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CPHRM Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

In a failure mode and effects analysis, the risk priority number is calculated by

Options:

A.

adding the severity and occurrence scores.

B.

multiplying the severity and detection scores.

C.

adding the severity, occurrence, and detection scores.

D.

multiplying the severity, occurrence, and detection scores.

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Questions 5

Which condition must be met for a patient to no longer be protected by EMTALA obligations of the hospital?

Options:

A.

The patient provides a caregiver contact for discharge

B.

The patient is admittedin good faithas an inpatient (or is stabilized/appropriately transferred as applicable)

C.

The patient signs a satisfaction survey

D.

The patient receives a diagnosis code

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Questions 6

The source of many medication errors is:

Options:

A.

Verbal/telephone orders (when avoidable and not properly verified)

B.

Patient wristbands

C.

Elevator delays

D.

Radiology scheduling

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Questions 7

Which of the following can be considered evidence in a malpractice claim?

    photographs of injuries

    thank you note from the patient to the physician

    patient journal of the hospital stay

    gift from the patient to a volunteer

Options:

A.

1, 2, and 3 only

B.

1, 2, and 4 only

C.

1, 3, and 4 only

D.

2, 3, and 4 only

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Questions 8

A claims manager needs to open a loss reserve and perform an investigation of an event. They review the patient demographics, the nature and extent of the injury, and other liability factors. Which of the following would be helpful to the claims manager in determining a loss reserve?

Options:

A.

comparable verdicts in the county

B.

the surgery center's claims history

C.

the patient's total medical bills

D.

amount of insurance allowed per occurrence

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Questions 9

Which of the following concerns meets the CMS Hospital Conditions of Participation 42 CFR §482.12 classification as a grievance?

Options:

A.

a verbal complaint that cannot be solved by current staff, and the resolution of which is postponed for later

B.

a patient calling regarding a billing issue requesting for adjustment to the charges

C.

information obtained with a patient satisfaction survey

D.

post-hospital verbal communication regarding a care issue that could have been handled by the staff during visit but was not reported

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Questions 10

An indemnification clause in a contract is designed to

Options:

A.

create a forum to resolve contract disputes related to fulfillment of the contract terms.

B.

hold the other party responsible for fulfilling the terms of the contract.

C.

defer all legal costs to the other party in the case of harm, liability, or loss.

D.

clarify commitments to compensate the other party for harm, liability, or loss.

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Questions 11

Standardization of abbreviations, acronyms, and symbols used throughout the organization will likely result in improvement related to which of the following Joint Commission National Patient Safety Goals?

Options:

A.

accuracy of patient identification

B.

effectiveness of communication among caregivers

C.

safety of using high-alert medications

D.

medication reconciliation

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Questions 12

Which of the following analyses is required as part of the sentinel event process of The Joint Commission?

Options:

A.

fishbone diagram of the causal factors

B.

Pareto chart outlining the problems identified and the priorities for improvement

C.

action plan listing the steps for improvement and the dates of implementation for each step

D.

flow chart listing the responsibilities for each of the departments involved

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Questions 13

In preparing next year's budget, the hospital CFO has contacted the risk manager for a projected contribution to the hospital's professional and general liability self-insured retention fund. To respond to this request, the risk manager should refer to which of the following?

Options:

A.

actuarial reports and loss runs

B.

professional and general liability premiums

C.

frequency and severity analyses of pending claims

D.

total incurred losses for the current year

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Questions 14

An unstable patient in the emergency department needs transfer to another hospital. Which of the following statements is true regarding the refusal of an on-call physician to treat this patient?

Options:

A.

The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of any patient, for any reason.

B.

The on-call physician may refuse to participate in the care of a patient, as long as that refusal is not based on insurance status or other financial concerns.

C.

The on-call physician is relieved of duty only if unavailable because of caring for another patient, or because of other circumstances outside the physician's control.

D.

The on-call physician is never relieved of duty to accept a patient needing specialized services.

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Questions 15

Information from the Data Bank (NPDB; includes former HIPDB content) can be requested by:

Options:

A.

Any member of the public

B.

Professional societies with formal peer review (as permitted)

C.

Social media investigators

D.

Patients requesting a clinician’s full file

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Questions 16

An intervention between parties to promote reconciliation, settlement, or compromise is

Options:

A.

an arbitration.

B.

a mediation.

C.

a jury trial.

D.

a judge trial.

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Questions 17

If an at-risk patient is left unattended and has an adverse response to medication, this is best classified as:

Options:

A.

An active error at the sharp end (frontline lapse)

B.

A harmless variance

C.

A marketing defect

D.

A financial risk transfer

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Questions 18

Which of the following is the BEST reason for the selection of defense counsel?

Options:

A.

proximity to the facility

B.

percentage of defense verdicts

C.

area of expertise

D.

fee schedule

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Questions 19

If no specific OSHA standard applies to a given potential health hazard, then

Options:

A.

