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CSQE Certified Software Quality EngineerExam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

After test procedures have been executed and problems have been identified, the next step should be to

Options:

A.

begin updating the test cases and perform a retest

B.

release the product to the customer

C.

implement appropriate changes to the code

D.

develop plans to resolve the issues reported

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Questions 5

Which of the following roles acts as the final arbitrator for any audit-related issues that cannot be handled at a lower level?

Options:

A.

The client

B.

The auditee

C.

Lead auditor

D.

Auditee management

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Questions 6

Project success is achieved by meeting project objectives, which include which of the following?

Options:

A.

A project closure plan

B.

The critical path method

C.

Tasks that are the most difficult

D.

A project time limit

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Questions 7

Which of the following statements from a software requirements document is an example of a functional requirement?

Options:

A.

“The system must reject non-numeric input.”

B.

“The system must be 99.9% operational.”

C.

“The system’s response time must be less than three seconds.”

D.

“The system must be developed according to IEEE standards.”

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Questions 8

According to the Open Web Application Security Project (OWASP), which of the following security principles apply to developing secure software applications?

Options:

A.

Detecting intrusions with the application software and responding to attackers

B.

Depending on obscurity for secrecy of sensitive data

C.

Using layered defense or defense in depth

D.

Using complex security mechanisms for complex software

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Questions 9

Code coverage analyzers are useful for ensuring which of the following?

Options:

A.

Requirements completeness

B.

Design traceability

C.

Test case effectiveness

D.

Code cohesion

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Questions 10

Which of the following actions can a company take to reduce the risk associated with integrating a commercial off-the-shelf (COTS) spreadsheet package into its own software product?

Options:

A.

Require the vendor to adhere to the keens mg agreement for product fixes.

B.

Audit the vendor ' s quality- system.

C.

Require the vendor to place the object code into escrow.

D.

Test the product to determine whether it satisfies critical functions.

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Questions 11

When lines of code are used as a software metric, counting rules must be based on

Options:

A.

criteria established by the requirements

B.

predefined criteria

C.

a line-by-line code review

D.

module interfaces

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Questions 12

A software project requires data to be secure due to export control regulations The software project needs to be running on the client ' s virtual machines, and the client does not want to connect to the software through their enterprise VPN. Which of the following cloud ownership and service model combinations should the client use?

Options:

A.

A public cloud and software as a service

B.

A community- cloud and platform as a service

C.

A private cloud and infrastructure as a service

D.

A virtual private cloud and software as a service

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Questions 13

Which of the following testing methods is used to identify “dead code”?

Options:

A.

Black-box

B.

Simulation

C.

White-box

D.

Regression

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Questions 14

One of the objectives of a functional test is to demonstrate that the software

Options:

A.

is sufficiently free of operational problems

B.

is understood by the user

C.

interacts appropriately at the unit level

D.

processes the data in a structured manner

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Questions 15

Which of the following is the best derived requirement based upon the requirement below? " The user interface needs to be accessible to the visually impaired.

Options:

A.

The user interface has a joystick

B.

The user interface has a keyboard.

C.

The user interface has HD resolution

D.

The user interface has voice activation.

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Questions 16

The tester should complete which of the following sections of a problem report when documenting a test failure?

Options:

A.

Steps to reproduce the failure

B.

Steps to recover from the failure

C.

Root cause of the problem

D.

Problem resolution description

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Questions 17

Which of the following activities can be performed during the requirements phase?

Options:

A.

Data normalization

B.

Acceptance test planning

C.

Functional testing

D.

Reliability modeling

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Questions 18

A software maintenance release is conducted to deliver new

Options:

A.

features

B.

functionality

C.

defect corrections

D.

software products

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Questions 19

Which of the following charts is most appropriate for presenting a summary* view of a set of metrics that include an ideal value?

Options:

A.

pie

B.

Bar

C.

kiviat

D.

stoplight

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Questions 20

Which of the following metrics would be most appropriate for evaluating how effective the peer review process was for removing defects?

