table.

E.

Reply to an incoming ICMP echo request.

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Questions 59

Refer to the exhibit.

The DHCP server and clients are connected to the same switch. What is the next step to complete the DHCP configuration to allow clients on VLAN 1 to receive addresses from the DHCP server?

Options:

A.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interlace that is connected to the DHCP client.

B.

Configure the ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP client.

C.

Configure the ip dhcp snooping trust command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

D.

Configure the Ip dhcp relay information option command on the interface that is connected to the DHCP server.

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Questions 60

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer assumes a configuration task from a peer Router A must establish an OSPF neighbor relationship with neighbor 172 1 1 1 The output displays the status of the adjacency after 2 hours. What is the next step in the configuration process for the routers to establish an adjacency?

Options:

A.

Configure router A to use the same MTU size as router B.

B.

Set the router B OSPF ID to a nonhost address.

C.

Configure a point-to-point link between router A and router B.

D.

Set the router B OSPF ID to the same value as its IP address

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Questions 61

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be added to update the configuration of router R1 so that it accepts only encrypted connections? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

username CNAC secret R!41!4319115@

B.

ip ssh version 2

C.

line vty 0 4

D.

crypto key generate rsa 1024

E.

transport input ssh

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Questions 62

A Cisco engineer must configure a single switch interface to meet these requirements

• accept untagged frames and place them in VLAN 20

• accept tagged frames in VLAN 30 when CDP detects a Cisco IP phone

Which command set must the engineer apply?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 63

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R1 resides in OSPF Area 0. After updating the R1 configuration to influence the paths that it will use to direct traffic, an engineer verified that each of the four Gigabit interfaces has the same route to 10.10.0.0/16. Which interface will R1 choose to send traffic to reach the route?

Options:

A.

GigabitEthernet0/0

B.

GigabltEthornet0/1

C.

GigabitEthernet0/2

D.

GigabitEthernet0/3

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Questions 64

A network engineer is configuring a switch so that it is remotely reachable via SSH. The engineer has already configured the host name on the router. Which additional command must the engineer configure before entering the command to generate the RSA key?

Options:

A.

password password

B.

crypto key generate rsa modulus 1024

C.

ip domain-name domain

D.

ip ssh authentication-retries 2

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Questions 65

R1 as an NTP server must have:

• NTP authentication enabled

• NTP packets sourced from Interface loopback 0

• NTP stratum 2

• NTP packets only permitted to client IP 209.165 200 225

How should R1 be configured?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 66

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is asked to insert the new VLAN into the existing trunk without modifying anything previously configured Which command accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 100-104

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 104

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan all

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 104

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Questions 67

Which wireless security protocol relies on Perfect Forward Secrecy?

Options:

A.

WPA3

B.

WPA

C.

WEP

D.

WPA2

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Questions 68

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Options:

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Questions 69

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

nothing plugged into the port

B.

link flapping

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

latency

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Questions 70

Refer to the exhibit.

Host A sent a data frame destined for host D

What does the switch do when it receives the frame from host A?

Options:

A.

It drops the frame from the switch CAM table.

B.

It floods the frame out of all ports except port Fa0/1.

C.

It shuts down the port Fa0/1 and places it in err-disable mode.

D.

It experiences a broadcast storm.

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Questions 71

Refer to the exhibit.

The router has been configured with a supernet to accommodate the requirement for 380 users on a subnet The requirement already considers 30% future growth. Which configuration verifies the IP subnet on router R4?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 72

Refer to the exhibit.

Which plan must be Implemented to ensure optimal QoS marking practices on this network?

Options:

A.

As traffic traverses MLS1 remark the traffic, but trust all markings at the access layer.

B.

Trust the IP phone markings on SW1 and mark traffic entering SW2 at SW2.

C.

Remark traffic as it traverses R1 and trust all markings at the access layer.

D.

As traffic enters from the access layer on SW1 and SW2. trust all traffic markings.

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Questions 73

An engineer must configure R1 for a new user account. The account must meet these requirements:

* It must be configured in the local database.

* The username is engineer.

* It must use the strongest password configurable. Which command must the engineer configure on the router?

Options:

A.

R1 (config)# username engineer2 algorithm-type scrypt secret test2021

B.

R1(config)# username engineer2 secret 5 password S1$b1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

C.

R1(config)# username engineer2 privilege 1 password 7 test2021

D.

R1(config)# username englneer2 secret 4 S1Sb1Ju$kZbBS1Pyh4QzwXyZ

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Questions 74

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the HO router. Which IPv6 address configuration must be applied to the router fa0'1 interface for the router to assign a unique 64-brt IPv6 address to Itself?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FF:FE0F:7/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:DB8:0:1:C601:42FE:800F:7/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FFFF:C601:420F:7/64

D.

iov6 address 2001 :DB8:0:1:FE80:C601:420F:7/64

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Questions 75

Refer to the exhibit.

A static route must be configured on R14 to forward traffic for the 172 21 34 0/25 network that resides on R86 Which command must be used to fulfill the request?

Options:

A.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.192 10.73.65.65

B.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.0 10.73.65.65

C.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.128.0 10.73.65.64

D.

ip route 172.21.34.0 255.255.255.128 10.73.65.66

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Questions 76

A network engineer is installing an IPv6-only capable device. The client has requested that the device IP address be reachable only from the internal network. Which type of IPv6 address must the engineer assign?

Options:

A.

unique local address

B.

link-local address

C.

aggregatable global address

D.

IPv4-compatible IPv6 address

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Questions 77

What is the difference between IPv6 unicast and anycast addressing?

Options:

A.

IPv6 anycast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the anycast address, but IPv6 unicast nodes require no special configuration

B.

IPv6 unicast nodes must be explicitly configured to recognize the unicast address, but IPv6 anycast nodes require no special configuration

C.

An individual IPv6 unicast address is supported on a single interface on one node but an IPv6 anycast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes.

D.

Unlike an IPv6 anycast address, an IPv6 unicast address is assigned to a group of interfaces on multiple nodes

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Questions 78

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands must be configured on router R1 to enable the router to accept secure remote-access connections? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

transport input telnet

B.

crypto key generate rsa

C.

ip ssh pubkey-chain

D.

login console

E.

username cisco password 0 Cisco

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Questions 79

Drag and drop the descriptions of AAA services from the left onto the corresponding services on the right.

Options:

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Questions 80

What is the function of the controller in a software-defined network?

Options:

A.

multicast replication at the hardware level

B.

fragmenting and reassembling packets

C.

making routing decisions

D.

forwarding packets

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Questions 81

Refer to the exhibit.

Web traffic is coming in from the WAN interface. Which route takes precedence when the router is processing traffic destined for the LAN network at 10 0.10.0/24?

Options:

A.

via next-hop 10.0.1.5

B.

via next-hop 10 0 1.4

C.

via next-hop 10.0 1.50

D.

via next-hop 10.0 1 100

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Questions 82

Refer to the exhibit.

All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. Which command sequence must be applied to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk native vlan 10 switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

B.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode trunk switchport trunk allowed vlan 10,15

C.

interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport mode access switchport voice vlan 10

D.

Interface FastEthernet0/1 switchport trunk allowed vlan add 10 vlan 10 private-vlan isolated

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Questions 83

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization?

Options:

A.

configuring a password for the console port

B.

backing up syslogs at a remote location

C.

configuring enable passwords on network devices

D.

setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure

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Questions 84

Drag and drop the facts about wireless architectures from the left onto the types of access point on the right. Not all options are used.

Options:

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Questions 85

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode active

B.

int range g0/0-1 chanm.l-group 10 mode desirable

C.

int range g0/0-1channel-group 10 mode passive

D.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode auto

E.

int range g0/0-1 channel-group 10 mode on

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Questions 86

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.

B.

They allow multiple devices to serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network.

C.

They are able to bundle multiple ports to increase bandwidth.

D.

They prevent loops in the Layer 2 network.

E.

They allow encrypted traffic.

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Questions 87

Which field within the access-request packet is encrypted by RADIUS?

Options:

A.

authorized services

B.

authenticator

C.

username

D.

password

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Questions 88

Which action is taken by the data plane within a network device?

Options:

A.

forwards traffic to the next hop

B.

constructs a routing table based on a routing protocol

C.

provides CLI access to the network device

D.

looks up an egress interface in the forwarding information base

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Questions 89

Which QoS traffic handling technique retains excess packets in a queue and reschedules these packets for later transmission when the configured maximum bandwidth has been surpassed?

Options:

A.

weighted random early detection

B.

traffic policing

C.

traffic shaping

D.

traffic prioritization

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Questions 90

Which Layer 2 switch function encapsulates packets for different VLANs so that the packets traverse the same port and maintain traffic separation between the VLANs?

Options:

A.

VLAN numbering

B.