OSHA has no authority to govern the hazard.

B.

OSHA has the authority to govern the hazard under the general duty clause.

C.

the appropriate state agency must consult with OSHA in governance of the hazard.

D.

the appropriate state agency may govern the hazard without OSHA consultation.

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Questions 20

Ultimately, the accountability for the risk management program belongs to:

Options:

A.

The board

B.

The gift shop manager

C.

A single bedside nurse

D.

The parking contractor

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Questions 21

What significantly impacts whether incident reports are discoverable?

Options:

A.

State statutes, federal statutes, and case law

B.

The color of the incident form

C.

The patient’s insurance plan

D.

Staff seniority

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Questions 22

When a hospital notes that most errors are occurring at the “sharp end,” what does that mean?

Options:

A.

Errors are occurring in billing and contracting

B.

Errors occur during direct caregiver–patient interaction (frontline care)

C.

Errors occur only in device manufacturing

D.

Errors are exclusively leadership decisions

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Questions 23

An employer is not required to offer a reasonable accommodation to a job applicant with a qualified disability unless

Options:

A.

the applicant proves the disability.

B.

withholding the reasonable accommodation creates an unsafe condition.

C.

the applicant requests the accommodation.

D.

the employer recognizes that the accommodation is necessary.

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Questions 24

When CPOE is implemented, there is almost always a decline in:

Options:

A.

Medication errors related to prescribing/transcription

B.

Nurse staffing requirements

C.

Patient acuity

D.

The need for clinical decision-making

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Questions 25

Whenever possible, medication orders should be by:

Options:

A.

Brand name

B.

Dose (explicit numeric dose and units)

C.

Color coding

D.

Verbal shorthand

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Questions 26

A 22-year-old man has been treated at a hospital for a psychiatric condition. His mother requests that a copy of the patient's medical record be released to her. The risk manager's advice to the medical records department should be to

Options:

A.

contact the hospital's legal counsel to authorize the release of the medical record.

B.

check with the psychiatrist for a recommendation to release the medical record.

C.

verify that a specific release of information form has been signed by the patient and then release the medical record.

D.

request evidence that the mother is the guardian of the patient and then release the medical record.

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Questions 27

The due diligence process in acquisitions is undertaken to:

Options:

A.

Reduce unanticipated costs and risks; support valuation and post-acquisition performance

B.

Hide liabilities

C.

Avoid reviewing contracts

D.

Remove compliance requirements

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Questions 28

A hold-harmless agreement is an important component of which of the following aspects of a risk financing program?

Options:

A.

risk transfer

B.

risk retention

C.

first-party liability insurance

D.

third-party liability insurance

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Questions 29

A physician dies upon arrival to the emergency department from her home following a gunshot wound to the chest. The police report a history of domestic violence. The organization is required to notify the

Options:

A.

state Board of Medicine.

B.

Department of Health and Family Services.

C.

Office of the Medical Examiner.

D.

organization's public relations department.

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Questions 30

Which of the following is a program of the Food and Drug Administration FDA post market surveillance system for medical devices that requires healthcare facilities to report patient deaths or injuries related to a medical device?

Options:

A.

Safe Medical Devices Act SMDA

B.

Emergency Medical Treatment and Active Labor Act EMTALA

C.

Occupational Safety and Health Act of 1970 OSHA

D.

Patient Safety Organization PSO

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Questions 31

What in particular is the process chain in a laboratory subject to?

Options:

A.

Standardization only

B.

Variability across pre-analytical, analytical, and post-analytical phases

C.

Zero human factors influence

D.

Exclusively equipment failure

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Questions 32

What are the types of quality problems identified by the Institute of Medicine’s Roundtable on Health Care Quality?

Options:

A.

Misuse, overuse, and underuse

B.

Abuse, fraud, and waste

C.

Timeliness, equity, and efficiency

D.

Access, cost, and satisfaction

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Questions 33

All of the following are valid reasons for performing risk management review of policies and procedures EXCEPT

Options:

A.

ensuring consistency between practice and policy.

B.

identifying potential risk exposures.

C.

monitoring compliance with standards.

D.

maintaining staff competency.

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Questions 34

Which sentinel event type has been reported among the most frequent categories in Joint Commission-related analyses (noting year-to-year variation)?

Options:

A.

Falls (recent years show high frequency)

B.

Cafeteria food complaints

C.

Parking disputes

D.

Gift shop inventory loss

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Questions 35

Which of the following wouldnotbe considered an emergency condition for EMTALA purposes (as a general example set)?

Options:

A.

Myocardial infarction

B.

Ruptured appendix

C.

Active labor with complications

D.

Stable chronic kidney failure without acute destabilization

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Exam Code: CPHRM
Exam Name: Certified Professional in Health Care Risk Management (CPHRM)
Last Update: Mar 31, 2026
Questions: 119
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