Options:

A.

Cycle time

B.

Defect density

C.

First-pass yield

D.

Requirements volatility

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Questions 21

Test data requirements

Options:

A.

include mechanisms for defining when, and for how long, each test data item is needed

B.

allow test data items to be reusable so that the same tests can be executed multiple times

C.

describe the data items and their characteristics and properties needed to execute the tests

D.

act as a single source of content for multiple testers to find and use existing test data items

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Questions 22

When performing top-down testing, which of the following tools is used in place of a module that is not yet developed?

Options:

A.

Stubs

B.

Driver

C.

Hamess

D.

Test script

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Questions 23

The most important reason for standardizing software development processes is to

Options:

A.

meet ISO 9001 requirements

B.

deliver quality software on schedule and within budget

C.

ensure that employees comply with established procedures

D.

ensure that new employees are trained m established procedures

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Questions 24

Which of the following goals is important when a defect tracking system is being established?

Options:

A.

Collecting as much data as possible

B.

Defining how to classify the defects

C.

Approving the test team’s validation plan

D.

Determining how to prevent defects

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Questions 25

During the design review of several sections (modules) of software, the reviewers find an unusually high number of defects After defect correction and testing, which of the following can be expected of these sections?

Options:

A.

They will be free of defects.

B.

They might need less testing than other sections

C.

They will need less test documentation than other sections.

D.

They might have additional defects.

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Questions 26

An effective team facilitator should have which of the following characteristics?

Options:

A.

Neutrality

B.

Decision-making ability

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Competitiveness

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Questions 27

Which of the following baselines starts the maintenance phase of the lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Product

B.

Allocated

C.

Functional

D.

Developmental

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Questions 28

When a defect is discovered during the test phase., what is the earliest phase in the software lifecycle that could need rework to resolve the defect?

Options:

A.

Implementation

B.

test

C.

requirements

D.

design

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Questions 29

A software quality audit plan must include which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Resource requirements

B.

Opening meeting minutes

C.

Corrective action reports

D.

Completed checklists

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Questions 30

During an audit, the lead auditor’s primary responsibility is to

Options:

A.

decide which procedures are to be audited

B.

collect data and materials presented during the audit

C.

keep the audit team focused on the audit scope

D.

develop and distribute the audit checklist

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Questions 31

Which of the following baselines defines the list of prioritized, known stories at the beginning of each iteration?

Options:

A.

Release

B.

Allocated

C.

Developmental

D.

Product backlog

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Questions 32

Which of the following best describes a process audit?

Options:

A.

The evaluation of established procedures

B.

An investigation of the quality management system

C.

The verification that product characteristics are met

D.

An internal review of the quality policy

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Questions 33

A use case is described as a technique that illustrates the

Options:

A.

internal view of the system

B.

design of the software

C.

functionality of the system

D.

steps taken by the developer

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Questions 34

During the requirements planning stage, management ' s responsibility is to

Options:

A.

provide effort estimates for implementation

B.

ensure that appropriate stakeholders are involved

C.

confirm customer requirements

D.

define the quality criteria for the project

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Questions 35

Which of the following information is considered part of the software baseline?

Options:

A.

Test logs

B.

Test plan and test cases

C.

User survey and their results

D.

Software metrics and summarized data

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Questions 36

Which of the following testing designs is used to evaluate negative testing?

Options:

A.

Fault insertion

B.

Boundary analysis

C.

Fault-error handling

D.

Cause-effect graphing

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Questions 37

What type of information should a project ' s configuration status accounting communicate?

Options:

A.

Budget updates for the project

B.

Changes to the project plan

C.

Activity on baselined items

D.

Change control board minutes

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Questions 38

The Equity Theory states that for rewards to be motivational they must be distributed

Options:

A.

as deserved

B.

based on profit

C.

at key milestones

D.

based on seniority

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Questions 39

The severity of a failure in a software operation is determined by the

Options:

A.

estimated cost to find the fault and deploy a fix

B.

impact on the customers

C.

number of customers reporting the failure

D.

amount of time the software has operated without exhibiting the failure

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Questions 40

Which of the following individuals on the Change Control Board (CCB) is responsible for escalating change requests and other issues to a higher level CCB or management?