VLAN DSCP

C.

VLAN tagging

D.

VLAN marking

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Questions 91

A network administrator is setting up a new IPv6 network using the 64-bit address 2001 0EB8 00C1 2200:0001 0000 0000 0331/64 To simplify the configuration the administrator has decided to compress the address Which IP address must the administrator configure?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 21:EB8:C1:2200:1::331/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:22:1::331/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001 :EB8:C 1:2200.1 ::331-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:EB8:C1:2200:1:0000:331/64

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Questions 92

A Cisco engineer is configuring a factory-default router with these three passwords:

• The user EXEC password for console access is p4ssw0rd1

• The user EXEC password for Telnet access is s3cr3t2

• The password for privileged EXEC mode is pnv4t3p4ss Which command sequence must the engineer configured

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 93

Which QoS per-hop behavior changes the value of the ToS field in the IPv4 packet header?

Options:

A.

shaping

B.

classification

C.

policing

D.

marking

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Questions 94

Refer to the exhibit.

Switch A is newly configured. All VLANs are present in the VLAN database. The IP phone and PC A on Gi0/1 must be configured for the appropriate VLANs to establish connectivity between the PCs. Which command set fulfills the requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 95

An organization has decided to start using cloud-provided services. Which cloud service allows the organization to install its own operating system on a virtual machine?

Options:

A.

platform-as-a-service

B.

software-as-a-service

C.

network-as-a-service

D.

infrastructure-as-a-service

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Questions 96

Which protocol does an IPv4 host use to obtain a dynamically assigned IP address?

Options:

A.

ARP

B.

DHCP

C.

CDP

D.

DNS

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Questions 97

In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?

Options:

A.

There is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.

B.

The network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.

C.

Traffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.

D.

The ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.

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Questions 98

Which type of address is the public IP address of a NAT device?

Options:

A.

outside global

B.

outsdwde local

C.

inside global

D.

insride local

E.

outside public

F.

inside public

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Questions 99

Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?

Options:

A.

broadband cable access

B.

frame-relay packet switching

C.

dedicated point-to-point leased line

D.

Integrated Services Digital Network switching.

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Questions 100

Refer to the exhibit.

After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interface's configuration?

Options:

A.

Use the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

B.

Create an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.

C.

Create a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.

D.

Use the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interface's configuration.

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Questions 101

What is a function of a remote access VPN?

Options:

A.

used cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously

B.

used exclusively when a user is connected to a company's internal network

C.

establishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites

D.

allows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel

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Questions 102

Which mode must be used to configure EtherChannel between two switches without using a negotiation protocol?

Options:

A.

on

B.

auto

C.

active

D.

desirable

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Questions 103

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

Options:

A.

a DHCP Relay Agent

B.

DHCP Binding

C.

a DHCP Pool

D.

DHCP Snooping

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Questions 104

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards?

Options:

A.

Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats

B.

Both cable types support LP connectors

C.

Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors

D.

Both support up to 550 meters between nodes

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Questions 105

The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?

Options:

A.

restricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration

B.

encrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established

C.

prevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords

D.

protects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch

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Questions 106

Refer to the exhibit.

The default-information originate command is configured under the R1 OSPF configuration After testing workstations on VLAN 20 at Site B cannot reach a DNS server on the Internet Which action corrects the configuration issue?

Options:

A.

Add the default-information originate command onR2

B.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.18 command on R1

C.

Configure the ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.10.10.2 command on R2

D.

Add the always keyword to the default-information originate command on R1

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Questions 107

What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?

Options:

A.

The seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted

B.

The interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value

C.

The characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface

D.

The MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure GigabitEthernet1/1 to accommodate voice and data traffic Which configuration accomplishes this task?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 109

A Cisco IP phone receive untagged data traffic from an attached PC. Which action is taken by the phone?

Options:

A.

It allows the traffic to pass through unchanged

B.

It drops the traffic

C.

It tags the traffic with the default VLAN

D.

It tags the traffic with the native VLAN

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Questions 110

An engineer must configure a WLAN using the strongest encryption type for WPA2- PSK. Which cipher fulfills the configuration requirement?

Options:

A.

WEP

B.

RC4

C.

AES

D.

TKIP

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Questions 111

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

reduced operational costs

B.

reduced hardware footprint

C.

faster changes with more reliable results

D.

fewer network failures

E.

increased network security

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Questions 112

A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch. What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?

Options:

A.

802.1q trunks

B.

Cisco vPC

C.

LLDP

D.

LACP

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Questions 113

Refer to the exhibit.

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0/28

B.

10.10.13.0/25

C.

10.10.13.144/28

D.

10.10.13.208/29

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Questions 114

Refer to the exhibit.

The nip server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?

Options:

A.

Router2(config)#ntp passive

B.

Router2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1

C.

Router2(config)#ntp master 4

D.

Router2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2

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Questions 115

Which communication interaction takes place when a southbound API Is used?

Options:

A.

between the SDN controller and PCs on the network

B.

between the SON controller and switches and routers on the network

C.

between the SON controller and services and applications on the network

D.

between network applications and switches and routers on the network

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Questions 116

Which action is taken by a switch port enabled for PoE power classification override?

Options:

A.

When a powered device begins drawing power from a PoE switch port a syslog message is generated

B.

As power usage on a PoE switch port is checked data flow to the connected device is temporarily paused

C.

If a switch determines that a device is using less than the minimum configured power it assumes the device has failed and disconnects

D.

Should a monitored port exceeds the maximum administrative value for power, the port is shutdown and err-disabled

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Questions 117

Which type of organization should use a collapsed-core architecture?

Options:

A.

large and requires a flexible, scalable network design

B.

large and must minimize downtime when hardware fails

C.

small and needs to reduce networking costs currently

D.

small but is expected to grow dramatically in the near future

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Questions 118

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

Options:

A.

IKEv2

B.

IKEv1

C.

IPsec

D.

MD5

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Questions 119

A network engineer must configure the router R1 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface to connect to the router R2 GigabitEthernet1/1 interface. For the configuration to be applied the engineer must compress the address 2001:0db8:0000:0000:0500:000a:400F:583B. Which command must be issued on the interface?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:0db8::5: a: 4F 583B

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8::500:a:400F:583B

C.

ipv6 address 2001 db8:0::500:a:4F:583B

D.

ipv6 address 2001::db8:0000::500:a:400F:583B

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Questions 120

Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

Options:

A.

SW1

B.

SW2

C.

SW3

D.

SW4

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Questions 121

An engineer configures interface Gi1/0 on the company PE router to connect to an ISP Neighbor discovery is disabled

Which action is necessary to complete the configuration if the ISP uses third-party network devices?

Options:

A.

Enable LLDP globally

B.

Disable autonegotiation

C.

Disable Cisco Discovery Protocol on the interface

D.

Enable LLDP-MED on the ISP device

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Questions 122

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)

Options:

A.

There is a duplex mismatch

B.

There is a speed mismatch

C.

There is a protocol mismatch

D.

The interface is shut down

E.

The interface is error-disabled

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Questions 123

Router A learns the same route from two different neighbors, one of the neighbor routers is an OSPF neighbor and the other is an EIGRP neighbor. What is the administrative distance of the route that will be installed in the routing table?

Options:

A.

20

B.

90

C.

110

D.

115

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Questions 124

Drag and drop the lightweight access point operation modes from the left onto the descriptions on the right

Options:

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Questions 125

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configured the New York router with state routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. When command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?

Options:

A.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/1

B.

ipv6 route 0/0 Serial 0/0/0

C.

ipv6 route ::/0 Serial 0/0/0

D.

ip route 0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0

E.

ipv6 route ::/0 2000::2

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Questions 126

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent?

Options:

A.

The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.

B.

The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent

C.

The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within a configured interval

D.

The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it is reliable.

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Questions 127

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

Options:

A.

enable AAA override

B.

enable RX-SOP

C.

enable DTIM

D.

enable Band Select

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Questions 128

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking?

Options:

A.

moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximum redundancy

B.

provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks

C.

allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port

D.

combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

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Questions 129

Refer to the exhibit.

The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlanta and Washington routers can reach one another?

(Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.

B.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.

C.

Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.

D.

Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.

E.

Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

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Questions 130

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

Options:

A.

hypervisor

B.

router

C.

straight cable

D.

switch

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Questions 131

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?

Options:

A.

The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable

B.

The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop

C.

The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC

D.

The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC

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Questions 132

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterface label as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon

B.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

C.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

D.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

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Questions 133

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure switchport nonegotiate

B.

configure switchport mode dynamic desirable

C.

configure switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

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Questions 134

Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?

Options:

A.

configure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network

B.

enable SLAAC on an interface

C.

disable the EUI-64 bit process

D.

explicitly assign a link-local address

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Questions 135

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.

