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APM-PFQ APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What aspects of benefits realisation would be considered as most important to note in the business case?

Options:

A.

Who is going to be responsible for carrying out each of the projects activities.

B.

How the benefits will be realised, measured and the stakeholders involved

C.

What type of contract is going to be used to procure delivery of the project.

D.

Which benefits should be realised first and then the subsequent order

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Questions 5

What aspect of the project will have greatest influence on the estimating method being used?

Options:

A.

The point in the life cycle where the estimate is being carried out.

B.

The overall budgeted value of the project being estimated.

C.

Whether the project is likely to proceed or not.

D.

The amount of acceptable estimating tolerance that exists.

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Questions 6

What is one of the main features of using analogous method of estimating?

Options:

A.

The individual group members use a statistical relationship between historic data and other variables to calculate an estimate.

B.

The task of producing the estimates will be delegated to those who are actually going to deliver the individual pieces of work or work packages.

C.

The individual group members, who are tasked with providing the estimates, do this in isolation from each other.

D.

The individual group members identify a previously delivered project of the same size. complexity and delivery method.

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Questions 7

Which of the following is not a key aspect of issue resolution?

Options:

A.

Increase risk budget.

B.

Apply change control.

C.

Escalate analysis to project sponsor.

D.

Assign actions to relevant team member.

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Questions 8

Which of the following phases precedes feasibility in an iterative project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Foundations.

B.

Pre-project.

C.

Concept.

D.

Initiation.

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Questions 9

What is the main benefit of using a risk register in the project?

Options:

A.

It records risks. their impact and the responses being adopted.

B.

It records risk ownership and how issues are being managed.

C.

It assesses the impact and probability of risks taking place.

D.

It directs the team in how the management of risk in the project should be conducted.

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Questions 10

One difference between a project and business as usual is:

Options:

A.

projects achieve specified benefits but business as usual has only vague benefits.

B.

projects drive change whereas business as usual continues existing activities.

C.

projects have tightly controlled budgets whereas business as usual does not.

D.

projects have unclear deadlines but business as usual has multiple milestones

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Questions 11

Which of the following disadvantages applies to video conferencing?

Options:

A.

A level of technological expertise is required.

B.

Body language can reinforce the message.

C.

It is harder to maintain concentration.

D.

There are increased costs of getting to the meeting.

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Questions 12

Procurement strategy can be defined as the high-level approach for securing:

Options:

A.

stakeholder engagement.

B.

funding for the project.

C.

buy in from the project sponsor.

D.

goods and services required for the project.

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Questions 13

Which one of the following is NOT a project change?

Options:

A.

An approved omission from the agreed project scope.

B.

The potential for agreed resources to be removed from the project.

C.

A. requirement for extra expenditure to cover increased supplier costs.

D.

The removal of work packages from the agreed project scope.

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Questions 14

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Independent reviews and quality audits form part of quality assurance to ensure the project manager delivers on time and to budget.

B.

Quality assurance provides confidence to stakeholders that requirements for quality will be exceeded.

C.

Quality control verifies that the project deliverables conform to specification, are fit for purpose and meet stakeholder expectations.

D.

Quality planning enables the project manager to manage the trade-off between customer expectations and budget.

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Questions 15

Resource levelling seeks:

Options:

A.

to schedule activities within the limits of their float.

B.

to minimise the use of overtime and weekend working.

C.

not to exceed the limits of resource available.

D.

to increase the resource availability

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Questions 16

Which of the following is an activity in a typical risk management process?

Options:

A.

Verification.

B.

Request.

C.

Closure.

D.

Justification

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Questions 17

What are the likely results of building agile working into a or programme?

Options:

A.

Reduced schedule time.

B.

increased cost.

C.

Increased efficiency and flexibility.

D.

Reduced risk

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Questions 18

Which one of the following is true for the Project Management Plan (PMP)?

Options:

A.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the sponsor.

B.

A. draft of the Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor at the same time as the business case.

C.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the sponsor and owned by the project manager.

D.

The Project Management Plan is developed by the project manager and team and owned by the project manager

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Questions 19

Why is environmental analysis the most important analysis for an organisation to undertake?

Options:

A.

It allows the detailed execution plans, to be defined, that are likely to be developed in order to deliver the project.

B.

It is the only way in which the scope of the project can be identified and detailed in plans.