Options:

A.

Chair

B.

Scribe

C.

Member

D.

Screener

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Questions 41

Which of the following formulas should a reviewer use to calculate defect yield for a single review?

Options:

A.

100 × defects removed before compile ÷ defects injected before compile

B.

Defects per hour in Phase 1 ÷ defects per hour in unit testing

C.

100 × compile time × test time ÷ total development time

D.

100 × design review time plus code review time ÷ total development time

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Questions 42

Which of the following tests should be conducted on software that will be used internationally?

Options:

A.

Logical path analysis

B.

Predefined function keys

C.

Boundary value analysis

D.

Test matrices

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Questions 43

A function point analysis uses counts of which of the following elements^

Options:

A.

Data definitions

B.

Physical lines

C.

Executable lines

D.

External inquiries

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Questions 44

Which of the following statements is true about a walk-through?

Options:

A.

Its objective is to correct defects

B.

It is facilitated by a manager

C.

The presenter is the developer.

D.

formal database is required.

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Questions 45

During an in-process audit of a development team, a software auditor discovers that a step is missing in the development process being used by the team. The absence of this step, which is not in the approved software development procedures and standards, has the potential for causing a product failure. Which of the following would be the most appropriate course of action for the auditor?

Options:

A.

Do not include the finding in the audit report since the step is not part of approved procedures.

B.

Immediately request that management approve an addition to the procedures so the finding can be included in the audit report.

C.

Include the finding in the audit report since part of the job of an auditor is to evaluate processes.

D.

File a finding separately from the audit report so that it will be included in the next audit of the development group.

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Questions 46

Which of the following capabilities of a configuration management system is involved with constructing a specific build of the software?

Options:

A.

Project repository

B.

Release notes

C.

Version management

D.

Issue tracking

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Questions 47

Which of the following activities would be most appropriate for mitigating the risk of releasing patches to software?

Options:

A.

Partial releases

B.

Software rebuilds

C.

Regression testing

D.

Configuration management

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Questions 48

When a product release is archived, which of the following information should be included in the archive?

Options:

A.

Defect tracking database

B.

Build environment and compilers

C.

Final version of documentation only

D.

The date the product was launched

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Questions 49

When a team is defining a software metrics program, which of the following steps must be taken first?

Options:

A.

Determine what data to collect.

B.

Collect preliminary data

C.

Establish the data collection goal.

D.

Select the metrics to report

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Questions 50

Which of the following activities indicates that an organization is committed to using customer feedback to drive business improvements?

Options:

A.

Conducts annual customer surveys

B.

Reports customer reviews to shareholders

C.

Uses a formal " voice of the customer ' program

D.

Gathers customer feedback from social media platforms

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Questions 51

Which of the following libraries would be most appropriate for a tester to use when experimenting with different test case designs?

Options:

A.

Static

B.

Backup

C.

Dynamic

D.

Controlled

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Questions 52

Concurrently developing software primarily requires more

Options:

A.

rigid version control

B.

robust change control

C.

extensive impact analysis

D.

detailed requirement tracking

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Questions 53

Which of the following examples is the most appropriate product-level attribute template for a system determined to be safety-critical software?

Options:

A.

The system shall react to < type of accident or hazardous condition > by performing < type of action! s) >

B.

The system shall < time out, log out. lock > access to < data, asset, function > after < defined time period > of inactivity

C.

< quantity > of user < error type > mistakes made by a < user type or role > per < time unit > under < defined conditions >

D.

< mean time or average time > for a < defined product or component > to experience < defined failure type > under < defined conditions >

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Questions 54

Which of the following is necessary to determine a Constructive Cost Model II estimate?

Options:

A.

Cyclomatic complexity

B.

Defect density

C.

Feature point analysis

D.