B.

It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.

C.

It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.

D.

It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only one company.

E.

It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privately-owned virtual resources

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Questions 136

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Cisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management

B.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management

C.

Cisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options

D.

Traditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management

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Questions 137

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state

B.

Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately

C.

Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.

D.

Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology change notifications

E.

Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

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Questions 138

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration?

Options:

A.

access ports

B.

Layer 3 main Interfaces

C.

Layer 3 suninterfaces

D.

trunk ports

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Questions 139

An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphone. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?

Options:

A.

The application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured Interval.

B.

The application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor.

C.

The application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted.

D.

The application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor.

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Questions 140

While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface.

Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The packets fail to match any permit statement

B.

A matching permit statement is too high in the access test

C.

A matching permit statement is too broadly defined

D.

The ACL is empty

E.

A matching deny statement is too high in the access list

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Questions 141

Refer to the exhibit.

Which command must be executed for Gi1.1 on SW1 to become a trunk port if Gi1/1 on SW2 is configured in desirable or trunk mode?

Options:

A.

switchport mode trunk

B.

switchport mode dot1-tunnel

C.

switchport mode dynamic auto

D.

switchport mode dynamic desirable

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Questions 142

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?

Options:

A.

The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.

B.

Router2 is using the default hello timer.

C.

The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.

D.

The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

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Questions 143

Refer to the exhibit.

Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24?

Options:

A.

eBGP

B.

static

C.

OSPF

D.

EIGRP

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Questions 144

Which two must be met before SSH can operate normally on a Cisco IOS switch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

The switch must be running a k9 (crypto) IOS image

B.

The Ip domain-name command must be configured on the switch

C.

IP routing must be enabled on the switch

D.

A console password must be configured on the switch

E.

Telnet must be disabled on the switch

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Questions 145

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?

Options:

A.

backup

B.

standby

C.

listening

D.

forwarding

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Questions 146

Which networking function occurs on the data plane?

Options:

A.

forwarding remote client/server traffic

B.

facilitates spanning-tree elections

C.

processing inbound SSH management traffic

D.

sending and receiving OSPF Hello packets

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Questions 147

Refer to the exhibit.

The entire contents of the MAC address table are shown. Sales-4 sends a data frame to Sales-1.

What does the switch do as it receives the frame from Sales-4?

Options:

A.

Perform a lookup in the MAC address table and discard the frame due to a missing entry.

B.

Insert the source MAC address and port into the forwarding table and forward the frame to Sales-1.

C.

Map the Layer 2 MAC address to the Layer 3 IP address and forward the frame.

D.

Flood the frame out of all ports except on the port where Sales-1 is connected.

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Questions 148

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?

Options:

A.

Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration

B.

Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.

C.

Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.

D.

Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

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Questions 149

Refer to the exhibit.

Which route does R1 select for traffic that is destined to 192 168.16.2?

Options:

A.

192.168.16.0/21

B.

192.168.16.0/24

C.

192.168 26.0/26

D.

192.168.16.0/27

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Questions 150

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?

Options:

A.

IP SLA

B.

syslog

C.

NetFlow

D.

SNMPv3

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Questions 151

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic MAC address learning

B.

implement static MAC addressing.

C.

enable sticky MAC addressing

D.

implement auto MAC address learning

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Questions 152

What is the maximum length of characters used in an SSID?

Options:

A.

16

B.

32

C.

48

D.

64

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Questions 153

Which fact must the engineer consider when implementing syslog on a new network?

Options:

A.

Syslog defines the software or hardware component that triggered the message.

B.

There are 16 different logging levels (0-15).

C.

By default, all message levels are sent to the syslog server.

D.

The logging level defines the severity of a particular message.

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Questions 154

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/6906] via GO/6

O 10.18.75.113/27 [110/23018] via GO/3

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/16] via GO/16

R 10.18.75.113/27 [120/14] via GO/23

Options:

A.

G0/23

B.

G0/3

C.

G0/16

D.

G0/6

Buy Now
Questions 155

Which two QoS tools provide congestion management? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

PBR

B.

FRTS

C.

PQ

D.

CBWFQ

E.

CAR

Buy Now
Questions 156

Refer to the exhibit. During initial configuration testing, the Windows workstation PC1 cannot connect with the 172.16.2.0/24 network.

Which set of actions corrects the configuration?

Options:

A.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the subnet mask to 255.255.255.248.

B.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.6 and change the DNS servers to 172.16.1.12 and 172.16.1.13.

C.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the default gateway to 172.16.1.7.

D.

Change the IP address to 172.16.1.9 and change the DNS server to 172.16.1.12 only.

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Questions 157

How does automation leverage data models to reduce the operational complexity of a managed network?

Options:

A.

Reduces the response time for specific requests to devices with many interfaces

B.

Categorizes traffic and provides insights

C.

Allows the controller to be vendor-agnostic

D.

Streamlines monitoring using SNMP and other polling tools

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Questions 158

An organization developed new security policies and decided to print the policies and distribute them to all personnel so that employees review and apply the policies. Which element of a security program is the organization implementing?

Options:

A.

Asset identification

B.

User training

C.

Physical access control

D.

Vulnerability control

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Questions 159

What is represented by the word "switch" within this JSON schema?

Options:

A.

array

B.

value

C.

key

D.

object

Buy Now
Questions 160

What is a similarity between global and unique local IPv6 addresses?

Options:

A.

They are allocated by the same organization.

B.

They are routable on the global internet.

C.

They use the same process for subnetting.

D.

They are part of the multicast IPv6 group type.

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Questions 161

Which statement describes virtualization on containers?

Options:

A.

It is a type of operating system virtualization that allows the host operating system to control the different CPU memory processes.

B.

It emulates a physical computer and enables multiple machines to run with many operating systems on a physical machine.

C.

It separates virtual machines from each other and allocates memory, processors, and storage to compute.

D.

It contains a guest operating system and virtual partition of hardware for OS and requires application libraries.

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Questions 162

Which role do predictive Al models play in network load balancing?

Options:

A.

They anticipate future traffic spikes.

B.

They assign IP addresses to devices.

C.

They select correct cabling types for deployment.

D.

They solely monitor historical traffic volumes.

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Questions 163

Refer to the exhibit. The static routes were implemented on the border router. What is the next hop IP address for a ping sent to 172.16.153.154 from the border router?

Options:

A.

10.56.65.56

B.

10.56.65.65

C.

10.65.56.56

D.

10.65.65.65

Buy Now
Questions 164

Which interface on the WLC is used exclusively as a DHCP relay?

Options:

A.

distribution

B.

service

C.

AP-manager

D.

virtual

Buy Now
Questions 165

What is the function of generative AI in network operations?

Options:

A.

It disables unused services.

B.

It deploys network firmware updates.

C.

It creates synthetic network configurations.

D.

It computes optimal data storage solutions.

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Questions 166

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is configuring a new WLAN for a wireless network that has these requirements:

    Dual-band clients that connect to the WLAN must be directed to the 5-GHz spectrum.

    Wireless clients on this WLAN must be able to apply VLAN settings from RADIUS attributes.

Which two actions meet these requirements? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Aironet IE option.

B.

Enable the Coverage Hole Detection option.

C.

Set the MFP Client Protection option to Required

D.

Enable the client band select option.

E.

Enable the allow AAA Override option

Buy Now
Questions 167

Refer to the exhibit.

How does router R1 forward packets destined to 10.0.4.10?

Options:

A.

via 10.0.4.2

B.

via 10.0.0.2

C.

via FastEthernet0/1

D.

via FastEthernet1/1

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Questions 168

Which IP address is used when an administrator must open a web-based management session with a lightweight AP?

Options:

A.

WLCIP

B.

gateway IP

C.

autonomous AP IP

D.

ACS IP

Buy Now
Questions 169

Physical connectivity is implemented between the two Layer 2 switches,

and the network connectivity between them must be configured.

I . Configure an LACP EtherChanneI and number it as 44; configure it

between switches SWI and SW2 using interfaces EthernetO/O and

Ethernet0/1 on both sides. The LACP mode must match on both ends.

2. Configure the EtherChanneI as a trunk link.

3. Configure the trunk link with 802. Iq tags.

4. Configure VLAN 'MONITORING' as the untagged VLAN of the

EtherChannel.

==================

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 170

Which interface is used to send traffic to the destination network?

O 10.76.170 161/26 |110/102] via FO/17

O 10.76.170 161/26[110/27e31] via FO/20

R 10.76.170.161/261120/15] via FO/8

R 10.76.170.161/26 [120/10] via FO/12

Options:

A.

F0/8

B.

FO/20

C.

FO/12

D.

FO/17

Buy Now
Questions 171

Which type of protocol is VRRP?