C.

It identifies the problems, opportunities or business needs which may require some degree of response.

D It is the only form of detailed planning that can be carried out in the earliest phases of the project life cycle.

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Questions 20

Which one of the following best describes the entire project reporting process?

Options:

A.

Producing an exception report to communicate A. project issue to the project board.

B.

Publicising the project benefits to the business organisation.

C.

Notifying team members of the project's progress at the weekly team meeting.

D.

Formally notifying the status of the project to the project's stakeholders.

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Questions 21

What is the most likely reason a stakeholder may object to the project?

Options:

A.

They have a lack of interest in what the project is they feel it doesn't really affect them.

B.

They haven't been involved in project manager from the candidates available

C.

They have misunderstood what the project is trying to achieve and have had very little communication from the project.

D.

They are a in another project and time to perform the stakeholder role

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Questions 22

Portfolio management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the co-ordinated management of related projects, including related business-as-usual activities.

B.

the formal process through which changes to the project plan are approved and introduced.

C.

the identification of the benefits (of A. project or programme) at an organisational level and the tracking and realisation of those benefits.

D.

the selection and management of all of an organisation's projects, programmes and related business-as-usual activities, taking into account resource constraints.

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Questions 23

The purpose of a decision gate is to decide whether:

Options:

A.

the response to a risk is valid.

B.

a project is viable in line with the business case.

C.

the project delivered against the success criteria.

D.

lessons were effectively learned during the project.

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Questions 24

A formally constituted group of stakeholders responsible for approving or rejecting changes to the project baselines, is referred to as the:

Options:

A.

change management committee,

B.

change authority,

C.

change control board.

D.

change implementation group.

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Questions 25

By carrying out a stakeholder analysis, project managers can assess whether or not stakeholders are:

Options:

A.

making unfair judgements.

B.

able to bring expertise to the project team.

C.

in a position to affect their careers.

D.

for or against the project outcomes.

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Questions 26

Quality control consists of:

1) improvement

2) inspection

3) measurement

4) testing

Options:

A.

1, 2 and 4

B.

2, 3 and 4

C.

1, 3 and 4

D.

1, 2 and 3

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Questions 27

Which Of the following might be a probable cause to consider early project closure?

Options:

A.

The cost to complete the project is greater than the value to be achieved.

B.

The project is on schedule but spent less than expected

C.

The is expected to yield greater value than stated in the business

D.

The project manager has resigned and an immediate replacement is unavailable

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Questions 28

Scheduling can best be defined as the process used to determine:

Options:

A.

overall project duration.

B.

project cost.

C.

the project management plan.

D.

sub-contractor's responsibilities

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Questions 29

Why is it important to produce a project management plan?

Options:

A.

It shows the benefits expected at the close of the project and the specific stakeholders who are involved.

B.

It provides justification for undertaking the project and provides a rationale for the preferred solution.

C.

It sets and clarifies the expectations of all stakeholders who are involved in the project delivery.

D.

It identifies and establishes the most appropriate means of procuring the component parts or services for the project being delivered.

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Questions 30

A member of your team has described being involved in a risk event. Which one of the following would best describe such an event?

Options:

A.

An action or set of actions to reduce the probability or impact of a threat, or to increase the probability or impact of an opportunity.

B.

The plan of the response to risks.

C.

An uncertain event or set of circumstances that if realised would have an effect on project objectives.

D.

A risk identification workshop.

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Questions 31

In project management, the term quality is best defined as:

Options:

A.

inspection, testing and measurement.

B.

reviews and audits.

C.

fitness for purpose of deliverables.

D.

professionally-bound project reports.

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Questions 32

Which structure shows the reporting relationships and communications channels for a project?

Options:

A.

Work Breakdown Structure.

B.

Organisational Breakdown Structure.

C.

Product Breakdown Structure.

D.

Responsibility assignment structure.

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Questions 33

The project manager's prime responsibility is to:

Options:

A.

deliver the benefits.

B.

define the requirements.

C.

sign off the business case.

D.

implement the project plan

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Questions 34

Which of the following is a responsibility of the project sponsor?

Options:

A.

Creating a project cost breakdown structure.

B.

Authoring the project management plan.

C.

Creating a project work breakdown structure.

D.

Owning the project business case.

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Questions 35

Which one of the following is captured in the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)?