Lines of code

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Questions 55

Which of the following disadvantages are associated with the " formal meeting " technique of oral communication?

Options:

A.

Loss of non-verbal communication, no permanent record, and time consuming

B.

Loss of non-verbal communication, one way communication, and all topics may not be relevant to all team members

C.

Can degrade into time wasters, can be disruptive, and requires considerable planning and skills to achieve positive impression

D.

Can degrade into time wasters, some people feel uncomfortable offering opinions in public, and difficult for remote team members

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Questions 56

When brainstorming is used to generate ideas, the most immediate result will be

Options:

A.

an unrestricted list of items

B.

a prioritized list of items

C.

a categorized list of items

D.

a problem solution

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Questions 57

Which of the following activities results in the highest return on investment?

Options:

A.

Configuration audits

B.

System testing

C.

Formal technical reviews

D.

Unit testing

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Questions 58

Which of the following functions is the first step for effective software configuration management?

Options:

A.

Configuration control

B.

Configuration status accounting

C.

Configuration audits and reviews

D.

Configuration item identification

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Questions 59

Which of the following bar charts would be most appropriate for showing how a total breaks down into categories?

Options:

A.

Simple

B.

Stacked

C.

Grouped

D.

Horizontal

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Questions 60

When a software system will be required to manage confidential information, the security protection mechanisms for the system should be designed so that

Options:

A.

the effort to penetrate the system costs more than the value of the information obtained

B.

passwords needed for system access must be changed on an annual basis and may not be reused

C.

passwords cannot be shared in the end-user environment

D.

users who do not have administrative rights are locked out of the system during non-working hours

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Questions 61

In agile development, requirements changes are

Options:

A.

discussed and incorporated during the daily stand up

B.

implemented in the next sprint to enable rapid feature delivery

C.

added to the product backlog and prioritized by the product owner

D.

reviewed and approved by stakeholders in a configuration control board

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Questions 62

A software configuration baseline is best described as

Options:

A.

the installation of the configuration library

B.

one or more configuration items tested

C.

one or more configuration items approved

D.

one or more configuration items packaged for shipment

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Questions 63

Which of the following types of audits is most often based on customer requirements?

Options:

A.

Process

B.

Product

C.

System

D.

Quality

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Questions 64

Which of the following terms is used to describe the measure of interdependence among modules in a computer program?

Options:

A.

Coherence

B.

Concurrency

C.

Cohesion

D.

Coupling

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Questions 65

The most compelling reason for automating test execution is the need to

Options:

A.

run a standard test set often

B.

reduce test staff

C.

verify initial product releases

D.

stay current with program changes

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Questions 66

A software engineer collected the following data set during testing

12, 13, 13, 15, 18, 14, 16, 15, 12, 18, 17, 16, 16, 15, 14

The engineer then used the following class intervals to represent the data in a histogram

11.5-13.5

13.5-15.5

15.5-17.5

17.5-19.5

Which of the following statements describes these class intervals most accurately?

Options:

A.

They are appropriate.

B.

They are unrelated to the data set

C.

They fail to describe the full range of data

D.

They should be whole numbers since the data are whole numbers

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Questions 67

Which of the following is most often the focus of testing in an organization with a mature testing strategy?

Options:

A.

Complete testing to identify product defects

B.

Functional testing to prove a product is correct

C.

Testing the products throughout the development cycle

D.

Extensive strategic beta testing with a selected group of customers

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Questions 68

Which of the following aspects of information systems is disaster recovery primarily concerned with protecting?

Options:

A.

Integrity

B.

Availability

C.

Authorization

D.