Options:

A.

uses dynamic IP address assignment

B.

allows two or more routers to act as a default gateway

C.

uses a destination IP address 224.0.0.102 for router-to-router communication

D.

uses Cisco-proprietary First Hop Redundancy Protocol

Buy Now
Questions 172

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 10.30.0.1?

Options:

A.

10.0.0.2

B.

110

C.

30

D.

2

Buy Now
Questions 173

Aswitch receives a frame with the destination MAC address 3C:5D: 7E:9F: 1A:2B.

Switch# show ethernet-frame-and-mac-address-table

How does the switch handle the frame?

Options:

A.

It ages out the frame until the MAC address becomes known.

B.

It drops the frame to avoid unnecessary network congestion.

C.

It switches the frame to a predetermined port based on settings.

D.

It floods the frame to all ports except the incoming port.

Buy Now
Questions 174

What is a characteristic of a Layer 2 switch?

Options:

A.

Uses routers to create collision domains

B.

Responsible for sending data in a particular sequence

C.

Avoids MAC address storage for faster transmission

D.

Uses the data link layer for communications

Buy Now
Questions 175

Which technology allows for logical Layer 3 separation on physical network equipment?

Options:

A.

Virtual Route Forwarding

B.

Virtual Switch System

C.

IPsec Transport Mode

D.

Time Division Multiplexer

Buy Now
Questions 176

Configure IPv4 and IPv6 connectivity between two routers. For IPv4, use a /28 network from the 192.168.1.0/24 private range. For IPv6, use the first /64 subnet from the 2001:0db8:aaaa::/48 subnet.

1. Using Ethernet0/1 on routers R1 and R2, configure the next usable/28 from the 192.168.1.0/24 range. The network 192.168.1.0/28 is unavailable.

2. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R1 must be configured with the first usable host address.

3. For the IPv4 /28 subnet, router R2 must be configured with the last usable host address.

4. For the IPv6 /64 subnet, configure the routers with the IP addressing provided from the topology.

5. A ping must work between the routers on the IPv4 and IPv6 address ranges.

Options:

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Questions 177

Refer to the exhibit. What is preventing host A from reaching the internet?

Options:

A.

The domain name server is unreachable.

B.

LAN and WAN network segments are different.

C.

IP address assignment is incorrect.

D.

The default gateway should be the first usable IP address.

Buy Now
Questions 178

Connectivity between three routers has been established, and IP services must be configured jn the order presented to complete the implementation Tasks assigned include configuration of NAT, NTP, DHCP, and SSH services.

1. All traffic sent from R3 to the R1 Loopback address must be configured for NAT on R2. All source addresses must be translated from R3 to the IP address of Ethernet0/0 on R2, while using only a standard access list named NAT To verify, a ping must be successful to the R1 Loopback address sourced from R3. Do not use NVI NAT configuration.

2. Configure R1 as an NTP server and R2 as a client, not as a peer, using the IP address of the R1 Ethernet0/2 interface. Set the clock on the NTP server for midnight on January 1, 2019.

3. Configure R1 as a DHCP server for the network 10.1.3.0/24 in a pool named TEST. Using a single command, exclude addresses 1-10 from the range. Interface Ethernet0/2 on R3 must be issued the IP address of 10.1.3.11 via DHCP.

4. Configure SSH connectivity from R1 to R3, while excluding access via other remote connection protocols. Access for user root and password Cisco must be set on router R3 using RSA and 1024 bits. Verify connectivity using an SSH session from router R1 using a destination address of 10.1.3.11. Do NOT modify console access or line numbers to accomplish this task.

Options:

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Questions 179

Three switches must be configured for Layer 2 connectivity. The company requires only the designated VLANs to be configured on their respective switches and permitted accross any links between switches for security purposes. Do not modify or delete VTP configurations.

The network needs two user-defined VLANs configured:

VLAN 110: MARKETING

VLAN 210: FINANCE

1. Configure the VLANs on the designated switches and assign them as access ports to the interfaces connected to the PCs.

2. Configure the e0/2 interfaces on Sw1 and Sw2 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

3. Configure the e0/3 interfaces on Sw2 and Sw3 as 802.1q trunks with only the required VLANs permitted.

Options:

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Questions 180

Refer to the exhibit. VLAN 23 is being implemented between SW1 and SW2. The command show interface ethernet0/0 switchport has been issued on SW1. Ethernet0/0 on SW1 is the uplink to SW2. Which command when entered on the uplink interface allows PC 1 and PC 2 to communicate without impact to the communication between PC 11 and PC 12?

Options:

A.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 2-1001

B.

switchport trunk allowed vlan add 23

C.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 23

D.

switchport trunk allowed vlan 22-23

Buy Now
Questions 181

How does automation affect network management processes?

Options:

A.

It interoperates with ISE to define and manage patch and update schedules.

B.

It performs configuration updates based on user profiles.

C.

It improves the efficiency of system lifecycle management.

D.

It provides a reactive support model.

Buy Now
Questions 182

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands, when configured on router R1. fulfill these requirements? (Choose two.) ' Packets toward the entire network 2001:db8:23: :/64 must be forwarded through router R2. ' Packets toward host 2001: db8:23::14 preferably must be forwarded through R3.

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/128 fd00:12::2

B.

Ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/128 fd00:13::3

C.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23::14/64 fd00:12::2 200

D.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: l4/64 fd00:12::2

E.

ipv6 route 2001:db8:23: :/64 fd00:12::2

Buy Now
Questions 183

Which two features are provided by Ansible in network automation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

supplying network credentials

B.

role-based access control

C.

agentless deployment

D.

manual playbook runs

E.

launching job templates using version control

Buy Now
Questions 184

Which AP mode wirelessly connects two separate network segments each set up within a different campus building?

Options:

A.

mesh

B.

local

C.

bridge

D.

point-to-point

Buy Now
Questions 185

Refer to the exhibit. A guest WLAN must be created that prompts the client for a username and password on the local web page of the WLC. Which two actions must be performed on the Layer 2 tab before enabling the Authentication option on the Layer 3 tab? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Uncheck the WPA Policy option check box, and check the WPA2 Policy option check box.

B.

Uncheck the MAC Filtering option check box.

C.

Change the WPA Encryption option from TKIP to CCMP(128AES).

D.

Set the Security Type option to Personal.

E.

Set the Layer 2 Security option to None.

Buy Now
Questions 186

Why would a network administrator choose to implement RFC 1918 address space?

Options:

A.

to route traffic on the internet

B.

to provide flexibility in the IP network design

C.

to provide overlapping address space with another network

D.

to limit the number of hosts on the network

Buy Now
Questions 187

Which technology allows multiple operating systems lo run a single physical server?

Options:

A.

cloud computing

B.

virtualization

C.

application hosting

D.

containers

Buy Now
Questions 188

How is Al used to identify issues within network traffic?

Options:

A.

II exclusively predicts device malfunctions.

B.

It enhances data packet delivery speeds.

C.

It simplifies traffic route mapping.

D.

It analyzes patterns for anomaly detection.

Buy Now
Questions 189

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration is needed to configure a WLAN with WPA2 only and with a password that is 63 characters long?

Options:

A.

Disable WPA Policy and WPA Encryption and then enable PSK using ASCII.

B.

Enable PSK and FT PSK and then disable WPA Policy.

C.

Disable WPA Encryption and then enable FT PSK.

D.

Enable PSK using Hex format and then disable WPA Policy.

Buy Now
Questions 190

Which interface condition is occurring in this output?

Options:

A.

duplex mismatch

B.

queueing

C.

bad NIC

D.

broadcast storm

Buy Now
Questions 191

Which feature, when used on a WLC, allows it to bundle its distribution system ports into one 802.3ad group?

Options:

A.

QinQ

B.

ISL

C.

PAgP

D.

LAG

Buy Now
Questions 192

Which action prevents debug messages from being sent via syslog while allowing other messages when an abnormally high number of syslog messages are generated by a device with the debug process turned on?

Options:

A.

Use an access list to filter out the syslog messages.

B.

Turn off the logging monitor in global configuration mode.

C.

Disable logging to the console.

D.

Set the logging trap severity level to informational.

Buy Now
Questions 193

IP connectivity between the three routers is configured. OSPF adjacencies must be established.

1. Configure R1 and R2 Router IDs using the interface IP addresses from the link that is shared between them.

2. Configure the R2 links with a max value facing R1 and R3. R2 must become the DR. R1 and R3 links facing R2 must remain with the default OSPF configuration for DR election. Verify the configuration after clearing the OSPF process.

3. Using a host wildcard mask, configure all three routers to advertise their respective Loopback1 networks.

4. Configure the link between R1 and R3 to disable their ability to add other OSPF routers.

Options:

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Questions 194

Where are the real-time control functions processed in a split MAC architecture?

Options:

A.

Centralized cloud management platform

B.

Central WLC

C.