Options:

A.

The life cycle phases.

B.

The logical order of tasks.

C.

The scope of the project.

D.

Project costs.

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Questions 36

A generic linear project life cycle might include the sequence:

Options:

A.

Definition, concept, design, implementation, transition.

B.

Concept. definition, deployment. transition.

C.

Planning, deployment, closing, learning, review.

D.

Feasibility, planning, deployment, handover. review.

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Questions 37

The justification for the investment to be made in a project is documented in the...

Options:

A.

Cost breakdown structure

B.

Procurement strategy

C.

Business case

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 38

Understanding who stakeholders are and their needs is a key duty of

Options:

A.

the quality manager.

B.

the key users,

C.

the project manager.

D.

the business sponsor.

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Questions 39

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a...

Options:

A.

decision gate.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review.

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Questions 40

Risk management should be initiated...

Options:

A.

when the Project Management Plan is initiated.

B.

at the time the Work Breakdown Structure is developed.

C.

at the start of the project.

D.

once the project concept is understood.

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Questions 41

What is the purpose of a stakeholder grid?

Options:

A.

A means of stakeholder identification.

B.

It provides a statement of the stakeholder communications plan.

C.

To understand a stakeholder's position in relation to the project.

D.

It presents an action plan for stakeholder management.

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Questions 42

Which one of the following statements about the project life cycle is true?

Options:

A.

The phases in the project life cycle are always the same size.

B.

The same processes are used in each of the project life cycle phases.

C.

The project life cycle has a number of distinct phases.

D.

The project budget is divided equally between each phase of the project life cycle.

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Questions 43

Which one of the following best describes project success criteria?

Options:

A.

Actively seeking some senior management support.

B.

Measures by which the success of the project is judged.

C.

Achievement of milestones.

D.

A motivated project team.

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Questions 44

Which of the following are challenges for a project manager developing and leading a project team?

1) Issues and incompatibility amongst team members

2) Getting the right skills and attributes amongst team members

3) Co-location of team members in the same geographic area

4) Lack of accountability of team members

Options:

A.

1, 2 & 3

B.

1, 2 & 4

C.

1, 3 & 4

D.

2, 3 & 4

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Questions 45

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the post project review?

Options:

A.

Evaluation of the benefits of the project.

B.

Identification of the problems that arose and their likely causes.

C.

Review of the project's performance against the success criteria.

D.

Review of how the team worked together to solve problems and issues.

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Questions 46

Which one of the following statements best defines an estimate?

Options:

A.

An approximation of project time and cost targets, refined throughout the project life cycle.

B.

A prediction of a future condition or event based on information or knowledge available now.

C.

The value of useful work done at any given point in a project to give a measure of progress.

D.

A situation that affects or influences the outcome of the project expressed in time or cost term

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Questions 47

The process that evaluates overall project performance to provide confidence is called:

Options:

A.

quality assurance.

B.

quality planning.

C.

quality control.

D.

quality audit.

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Questions 48

One of the main purposes of dividing a project into life cycle phases is to:

Options:

A.

break the work into controllable blocks in terms of effort and size.

B.

ensure the processes are properly maintained.

C.

ensure that the workforce is certain of their individual roles.

D.

provide a means Of producing overall project cost estimates.

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Questions 49

Key performance indicators (KPIs) are used for measuring how a project is progressing towards success and are monitored by project managers:

Options:

A.

at the post-project review.

B.

not more frequently than monthly.

C.

throughout the project.

D.

only when assessing project risk.

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Questions 50

Critical path analysis places emphasis upon:

Options:

A.

risks

B.

resources

C.

milestones

D.

activities

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Questions 51

When is an analysis of a project's environment most likely to be undertaken?

Options:

A.

In the Definition Phase

B.

In the Transition Phase

C.

In the Concept Phase

D.

In the Deployment Phase

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Questions 52

Which of the following statements about estimating is true?

Options:

A.

Post project reviews are a prime source of estimating data.

B.

An estimated cost for a project must be 10 per cent to be any use

C.

If you cannot estimate task durations to within 20 per cent there is no point in developing a schedule.

D.

The project manager should always add 10 cent to peoples duration estimates to allow for natural optimism

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Questions 53

The business case is owned by the project:

Options:

A.

manager.

B.

sponsor.

C.

steering group (board).