Confidentiality

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Questions 69

In the archival process, retention of historical records is

Options:

A.

not required

B.

set for at least 2 years

C.

needed for all documents

D.

specified by the organization

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Questions 70

A software quality engineer (SQE > is testing software in a system used to monitor critically ill patients and administer dosages of life-sustaining medicines Tests reveal a flaw that could result in an unscheduled shutdown under certain circumstances. Ox er the SQE ' s verbal and written objections: the director of engineering decides to ship the system. The SQE knows from experience that " whistle-blowers " in the company have lost their jobs The most appropriate next step for the SQE would be to

Options:

A.

gam support from workers

B.

inform the customer

C.

discuss with top management

D.

remain silent

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Questions 71

The highest risk associated with ambiguous requirements for requirements analysts is

Options:

A.

they may be checked through twice

B.

they are not compliant with ISO 9001

C.

their reviews may take longer than planned

D.

they will build the wrong software product

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Questions 72

Which of the following tools should be used to identify the steps in the development process that are the source of the most software defects?

Options:

A.

Run chart

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Scatter diagram

D.

Control chart

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Questions 73

A development manager started implementation activities for a product deployment to more than 600 users. Just prior to the final software release, the test team discovered severe anomalies. In this situation, which of the following actions should the test leader take first?

Options:

A.

Perform a root cause analysis and develop a corrective action plan

B.

Require the code developers to resolve the anomalies immediately

C.

Notify the users directly of the anomalies

D.

Notify the development manager and recommend delaying the release

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Questions 74

Globalization requirements involve

Options:

A.

defining the required information flow across shared interfaces to external entities

B.

defining problems to be solved or opportunities to be addressed by the software product

C.

looking at the capability of the software product from the perspectives of various stakeholders

D.

developing software that can be adapted to target markets and customizing software for those markets

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Questions 75

The following graph depicts errors per 1,000 lines of code (KLOC) for modules S, T, U, and V.

The program manager should be most concerned about which module?

Options:

A.

S

B.

T

C.

U

D.

V

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Questions 76

Which of the following scenarios warrants the adoption of software configuration management tools?

Options:

A.

A project with short timelines to completion

B.

A simple project with few files and little complexity

C.

A complex project with multiple modifications and frequent change requests

D.

A project without security requirements or specified control over files and changes

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Questions 77

Under the object-oriented paradigm, the issue of software reusability is addressed mainly by which of the following constructs?

Options:

A.

Attribute

B.

Method

C.

Message

D.

Class

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Questions 78

The following chart was developed to compare defects in two projects. Which of the following conclusions can be drawn from this chart?

Options:

A.

The projects have the same defect rates.

B.

The projects have different defect profiles.

C.

More defects were removed per phase from Project 1 than Project 2.

D.

More defects were removed per phase from Project 2 than Project 1.

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Questions 79

Which of the following tests is most appropriate for efficiently determining if the software handles time zones correctly?

Options:

A.

Fault insertion

B.

Boundary value

C.

Fault-error handling

D.

Equivalence class partitioning

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Questions 80

When considering protection against data intrusion, an organization will

Options:

A.

trend the number of security breaches

B.

improve recovery time from system failures

C.

have limitations on who can access the system

D.

switch to a degraded mode of operation when encountering a breach

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Questions 81

In the following control diagram, all paths are feasible and the decisions are not correlated to each other.

How many rests are necessary for branch coverage?

Options:

A.

2

B.

4

C.

6

D.

8

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Questions 82

A software requirements specification (SRS) for software that is part of multiple systems should include which of the following elements?

Options:

A.

Training requirements

B.

System quality characteristics

C.

Physical requirements

D.

External interfaces

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Questions 83

Which of the following items is an appropriate topic to be discussed in a daily scrum meeting?

Options:

A.

A product backlog item from the current sprint and move it to future sprints

B.

An impediment one of the team member was facing yesterday

C.

The list of all product backlog items that need to be addressed in current sprint

D.

A change in the product roadmap which impacts current future releases

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Questions 84

Software configuration status accounting is the process of

Options:

A.

partitioning the software product into formally identified configuration items

B.

systematically controlling changes to software items under configuration control

C.

recording and reporting of information needed to effectively manage a software configuration

D.

providing objective assurance that the software configuration items being built match their requirements

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Exam Code: CSQE
Exam Name: Certified Software Quality EngineerExam
Last Update: Jun 28, 2026
Questions: 175
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