Individual AP

D.

Client device

Buy Now
Questions 195

All physical cabling is in place. A company plans to deploy 32 new sites.

The sites will utilize both IPv4 and IPv6 networks.

1 . Subnet 172.25.0.0/16 to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

Using the second subnet

• Assign the first usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw1O1

• Assign the last usable IP address to e0/0 on Sw102

2. Subnet to meet the subnet requirements and maximize

the number of hosts

c Using the second subnet

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on e0/0 on Sw101

• Assign an IPv6 GUA using a unique 64-Bit interface identifier

on eO/O on swi02

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 196

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 172.16.3.254. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0

B.

255.255.254.0

C.

255.255.255.0

D.

255.255.255.255

Buy Now
Questions 197

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the cable type on the right.

Options:

Buy Now
Questions 198

What is represented by the word "LB13" within this JSON schema?

Options:

A.

value

B.

object

C.

array

D.

key

Buy Now
Questions 199

Refer to the exhibit.

The LACP EtherChannel is configured, and the last change is to modify the interfaces on SwitchA to respond to packets received, but not to initiate negotiation. The interface range gigabitethernet0/0-15 command is entered. What must be configured next?

Options:

A.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode auto

C.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode active

D.

SwitchA(config-if-range) #channel-group 1 mode passive

Buy Now
Questions 200

Refer to the exhibit. Configurations for the switch and PCs are complete.

Which configuration must be applied so that VLANs 2 and 3 communicate back and forth?

Options:

A.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

B.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 3 native ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

C.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.10 encapsulation dot1Q 3

D.

interface GigabitEthernet0/0.3 encapsulation dot1Q 10 ip address 10.10.2.10 255.255.252.0

Buy Now
Questions 201

Refer to the exhibit. A secondary route is required on router R1 to pass traffic to the LAN network on R2 if the primary link fails. Which command must be entered to configure the router?

Options:

A.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.240 10.0.0.7 92

B.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 10.0.0.6 91

C.

ip route 10.0.2.0 256.255.255.240 10.0.0.6 91

D.

ip route 10.0.2.0 255.255.255.248 null0 93

Buy Now
Questions 202

Refer to the exhibit. The routers R1-LAB and R2-LAB are configured with link-local addresses. What command must be applied to interface Gi0/0 on R1-LAB for an automated address self-assignment on the IPv6 network?

Options:

A.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:1:0FFA:0::/64

B.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::1/64

C.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 eui-64

D.

ipv6 address 2001:db8:0:0FFA::/64 anycast

Buy Now
Questions 203

Drag and drop the IPv6 address from the left onto the type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 204

Why would a network administrator implement the HSRP protocol?

Options:

A.

To provide network redundancy in the case of a router failure

B.

To use an open standard protocol that is configured on Cisco and third-party routers

C.

To allow hosts in a network to use the same default gateway virtual IP when load-balancing traffic

D.

To allow clients to be configured with multiple default gateway IPs

Buy Now
Questions 205

All physical cabling is in place. Router R4 and PCI are fully configured and

inaccessible. R4's WAN interfaces use .4 in the last octet for each subnet.

Configurations should ensure that connectivity is established end-to-end.

1 . Configure static routing to ensure RI prefers the path through R2 to

reach only PCI on R4's LAN

2. Configure static routing that ensures traffic sourced from RI will take

an alternate path through R3 to PCI in the event of an outage along

the primary path

3. Configure default routes on RI and R3 to the Internet using the least number of hops

Guidelines

This is a lab item in which tasks will be performed on virtual devices.

• Refer to the Tasks tab to view the tasks for this lab item.

• Refer to the Topology tab to access the device console(s) and perform the tasks.

• Console access is available for all required devices by clicking the device icon or using

the tab(s) above the console window.

• All necessary preconfigurations have been applied.

• Do not change the enable password or hostname for any device.

• Save your configurations to NVRAM before moving to the next item.

• Click Next at the bottom of the screen to submit this lab and move to the next question.

• When Next is clicked, the lab closes and cannot be reopened.

Options:

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Questions 206

How does a network administrator securely manage an AP in lightweight mode?

Options:

A.

using the CLI via an out-of-band connection

B.

using the WLC GUI via HTTPS

C.

using the AP GUI via an in-band SSH connection

D.

using the CLI via a virtual interface with SSH

Buy Now
Questions 207

IP connectivity and OSPF are preconfigured on all devices where necessary. Do not make any changes to the IP addressing or OSPF. The company policy uses connected interfaces and next hops when configuring static routes except for load balancing or redundancy without floating static. Connectivity must be established between subnet 172.20.20.128/25 on the Internet and the LAN at 192.168.0.0/24 connected to SW1:

1. Configure reachability to the switch SW1 LAN subnet in router R2.

2. Configure default reachability to the Internet subnet in router R1.

3. Configure a single static route in router R2 to reach to the Internet subnet considering both redundant links between routers R1 and R2. A default route is NOT allowed in router R2.

4. Configure a static route in router R1 toward the switch SW1 LAN subnet where the primary link must be through Ethernet0/1. and the backup link must be through Ethernet0/2 using a floating route. Use the minimal administrative distance value when required.

Options:

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Questions 208

Connectivity between four routers has been established. IP connectivity must be configured in the order presented to complete the implementation. No dynamic routing protocols are included.

1. Configure static routing using host routes to establish connectivity from router R3 to the router R1 Loopback address using the source IP of 209.165.200.230.

2. Configure an IPv4 default route on router R2 destined for router R4.

3. Configure an IPv6 default router on router R2 destined for router R4.

Options:

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Questions 209

What is an advantage of using SDN versus traditional networking when it comes to security?

Options:

A.

SDN security is managed near the perimeter of the network with firewalls, VPNs, and IPS, and traditional networking security policies are created based on telemetry data.

B.

SDN exposes an API to configure locally per device for security policies, and traditional networking uses northbound API for network admin interface for configuring security policies.

C.

SDN creates a unified control point making security policies consistent across all devices, and traditional networking must be configured device by device, leaving room for error.

D.

SDN devices communicate with each other to establish a security policy, and in traditional networking, devices communicate upstream to a central location to establish a security policy.

Buy Now
Questions 210

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring on this switch?

Options:

A.

A high number of frames smaller than 64 bytes are received.

B.

Frames are dropped after 16 failed transmission attempts.

C.

The internal transmit buffer is overloaded.

D.

An excessive number of frames greater than 1518 bytes are received.

Buy Now
Questions 211

Refer to the exhibit. The route for 10.220.100.96/27 has been very unstable. The same route has four backups to routers A, B, C, and D via the respective methods. The routing protocol defaults for router Y have not been changed. When the current route for 10.220.100.96/27 becomes unavailable, which router will router Y use to route traffic to 10.220.100.96/27?

Options:

A.

router D

B.

router B

C.

router C

D.

router A

Buy Now
Questions 212

Which two QoS tools provides congestion management? ( Choose two )

Options:

A.

CAR

B.

CBWFQ

C.

PQ

D.

PBR

E.

FRTS

Buy Now
Questions 213

Refer to the exhibit. An LACP EtherChannel between two directly connected switches is in the configuration process.

Which command must be configured on switch SW2’s Gi0/1-2 interfaces to establish the channel to SW1?

Options:

A.

channel-group 1 mode desirable

B.

channel-group 1 mode on

C.

channel-group 1 mode auto

D.

channel-group 1 mode active

Buy Now
Questions 214

Refer to the exhibit. What is the administrative distance for the advertised prefix that includes the host IP address 192.168.20.1?

Options:

A.

0

B.

192.168.10.2

C.

24

D.

1

Buy Now
Questions 215

Which WLC port connects to a switch to pass normal access-point traffic?

Options:

A.

redundancy

B.

console

C.

distribution system

D.

service

Buy Now
Questions 216

How does MAC learning function?

Options:

A.

inserts MAC addresses dynamically into the CAM table

B.

restricts ports to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses

C.

protects against denial of service attacks

D.

rewrites the source and destination MAC address

Buy Now
Questions 217

What is a function of a northbound API in an SDN environment?

Options:

A.

It supports distributed processing for configuration.

B.

It relies on global provisioning and configuration.

C.

It upgrades software and restores files.

D.

It provides orchestration and network automation services.

Buy Now
Questions 218

Which mode allows access points to be managed by Cisco Wireless LAN Controllers?

Options:

A.

autonomous

B.

lightweight

C.

bridge

D.

mobility express

Buy Now
Questions 219

What is the total number of users permitted to simultaneously browse the controller management pages when using the AireOS GUI?

Options:

A.

2

B.

5

C.

8

D.

9

Buy Now
Questions 220

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?

Options:

A.

Switch trunk allowed vlan 12

B.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan none

C.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13

D.

Switchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11

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Questions 221

Drag and drop the SNMP manager and agent identifier commands from the left onto the functions on the right

Options:

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Questions 222

A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

infrastructure-as-a-service

B.

platform-as-a-service

C.

business process as service to support different types of service

D.

software-as-a-service

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Questions 223

Which two components are needed to create an Ansible script that configures a VLAN on a switch? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

cookbook

B.

task

C.

playbook

D.

model

E.

recipe

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Questions 224

What is a network appliance that checks the state of a packet to determine whether the packet is legitimate?

Options:

A.

Layer 2 switch

B.

load balancer

C.

firewall

D.

LAN controller

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Questions 225

Which key function is provided by the data plane?

Options:

A.

Making routing decisions

B.

Originating packets

C.

Forwarding traffic to the next hop

D.

Exchanging routing table data

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Questions 226

What are two benefits of private IPv4 addressing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

provides external internet network connectivity

B.

provides unlimited address ranges

C.

propagates routing information to WAN links

D.

reuses addresses at multiple sites

E.

conserves globally unique address space

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Questions 227

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of route does R1 use to reach host 10.10.13.10/32?

Options:

A.

floating static route

B.

host route

C.

default route

D.

network route

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Questions 228

in Which way does a spine and-leaf architecture allow for scalability in a network when additional access ports are required?

Options:

A.

A spine switch and a leaf switch can be added with redundant connections between them

B.

A spine switch can be added with at least 40 GB uplinks

C.

A leaf switch can be added with a single connection to a core spine switch.

D.

A leaf switch can be added with connections to every spine switch

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Questions 229

What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?

Options:

A.

local port ID

B.

lowest path cost to the root bridge

C.

lowest neighbor's bridge ID

D.

lowest neighbor's port ID

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Questions 230

What occurs when overlapping Wi-Fi channels are implemented?

Options:

A.

The wireless network becomes vulnerable to unauthorized access.

B.

Wireless devices are unable to distinguish between different SSIDs

C.

Users experience poor wireless network performance.

D.

Network communications are open to eavesdropping.

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Questions 231

An engineer is asked to protect unused ports that are configured in the default VLAN on a switch.

Which two steps will fulfill the request? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Configure the ports in an EtherChannel.

B.

Administratively shut down the ports

C.

Configure the port type as access and place in VLAN 99

D.

Configure the ports as trunk ports

E.

Enable the Cisco Discovery Protocol

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Questions 232

Which technology is appropriate for communication between an SDN controller and applications running over the network?

Options:

A.

OpenFlow

B.

REST API

C.

NETCONF

D.

Southbound API

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Questions 233

How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?

Options:

A.

TCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.

B.

TCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.

C.

TCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing

D.

TCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake

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Questions 234

Drag and drop the IPv6 address type characteristics from the left to the right.

Options:

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Questions 235

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address?

Options:

A.

2000::/3

B.

FC00::/7

C.

FE80::/10

D.

FF00::/8

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Questions 236

Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

listening

B.

blocking

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

speaking

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Questions 237

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

Options:

A.

Physical access control

B.

Social engineering attack

C.

brute force attack

D.

user awareness

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Questions 238

Which command on a port enters the forwarding state immediately when a PC is connected to it?

Options:

A.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast default

B.

switch(config)#spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default

C.

switch(config-if)#spanning-tree portfast trunk

D.

switch(config-if)#no spanning-tree portfast

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Questions 239

Refer to the exhibit.

How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?

Options:

A.

It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

B.

It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.

C.

it load-balances traffic between all three routes

D.

It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance

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Questions 240

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is configuring the router to provide static NAT for the webserver Drag and drop the configuration commands from the left onto the letters that correspond to its position in the configuration on the right.

Options:

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Questions 241

Drag and drop the network protocols from the left onto the correct transport services on the right.

Options:

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Questions 242

When a site-to-site VPN is configured, which IPsec mode provides encapsulation and encryption of the entire original P packet?

Options:

A.

IPsec tunnel mode with AH

B.

IPsec transport mode with AH

C.

IPsec tunnel mode with ESP

D.

IPsec transport mode with ESP

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Questions 243

If a notice-level messaging is sent to a syslog server, which event has occurred?

Options:

A.

A network device has restarted

B.

An ARP inspection has failed

C.

A routing instance has flapped

D.

A debug operation is running

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Questions 244

Refer to the exhibit.

An access list is required to permit traffic from any host on interface G0/0 and deny traffic from interface G/0/1. Which access list must be applied?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 245

Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

asychronous routing

B.

single-homed branches

C.

dual-homed branches

D.

static routing

E.

dynamic routing

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Questions 246

Which two capacities of Cisco DNA Center make it more extensible as compared to traditional campus device management? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

adapters that support all families of Cisco IOS software

B.

SDKs that support interaction with third-party network equipment

C.

customized versions for small, medium, and large enterprises

D.

REST APIs that allow for external applications to interact natively with Cisco DNA Center

E.

modular design that is upgradable as needed

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Questions 247

When a floating static route is configured, which action ensures that the backup route is used when the primary route fails?

Options:

A.

The floating static route must have a higher administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

B.

The administrative distance must be higher on the primary route so that the backup route becomes secondary.

C.

The floating static route must have a lower administrative distance than the primary route so it is used as a backup

D.

The default-information originate command must be configured for the route to be installed into the routing table

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Questions 248

Refer to the exhibit.

R5 is the current DR on the network, and R4 is the BDR. Their interfaces are flapping, so a network engineer wants the OSPF network to elect a different DR and BDR. Which set of configurations must the engineer implement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option

B.

Option

C.

Option

D.

Option

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Questions 249

How are VLAN hopping attacks mitigated?

Options:

A.

enable dynamic ARP inspection

B.

manually implement trunk ports and disable DTP

C.

activate all ports and place in the default VLAN

D.

configure extended VLANs

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Questions 250

What must be considered when using 802:11 ta?

Options:

A.

It is compatible with 802 lib- and 802 11-compliant wireless devices

B.

It is used in place of 802 11b/g when many nonoverlapping channels are required

C.

It is susceptible to interference from 2 4 GHz devices such as microwave ovens.

D.

It is chosen over 802 11b/g when a lower-cost solution is necessary

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Questions 251

Which action does the router take as it forwards a packet through the network?

Options:

A.

The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sending router MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination

B.

The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies the source router MAC address and transmits it transparently to the destination

C.

The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sending router IP address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination

D.

The router replaces the source and destination labels with the sending router interface label as a source and the next hop router label as a destination

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Questions 252

What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?

Options:

A.

group access points together to increase throughput on a given channel

B.

configure the first three access points are configured to use Channels 1, 6, and 11

C.

include a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing

D.

assign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel

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Questions 253

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?

Options:

A.

allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts

B.

provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network

C.

ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing

D.

enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts

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Questions 254

An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?

Options:

A.

configure IEEE 802.1p

B.

configure IEEE 802.1q

C.

configure ISL

D.

configure DSCP

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Questions 255

What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?

Options:

A.

on the public-facing interface of a firewall

B.

to allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization

C.

on internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources

D.

on hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts

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Questions 256

Drag and drop the DNS lookup components from the left onto the functions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 257

Drag and drop the WLAN components from the left onto the correct descriptions on the right.

Options:

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Questions 258

Refer to the exhibit.

What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )

Options:

A.

The designated port is FastEthernet 2/1

B.

This is a root bridge

C.

The spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+

D.

The spanning-tree mode is PVST+

E.

The root port is FastEthernet 2/1

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Questions 259

By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?

Options:

A.

it uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric

B.

it uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router

C.

it uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric

D.

it counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric

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Questions 260

What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Layer 2 forwarding

B.

coordinating VTNs

C.

tracking hosts

D.

managing the topology

E.

protecting against DDoS attacks

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Questions 261

What is the function of a controller in controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

It serves as the centralized management point of an SDN architecture.

B.

It centralizes the data plane for the network.

C.

It is the card on a core router that maintains all routing decisions for a campus.

D.

It is a pair of core routers that maintain all routing decisions for a campus

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Questions 262

What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?

Options:

A.

controller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.

B.

controller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs

C.

Controller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors

D.

Controller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function

E.

controller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.

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Questions 263

Which network action occurs within the data plane?

Options:

A.

compare the destination IP address to the IP routing table.

B.

run routing protocols (OSPF, EIGRP, RIP, BGP)

C.

make a configuration change from an incoming NETCONF RPC

D.

reply to an incoming ICMP echo request

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Questions 264

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices?

Options:

A.

overlay

B.

northbound

C.

underlay

D.

southbound

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Questions 265

Refer to the exhibit.

What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?

Options:

A.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

B.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

C.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

D.

R1(config)#interface ethernet0/0R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0

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Questions 266

Refer to the exhibit.