D.

senior user.

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Questions 54

Which one of the following best describes project management?

Options:

A.

Using APM's Body of Knowledge 6th edition as a guide to all projects.

B.

Employing a project manager who has undertaken similar projects.

C.

Utilising team members who can work on a project full time.

D.

Application of processes and methods throughout the project life cycle.

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Questions 55

Which stakeholders are likely to form the main part of a project governance board?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor, project manager and quality manager.

B.

Corporate management, project sponsor, quality manager and project office.

C.

Sponsor, supplier representative and user representative.

D Sponsor, project manager and senior project team members.

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Questions 56

What rule of thumb. can be used for ensuring that key stakeholders have been included in the process?

Options:

A.

Make use Of widely available templates and predefined structures to ensure a complete spectrum of stakeholders are identified.

B.

Ask the most influential stakeholders to identify who else they think Should be involved in the project.

C.

Analyse Other projects and who their stakeholders are and include them by default.

D.

Question whose support or lack of it might significantly influence the success of the project

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Questions 57

Which one of the following is NOT a function of leadership?

Options:

A.

Reinforcing positive relationships.

B.

Inspiring the individual.

C.

Maintaining constant tight control.

D.

Promoting the project vision.

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Questions 58

Once a change has been requested what is the next step in the change control process?

Options:

A.

Evaluate the change.

B.

Advise the sponsor.

C.

Update the change log.

D.

Update the project plan.

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Questions 59

One benefit of stakeholder analysis is that:

Options:

A.

the communication plan becomes unnecessary.

B.

the stakeholders who oppose the project the most can be "cut off' to reduce their negative influence.

C.

the communication requirements for each stakeholder Can be established.

D.

the stakeholders can be removed from any of the decisions that are bang planned.

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Questions 60

Which one of the following is the best description of project scope?

Options:

A.

Scope is detailed in the business case.

B.

Scope is the total work content of a project.

C.

Scope is an outcome of the scheduling and estimating processes.

D.

Scope defines what is NOT delivered by the project.

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Questions 61

Estimating by using historical information is known as:

Options:

A.

comparative estimating.

B.

parametric estimating.

C.

bottom-up estimating.

D.

strategic estimating.

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Questions 62

Options:

A.

Cost Breakdown Structure (CBS) shows costs assigned to:

B.

individual work packages using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

C.

individual resources using the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS).

D.

individual resources using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM).

E.

individual deliverables using the Responsibility Assignment Matrix (RAM)

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Questions 63

An extended project life cycle can be defined as:

Options:

A.

an approach that adds operational and termination phases to a linear life cycle.

B.

an approach that adds adoption and benefits realisation phases to a linear life cycle.

C.

a framework for conducting a cost-benefit analysis once a project has closed.

D.

a framework for ensuring the re-deployment of assets post project.

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Questions 64

Which one of the following is a responsibility of the project steering group/board?

Options:

A.

To identify potential problems for the project team to solve.

B.

To provide strategic direction and guidance to the sponsor.

C.

To manage the project team in all daily activities.

D.

To receive and consider daily reports from team members.

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Questions 65

A procurement strategy is a:

Options:

A.

technical specification.

B.

day-to-day requirement.

C.

detailed timetable.

D.

high-level approach.

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Questions 66

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its life cycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its life cycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project life cycle.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its life cycle

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Questions 67

Which of the following are not considered by quality planning?

Options:

A.

Contingency budget for remedial work.

B.

Equipment required for quality testing.

C.

Staff qualified to undertake inspections.

D.

Processes to obtain stakeholder approvals.

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Questions 68

What is the most likely conclusion resulting from a PESTLE analysis?

Options:

A.

The agreed end date for the project.

B.

A list of possible stakeholders.

C.

The number of project phases necessary.

D The size of the project team required.

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Questions 69

A review undertaken to decide whether a project should proceed into its next phase is known as a:

Options:

A.

gate review.

B.

feasibility study.

C.

milestone review.

D.

evaluation review

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Questions 70

Which of the following estimating techniques utilizes work packages, assigning costs and consolidating to provide a project estimate?

Options:

A.

Analytical.

B.

Comparative.

C.

Parametric.

D.

Strategic.

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Questions 71

Within which phases of a project life cycle are risks identified?

Options:

A.

Within the end phase.

B.