If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?

Options:

A.

It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.

B.

It is unreachable and discards the traffic.

C.

It sends packets out of interface FaO/2.

D.

It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.

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Questions 267

Refer to the exhibit.

Traffic sourced from the loopback0 Interface is trying to connect via ssh to the host at 10.0.1.15. What Is the next hop to the destination address?

Options:

A.

192.168.0.7

B.

192.168.0.4

C.

192.168.0.40

D.

192.168.3.5

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Questions 268

Which two spanning-tree states are bypassed on an interface running PortFast? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

disabled

B.

listening

C.

forwarding

D.

learning

E.

blocking

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Questions 269

Refer to the exhibit.

Packets received by the router from BGP enter via a serial interface at 209.165.201.10. Each route is present within the routing table. Which interface is used to forward traffic with a destination IP of 10.10.10.24?

Options:

A.

F0/10

B.

F0/11

C.

F0/12

D.

F0/13

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Questions 270

What is a requirement for nonoverlapping Wi-Fi channels?

Options:

A.

different security settings

B.

discontinuous frequency ranges

C.

different transmission speeds

D.

unique SSIDs

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Questions 271

Refer to the exhibit.

Which network prefix was learned via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

172.16.0.0/16

B.

192.168.2.0/24

C.

207.165.200.0/24

D.

192.168.1.0/24

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Questions 272

An engineer is tasked to configure a switch with port security to ensure devices that forward unicasts multicasts and broadcasts are unable to flood the port The port must be configured to permit only two random MAC addresses at a time Drag and drop the required configuration commands from the left onto the sequence on the right Not all commands are used.

Options:

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Questions 273

Refer to the exhibit.

Users on existing VLAN 100 can reach sites on the Internet. Which action must the administrator take to establish connectivity to the Internet for users in VLAN 200?

Options:

A.

Define a NAT pool on the router.

B.

Configure static NAT translations for VLAN 200.

C.

Configure the ip nat outside command on another interface for VLAN 200.

D.

Update the NAT INSIDF RANGFS ACL

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Questions 274

Which type of network attack overwhelms the target server by sending multiple packets to a port until the half-open TCP resources of the target are exhausted?

Options:

A.

SYIM flood

B.

reflection

C.

teardrop

D.

amplification

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Questions 275

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 276

Refer to the exhibit.

How should the configuration be updated to allow PC1 and PC2 access to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Modify the configured number of the second access list.

B.

Add either the ip nat {inside|outside} command under both interfaces.

C.

Remove the overload keyword from the ip nat inside source command.

D.

Change the ip nat inside source command to use interface GigabitEthernet0/0.

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Questions 277

Which protocol is used for secure remote CLI access?

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

HTTP

C.

Telnet

D.

SSH

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Questions 278

Which AP feature provides a captive portal for users to authenticate register and accept terms before accessing the internet?

Options:

A.

One-Click

B.

Hotspot

C.

Enhanced Bluetooth

D.

Whole Home

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Questions 279

When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete?

Options:

A.

Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC

B.

Re-associate the WLC with the access point.

C.

Re-enable the WLC interfaces

D.

Reboot the WLC

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Questions 280

Drag and drop the TCP or UDP details from the left onto their corresponding protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 281

Refer to the exhibit.

The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the lookback3 interface of the Washington router.

Options:

A.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2

B.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1

C.

ipv6 route 2000:3 123 s0/0/0

D.

ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3

E.

ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1

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Questions 282

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is using the Cisco WLC GUI to configure a WLAN for WPA2 encryption with AES and preshared key Cisc0123456. After the engineer selects the WPA + WPA2 option from the Layer 2 Security drop-down list, which two tasks must they perform to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Select the WPA2 Policy, AES, and TKIP check boxes.

B.

Select ASCII from the PSK Format drop-down list, enter the key, and leave the Auth Key Mgmt setting blank.

C.

Select PSK from the Auth Key Mgmt drop-down list, set the PSK Format to ASCII, and enter the key.

D.

Select the WPA2 Policy and AES check boxes.

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Questions 283

What are two examples of multifactor authentication? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

single sign-on

B.

unique user knowledge

C.

passwords that expire

D.

soft tokens

E.

shared password responsibility

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Questions 284

An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 285

Refer to the exhibit. After applying this configuration to router R1, a network engineer is verifying the implementation. If all links are operating normally, and the engineer sends a series of packets from PC1 to PC3. how are the packets routed?

Options:

A.

They are routed to 172.16.20.2.

B.

They are routed to 192.168.100.2.

C.

They are distributed sent round robin to interfaces SO/0/0 and SO/0/1.

D.

They are routed to 10.0.0.2.

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Questions 286

Refer to the exhibit.

A packet sourced from 10.10.10.1 is destined for 10.10.8.14. What is the subnet mask of the destination route?

Options:

A.

255.255.254.0

B.

255.255.255.240

C.

255.255.255.248

D.

255.255.255.252

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Questions 287

Drag and drop the REST API call method for HTTP from the left onto the action they perform on the right.

Options:

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Questions 288

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer configures interface fa0/1 on SW1 and SW2 to pass traffic from two different VLANs. For security reasons, company policy requires the native VLAN to be set to a nondefault value. Which configuration meets this requirement?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 289

Refer to the exhibit. Each router must be configured with the last usable IP address in the subnet. Which configuration fulfills this requirement?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 290

Which protocol is used in Software Defined Access (SDA) to provide a tunnel between two edge nodes in different fabrics?

Options:

A.

Generic Router Encapsulation (GRE)

B.

Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN)

C.

Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN)

D.

Point-to-Point Protocol

Buy Now
Questions 291

What is used to identify spurious DHCP servers?

Options:

A.

DHCPREQUEST

B.

DHCPDISCOVER

C.

DHCPACK

D.

DHCPOFFER

Buy Now
Questions 292

Drag and drop the steps in a standard DNS lookup operation from the left into the order on the right.

Options:

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Questions 293

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is asked to confère router R1 so that it forms an OSPF single-area neighbor relationship with R2. Which command sequence must be implemented to configure the router?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 294

Refer to the exhibit.

PC1 regularly sends 1800 Mbps of traffic to the server. A network engineer needs to configure the EtherChannel to disable Port Channel 1 between SW1 and SW2 when the Ge0/0 and Ge0/1 ports on SW2 go down. Which configuration must the engineer apply to the switch?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

Buy Now
Questions 295

Which WAN topology has the highest degree of reliability?

Options:

A.

full mesh

B.

Point-to-point

C.

hub-and-spoke

D.

router-on-a-stick

Buy Now
Questions 296

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126?

Options:

A.

10.165 20.126

B.

10.165.20.146

C.

10.165.20.166

D.

10.165 20.226

Buy Now
Questions 297

What does a switch search for in the CAM table when forwarding a frame?

Options:

A.

source MAC address and aging time

B.

destination MAC address and flush time

C.

source MAC address and source port

D.

destination MAC address and destination port

Buy Now
Questions 298

Refer to the exhibit.

The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

Options:

A.

Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x

B.

Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK

C.

Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK

D.

Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK

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Questions 299

Drag and drop the functions of AAA supporting protocols from the left onto the protocols on the right.

Options:

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Questions 300

What is a difference between an IPv6 multicast address and an IPv6 anycast address?

Options:

A.

A packet sent to an IPv6 multicast address is delivered to one or more destinations at once, but a packet sent to an IPv6 anycast address is routed to the closest interface with that address.

B.

An IPv6 multicast address uses the prefix 2002::/15 and forwards to one destination, and an IPv6 anycast address uses the prefix ff00::/8 and forwards to any destination in a group.

C.

IPv6 multicast addresses are used to transition from IPv4 to IPv6, and IPv6 anycast addresses are used for address aggregation in an IPv6-only environment.

D.

An IPv6 multicast address is assigned to numerous interfaces within a subnet, but an IPv6 anycast address is used for a predefined group of nodes in an all-IPv6 routers group.

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Questions 301

What differentiates the Cisco OfficeExtend AP mode from FlexConnect AP mode?

Options:

A.

FlexConnect allows a personal SSID to be configured on the AP, and personal SSIDs are not supported with OfficeExtend.

B.

OfficeExtend does not support DTLS tunneling of traffic to the WLC, and FlexConnect tunnels traffic to the WLC with DTLS.

C.

OfficeExtend tunnels all traffic through the WLC, and FlexConnect terminates client traffic at the AP switch port.

D.

FlexConnect must be deployed behind a router that NATs the client traffic, and OfficeExtend uses public IP sources.

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Questions 302

What is a similarity OM3 and OM4 fiber optical cable?

Options:

A.

Both have a 62.5 micron core diameter.

B.

Both have a 50 micron core diameter.

C.

Both have a 100 micron core diameter.

D.

Both have a 9 micron core diameter.