Within the initial phases.

C.

Within the deployment phase.

D.

Within each phase.

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Questions 72

You have been asked to assist in the development of a project management plan for the project. As A. minimum, what should this plan include?

Options:

A.

A. summary of the project acceptance criteria.

B.

CVs of all the team members.

C.

Details Of previous similar projects.

D.

Resourcing details for quality reviews.

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Questions 73

Which one of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Business-as-usual activities cannot be improved.

B.

Business-as-usual activities are more difficult to manage than projects.

C.

Projects are transient endeavours that bring about change to business-as-usual.

D.

A. project is always the starting point for operational refinement.

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Questions 74

Which phase of the project life cycle will utilize the new project and enable the acceptance and use of the benefits?

Options:

A.

Adoption.

B.

Transition.

C.

Deployment.

D.

Implementation.

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Questions 75

Once a proposed change is logged it should then be:

Options:

A.

accepted, rejected or deferred.

B.

accepted and the project plan updated.

C.

sent to the project sponsor for approval.

D.

assessed to determine its potential impact.

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Questions 76

Benefits management ends once the benefits have been:

Options:

A.

defined.

B.

quantified.

C.

realised.

D.

conceived.

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Questions 77

How should issues be prioritised?

Options:

A.

The time order in which the issues occurred.

B.

The impact on success criteria and benefits.

C.

The relative seniority of the issue owner.

D.

The relationship with A. relevant risk.

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Questions 78

How many dimensions are included in the business case?

Options:

A.

Five

B.

One

C.

Three

D.

Four

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Questions 79

The project manager ___ the business case.

Options:

A.

is the sole author of.

B.

represents.

C.

implements.

D.

is not involved with.

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Questions 80

A project is typically defined in terms of scope, time, cost and which other parameter?

Options:

A.

Benefits.

B.

Quality.

C.

Tolerance.

D.

Controls.

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Questions 81

The question: 'Is the project actually following the processes and procedures as set out in the quality plan?' would be answered by?

Options:

A.

Quality alignment.

B.

Quality control.

C.

Quality assurance.

D.

Quality improvement.

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Questions 82

What information would be expected as content for a business case?

Options:

A.

A. detailed schedule of the project.

B.

An outline of the project management team.

C.

An outline of the estimated costs of implementing the project.

D.

detailed breakdown of the scope of the project.

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Questions 83

To ensure communication is most likely to be effective in the project, the project manager should:

Options:

A.

ensure that everyone is copied On all emails.

B.

insist on a lower level of paper documents.

C.

train project staff in the most up-to-date communication techniques

D.

develop a communication plan.

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Questions 84

What is the main reason for having an extended life cycle?

Options:

A.

Allow the project to have extra time to ensure that that there is enough capacity to realise benefits.

B.

Allow upfront planning for any supplemental activities and incorporate additional considerations for benefits realisation.

C.

Allow time for stakeholders to decide how they will use the output to best effect that will realise benefits.

D.

Allow extra funding to be applied to the project to ensure that sufficient resources exist to maximise benefits realisation.

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Questions 85

An issue that results in a change to scope or the baseline plan should be managed through:

Options:

A.

configuration control.

B.

change management.

C.

change control.

D.

scope management.

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Questions 86

Which of the following activities is not in an extended project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Deployment.

B.

Termination.

C.

Adoption.

D.

Transition.

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Questions 87

The purpose of quality assurance is to:

Options:

A.

provide confidence the project will satisfy the relevant quality standards.

B.

determine a set of procedures and standards for project management.

C.

inspect, measure and test deliverables and processes.

D.

define the scope and specifics of a project's deliverables

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Questions 88

Which one of the following best characterises a project?

Options:

A.

An ongoing activity to maintain the company plant.

B.

A. transient endeavour carried out to meet specificobjectives.

C.

Continuous improvement of the company procedures.

D.

Manufacturing components for a new technology.

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Questions 89

Which of the following is true of the project environment?

Options:

A.

Within the environment are the factors that influence and impact projects.

B.

Only certain types of projects are influenced by the environment.

C.

The project environment will only really impact the project at the start.

D There is no real way of determining the true project environment.

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Questions 90

To be fully effective, the project manager:

Options:

A.

must take into consideration the internal and external environments.

B.

need only deal with the internal environment since the sponsor will deal with the external environment.