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Questions 303

Refer to the exhibit. What is the next-hop IP address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via EIGRP?

Options:

A.

192.168.20.1

B.

10.10.10.5

C.

192.168.30.1

D.

10.10.10.6

Buy Now
Questions 304

What are two features of the DHCP relay agent? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

assigns DNS locally and then forwards request to DHCP server

B.

permits one IP helper command under an individual Layer 3 interface

C.

allows only MAC-to-IP reservations to determine the local subnet of a client

D.

minimizes the necessary number of DHCP servers

E.

configured under the Layer 3 interface of a router on the client subnet

Buy Now
Questions 305

Which advantage does machine learning offer for network security?

Options:

A.

It improves real-time threat detection.

B.

It manages firewall rule sets.

C.

It enforces password complexity requirements.

D.

It controls VPN access permissions.

Buy Now
Questions 306

Which Rapid PVST+ feature should be configured on a switch port to immediately send traffic to a connected server as soon as it is active?

Options:

A.

BPDU guard

B.

loop guard

C.

portfast

D.

uplinkfast

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Questions 307

What is the main difference between traditional networks and controller-based networking?

Options:

A.

Controller-based networks increase TCO for the company, and traditional networks require less investment.

B.

Controller-based networks provide a framework for Innovation, and traditional networks create efficiency.

C.

Controller-based networks are open for application requests, and traditional networks operate manually.

D.

Controller-based networks are a closed ecosystem, and traditional networks take advantage of programmability.

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Questions 308

Refer to the exhibit.

How many objects, Keys and JSON list values are present?

Options:

A.

three objects, two Keys, and three JSON list values

B.

three objects, three keys and two JSON Ml values

C.

one object, three keys, and three JSON list values

D.

one object, three keys and two JSON list values

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Questions 309

Drag and drop the SNMP components from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

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Questions 310

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has just received a packet from host A that is destined to host B. Which route in the routing table is used by R1 to reac B?

Options:

A.

10.10.13.0/25 [108/0] via 10.10.10.10

B.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.2

C.

10.10.13.0/25 [110/2] via 10.10.10.6

D.

10.10.13.0/25 [1/0] via 10.10.10.2

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Questions 311

An engineer must configure a core router with a floating static default route to the backup router at 10.200.0.2.

Options:

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Questions 312

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 313

What is a valid IPv6 address record in DNS?

Options:

A.

A

B.

MX

C.

AAAA

D.

CNAME

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Questions 314

What is a reason to implement LAG on a Cisco WLC?

Options:

A.

Increase the available throughput on the link.

B.

Increase security by encrypting management frames

C.

Allow for stateful failover between WLCs

D.

Enable the connected switch ports to use different Layer 2 configurations

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Questions 315

A network engineer is configuring a new router at a branch office. The router is connected to an upstream WAN network that allows the branch to communicate with the head office. The central time server with IP address 172.24.54.8 is located behind a firewall at the head office. Which command must the engineer configure so that the software clock of the new router synchronizes with the time server?

Options:

A.

ntp master 172.24.54.8

B.

ntp client 172.24.54.8

C.

ntp peer 172.24.54.8

D.

ntp server 172.24.54.8

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Questions 316

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented beginning with line 1 and ending with line 5?

Options:

A.

value

B.

object

C.

key

D.

array

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Questions 317

What are two reasons a switch experiences frame flooding? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A defective patch cable is connected to the switch port

B.

Topology changes are occurring within spanning-tree

C.

An aged MAC (able entry is causing excessive updates

D.

Port-security is configured globally

E.

The forwarding table has overflowed

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Questions 318

What does the implementation of a first-hop redundancy protocol protect against on a network?

Options:

A.

root-bridge loss

B.

spanning-tree loops

C.

default gateway failure

D.

BGP neighbor flapping

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Questions 319

Refer to the exhibit.

What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

Options:

A.

array

B.

key

C.

value

D.

object

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Questions 320

Which channel-group mode must be configured when multiple distribution interfaces connected to a WLC are bundled?

Options:

A.

Channel-group mode passive.

B.

Channel-group mode on.

C.

Channel-group mode desirable.

D.

Channel-group mode active.

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Questions 321

What is a function of an endpoint?

Options:

A.

It is used directly by an individual user to access network services

B.

It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network

C.

It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN

D.

It provides security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network.

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Questions 322

Options:

A.

LAG

B.

EtherChannel

C.

trunk

D.

access

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Questions 323

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 has taken the DROTHER role in the OSPF DR/BDR election process. Which configuration must an engineer implement so that R1 is elected as the DR?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 324

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups?

Options:

A.

Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch.

B.

Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic.

C.

Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN.

D.

Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit.

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Questions 325

Which physical component is distributed among multiple virtual machines running on the same hypervisor?

Options:

A.

external storage

B.

hardware resources

C.

network interfaces

D.

backplane network

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Questions 326

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer configures the CCNA WLAN so that clients must authenticate hourly and to limit the number of simultaneous connections to the WLAN to Which two actions complete this configuration? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the Enable Session Timeout option and set the value to 3600.

B.

Set the Maximum Allowed Clients value to 10.

C.

Enable the Client Exclusion option and set the value to 3600.

D.

Enable the Wi-Fi Direct Clients Policy option.

E.

Set the Maximum Allowed Clients Per AP Radio value to 10.

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Questions 327

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches?

Options:

A.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active no shutdown

B.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode passive no shutdown

C.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunkchannel-group 1 mode desirableno shutdown

D.

Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode on no shutdown

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Questions 328

What is the role of syslog level 7 in network device health monitoring?

Options:

A.

It provides information about error conditions visible on the network device.

B.

It shares normal operational messages from the network equipment.

C.

It sends outputs from various debug commands on the device.

D.

It warns about emergency conditions on the network appliance.

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Questions 329

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is configuring a WLAN to use a WPA2 PSK and allow only specific clients to join. Which two actions must be taken to complete the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Enable the 802.1X option for Authentication Key Management

B.

Enable the WPA2 Policy option

C.

Enable the CCKM option for Authentication Key Management

D.

Enable the MAC Filtering option

E.

Enable the OSEN Policy option

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Questions 330

Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet?

Options:

A.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.

B.

It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4.

C.

It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4.

D.

It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100

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Questions 331

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 332

How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?

Options:

A.

Traditional campus device management schemes typically deploy patches and updates quicker than Cisco DNA Center device management.

B.

Cisco DNA Center device management is implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options.

C.

Traditional campus device management allows a network to scale quicker than using Cisco DNA Center device management.

D.

Cisco DNA Center device management deploys a network faster than traditional campus device management.

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Questions 333

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used?

A)

B)

C)

D)

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 334

Drag and drop the characteristic from the left onto the IPv6 address type on the right.

Options:

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Questions 335

Drag and drop the network topology architecture types from the left onto the corresponding function on the right. Not all architecture types are used.

Options:

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Questions 336

What is a purpose of traffic shaping?

Options:

A.

It enables dynamic flow identification.

B.

It enables policy-based routing.

C.

It provides best-effort service.

D.

It limits bandwidth usage.

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Questions 337

A network engineer is configuring an OSPFv2 neighbor adjacency Drag and drop the parameters from the left onto their required categories on the right. Not all parameters are used

Options:

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Questions 338

Which technology allows for multiple operating systems to be run on a single host computer?

Options:

A.

virtual routing and forwarding

B.

network port ID visualization

C.

virtual device contexts

D.

server visualization

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Questions 339

Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?

Options:

A.

BPDUfilter

B.

PortFast

C.

Backbonefast

D.

BPDUguard

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Questions 340

Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?

Options:

A.

disk

B.

applications

C.

VM configuration file

D.

operating system

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Questions 341

What causes a port to be placed in the err-disabled state?

Options:

A.

latency

B.

port security violation

C.

shutdown command issued on the port

D.

nothing plugged into the port

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Questions 342

What is a difference between local AP mode and FiexConnet AP mode?

Options:

A.

Local AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC

B.

FiexConnect AP mode fails to function if the AP loses connectivity with the WLC

C.

FlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured

D.

Local AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP

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Questions 343

Refer to the exhibit.

If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?

Options:

A.

DHCP client

B.

access point

C.

router

D.

PC

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Questions 344

Refer to the exhibit Routers R1 and R2 have been configured with their respective LAN interfaces The two circuits are operational and reachable across WAN Which command set establishes failover redundancy if the primary circuit goes down?

Options:

A.

Option A

B.

Option B

C.

Option C

D.

Option D

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Questions 345

Which command enables a router to become a DHCP client?

Options:

A.

ip address dhcp

B.

ip helper-address

C.

ip dhcp pool

D.

ip dhcp client

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Exam Code: 200-301
Exam Name: Cisco Certified Network Associate
Last Update: Aug 17, 2025
Questions: 1153
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