C.

should manage the external stakeholders and external environment.

D must liaise with regulating bodies to ensure requirements include the latest legislation.

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Questions 91

Who are project team members primarily accountable to?

Options:

A.

External stakeholders.

B.

The end users.

C.

The finance director.

D.

The project manager

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Questions 92

Which of the following BEST describes a project issue?

Options:

A.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur

B.

An opportunity that occurs through change control

C.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis

D.

A problem that needs to be escalated to the next level of management for resolution

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Questions 93

What is the key benefit of having configuration management in the project?

Options:

A.

It allows a thorough assessment of the factors that are most likely to affect the change.

B.

It is A. means to justify to the customer variances from the original objectives.

C.

It ensures that the delivered product most closely meets the needs of the customer.

D.

It manages the impact of change to the project scope.

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Questions 94

Which one of the following statements best describes the use of an issue log?

Options:

A.

A. summary of all possible alternative resolutions of an issue.

B.

A. summary of all the project issues, their analysis and status.

C.

A. tool to ensure that a process is in place for capturing all issues.

D.

A. tool to ensure that the issue management process is adhered to.

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Questions 95

We have an expert-written solution to this problem!

Who has ultimate responsibility for project risk?

Options:

A.

Steering group.

B.

Risk owner.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Project manager

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Questions 96

What role does the project manager have in the writing of the business case? The project manager:

Options:

A.

works with the project sponsor.

B.

has no involvement.

C.

must develop it themself.

D.

works with the end user.

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Questions 97

Configuration management could best be described as:

Options:

A.

the process through which all requests to change the approved baseline of a project is captured. evaluated and then approved. rejected or deferred.

B.

the system that ensures that all changes to configuration items are controlled and the interrelationships between items are identified.

C.

the technical and administrative activities concerned with the creation, maintenance, controlled change and quality control of the scope of work.

D.

A report of the current status and history of all changes to the configuration, together with a complete record of what has happened to the configuration to date.

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Questions 98

Which one of the following statements about the project management plan (PMP) is considered to be the most important condition of compliance to ensure an effective plan is produced?

Options:

A.

The project team should not contribute to the writing of the PMP.

B.

The PMP should be agreed and signed off by both the sponsor and the project manager as a minimum.

C.

The sponsor should maintain ownership of the PM P.

D.

The PMP is necessary for effective stakeholder management.

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Questions 99

Which of the following can be adjusted in a timebox situation?

Options:

A.

Deadline and duration.

B.

Time and cost.

C.

Scope and quality.

D.

Budget and resources.

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Questions 100

An Organisational Breakdown Structure (OBS) is used to identify:

Options:

A.

the reporting structure and current availability of all individuals in the project.

B.

technical ability and line of communication for all individuals in the project.

C.

lines of communication and responsibility for all the individual managers in the project.

D.

the reporting structure and lines of communication for all individuals in the projects.

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Questions 101

The value of a risk log lies in its ability to provide:

Options:

A.

A. record of all risks, their impact and the actions taken to manage them.

B.

A. record of the ownership of risk and issue management actions.

C.

A. means of assessing the likelihood and impact of risks.

D.

A. structured process for risk management.

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Questions 102

The primary purpose of a gate review is to decide:

Options:

A.

whether the project manager and team are performing well.

B.

if the project is on schedule and within budget.

C.

if stakeholders are satisfied.

D.

whether to continue with the project.

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Questions 103

Who would be typically described as the person or organisation best placed to deal with a risk?

Options:

A.

Risk manager.

B.

Sponsor.

C.

Project sponsor.

D.

Risk owner.

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Questions 104

Which of the following responsibilities lies with the project management office?

Options:

A.

Liaising with end users.

B.

Managing suppliers.

C.

Providing technical support.

D.

Supporting the project sponsor.

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Questions 105

Which one of the following best describes a project issue?

Options:

A.

A major problem that requires formal escalation.

B.

A problem that the project manager has to deal with on a day-to-day basis.

C.

An uncertain event that may or may not occur.

D.

An opportunity that occurs through change control.

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Questions 106

What information would you not expect to see in a project management plan?

Options:

A.

Quality management plan.

B.

Financial feasibility analysis.

C.

Risk management plan.

D.

Details of scope.

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Questions 107

A project manager would use a cost breakdown structure to produce:

Options:

A.

the cost of a do-nothing option.

B.

an analytical estimate.

C.

high-level project costs.

D.

a comparative estimate.

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Questions 108

How can the project manager ensure a sound stakeholder environment?

Options:

A.

Ensure that stakeholders who oppose the project are not involved

B.

Develop an environment where all stakeholder's needs are satisfied.

C.

Develop ways of understanding the needs of stakeholders.

D.

Ensure that the influence stakeholders have is reduced.

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Questions 109

Which of the following is not a key element of project scope management?

Options:

A.

Define outputs.

B.

Identify outputs.

C.

Share outputs.

D.

Control outputs

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Questions 110

Inspection, measurement and testing to verify that the project outputs meet acceptance criteria is an example of quality:

Options:

A.

reporting.

B.

control.

C.

assurance.

D.

planning.

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Questions 111

How is the deployment baseline used throughout the project?

Options:

A.

Progress monitoring and implementation of change control.

B.

Benefits realisation.

C.

Identify options for deployment.

D.

Prepare users for delivery of the output into operation.

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Questions 112

What action is essential after a change has been approved?

Options:

A.

The highlights of the change are communicated directly to the sponsor.

B.

The actual impact of the change is assessed.

C.

The next change requested should be reviewed as quickly as possible.

D.

The related plans must be updated to reflect the change.

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Questions 113

The main aim of a project risk management process should be to:

Options:

A.

identify project risks and then manage them appropriately.

B.

identify all project risks and transfer them immediately.

C.

identify all the things that are threats or opportunities on a project.

D.

satisfy the organisation's project management process.

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Questions 114

Which of these statements is FALSE?

Options:

A.

Stakeholders may be for the change or against

B.

Stakeholders may have little influence or lots

C.

Stakeholders may be internal or external to your organisation

D.

Stakeholders with high influence always have high interest in the project

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Questions 115

Which of the following would be considered part of a configuration management process?

Options:

A.

Initiating, identifying, assessing, planning, responding.

B.

Planning, identification, controlling, status accounting, auditing.

C.

Scheduling, baselining, controlling, responding, closing.

D.

Planning. auditing. monitoring, controlling, closing.

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Questions 116

Which one of the following statements best defines the purpose of a Product Breakdown Structure (PBS)?

Options:

A.

To define the hierarchy of deliverables that are required to be produced on the project.

B.

To define how the products are produced by identifying derivations and dependencies.

C.

To establish the extent of work required prior to project commissioning and the handover.

D.

To identify the health and safety strategies and procedures to be used on the project.

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Questions 117

When delivering a project the Project Manager has to balance which one of the following constraints:

Options:

A.

definition and delivery.

B.

time, cost and quality.

C.

cost and scope.

D.

budget, spend and contingency

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Questions 118

The accuracy of an estimate should:

Options:

A.

decrease as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

B.

increase as a project progresses through its lifecycle.

C.

stay constant throughout the project.

D.

vary independently of where the project is in its lifecycle

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Questions 119

A responsibility assignment matrix (RAM) allows the project manager to cross reference:

Options:

A.

the work breakdown structure (WBS) with the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) to match resources to the tasks.

B.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the cost breakdown structure (CBS) to assign A. cost to each resource.

C.

the product breakdown structure (PBS) with the work breakdown structure (WBS) to assign activities to the products.

D.

the organisational breakdown structure (OBS) with the product breakdown structure (PBS) to assign resources to deliverables.

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Questions 120

Which of the following would not be considered as part of the business case?

Options:

A.

Safety plan for the project.

B.

Implementation options.

C.

Stakeholder identification.

D.

Business benefits.

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Questions 121

What is likely to be a benefit to a project of having a communication plan?

Options:

A.

The project is more likely to finish on time.

B.

There will be greater adherence to the organisation's governance and standards.

C.

The project will be less susceptible to uncontrolled change.

D.

There will be more focus on what benefits the project will be delivering.

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Questions 122

What aspect is important to clarify when conducting scope definition?

Options:

A.

The number of products contained in the PBS,

B.

The boundaries and interfaces with adjacent projects.

C.

Who is going to perform the work.

D.

When the work is going to be performed.

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Exam Code: APM-PFQ
Exam Name: APM Project Fundamentals Qualification (PFQ)
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
Questions: 409
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