ISO-45001-Lead-Auditor PECB Certified OHSMS ISO 45001 Lead Auditor Exam Questions and Answers

ISO 45001 requires organizations to identify and maintain documentation to demonstrate compliance with legal and other requirements (Clause 7.5 and Clause 9.1.2). It also requires the evaluation and control of outsourced processes (Clause 8.1.4.3).

Analysis of Options:

A. The park did not have the required documentation to demonstrate compliance with legal requirements: Correct. The outdated and incomplete inspection report (8 years old, lacking detailed identification) fails to demonstrate compliance with health and safety legislation.

B. The organization did not monitor the safety checks by staff of equipment: Incorrect. While there is a potential gap in monitoring, the evidence provided does not directly indicate a lack of monitoring of staff checks.

C. The inspection organization employed by the insurance organization was not evaluated: Correct. ISO 45001 requires the organization to evaluate outsourced services, including those provided by the inspection body, to ensure their adequacy.

D. The park relied on the insurance organization to evaluate its OHS risks: Incorrect. Reliance on external evaluations may not constitute a nonconformity if risks are properly managed, but there is no evidence provided for noncompliance here.

E. Testing to determine the safe loading of equipment was not carried out: Incorrect. While load testing is crucial, there is no evidence presented to confirm this specific issue as a nonconformity.

ISO References:

Clause 7.5: Control of documented information.

Clause 8.1.4.3: Control of outsourced processes.

Clause 9.1.2: Evaluation of compliance.

The correct answers are B, E, and G .

G is true because ISO 19011 states that a closing meeting should be held to present the audit findings and conclusions . This applies to audits generally, not only third-party audits. ( Oshisis )

E is true because ISO 19011 guidance says that for some audit situations the closing meeting may be formal, but in other instances, such as internal audits, the closing meeting can be less formal and may simply consist of communicating the findings and conclusions. That means a first-party closing meeting is commonly less formal than a third-party certification closing meeting. ( Synersia Foundation )

B is also true . ISO 19011 and related guidance allow the use of remote methods / ICT in audit activities, and remote audit methods may be combined with on-site methods. From that, it follows that the audit team leader may arrange for audit team members to join activities such as the closing meeting virtually , where appropriate and controlled. This is an inference from the permitted use of ICT in audits. ( ISO )

Why the others are false:

A is false because the closing meeting is for presenting findings and conclusions, not for changing findings simply because the auditee is unhappy. Findings can be clarified, but not changed without objective evidence. ( Oshisis )

C is false because there is no rule that the audit team must meet formally immediately after the closing meeting to consider recommendations.

D is false because ISO 19011 says some closing meetings may be formal and recorded, but internal audits can be less formal, so they do not always have to be documented in that way. ( Synersia Foundation )

F is false because the audit team leader is responsible for managing the audit team and assigning roles.

H is false because the closing meeting should be chaired by the audit team leader , not by the audit client. ( Oshisis )

The correct answers are D, F, H .

ISO 19011 guidance on generating audit findings says that nonconformities can be graded depending on the context of the organization and its risks . That directly supports D , because any grading should reflect the risk the nonconformity presents to the organization. The same guidance also says this grading can be quantitative (for example 1 to 5) or qualitative (for example minor/major) , which makes F correct. Because the wording is “can be graded” , grading is optional rather than mandatory, so H is also true. ( Synersia Foundation )

Why the other options are not true:

A is not a requirement in ISO 19011. An organization may define grading rules in its audit programme or procedure, but there is no rule that grading must be agreed with the individual(s) managing the audit programme. ( ISO )

B is false. ISO 19011 does not recommend that top management grade nonconformities. Audit findings are generated by auditors based on objective evidence and audit criteria. ( ISO )

C is false. A second-party audit team does not have to adopt the auditee’s grading system. The grading approach can follow the auditing organization’s own rules and purpose for the audit. ( ISO )

E is false. Additional documented information at the closing meeting does not mean the grading must be changed. The evidence should be reviewed, but unresolved issues may simply remain recorded in the audit report. ( Synersia Foundation )

G is false. There is no requirement that extra grading categories must be agreed with the auditee before the closing meeting. The auditee should understand the findings, but the grading framework is not something ISO 19011 requires to be negotiated at that point. ( ISO )

Analysis of Each Option:

Worker participation is a fundamental principle of ISO 45001 (Clause 5.4). It ensures workers at all levels are involved in key activities to enhance the OH and S management system ' s effectiveness.

Analysis of Options:

A. Determining competence requirements: Incorrect. Determining competence is primarily the responsibility of management, though workers may provide input.

B. Establishing OHS objectives: Correct. Worker involvement ensures objectives are realistic and relevant to workplace conditions (Clause 6.2).

C. Managing internal audit programme: Incorrect. Managing audits is typically a managerial responsibility, though workers may participate in audits.

D. Determining actions to eliminate hazards: Correct. Workers’ insights are critical in identifying and implementing actions to eliminate hazards (Clause 8.1.2).

E. Determining what needs to be communicated: Incorrect. While communication strategies impact workers, their participation in determining communication needs is not explicitly required.

F. Establishing OHS policy: Correct. Workers should be involved in developing policies to ensure relevance and buy-in (Clause 5.2).

ISO References:

Clause 5.4: Worker participation.

Clause 6.2: OHS objectives.

Clause 8.1.2: Hierarchy of controls and hazard elimination.

The correct answers are A and F .

A. The auditee should review the audit plan for agreement is true because, in certification auditing practice, the audit plan is communicated to the client/auditee in advance and should be agreed regarding the practical arrangements for the audit. ISO guidance on certification auditing includes preparation of the audit plan and communication of the audit plan and audit team as part of planning audits. ( ISO )

F. The audit team leader must define the responsibilities of team members and observers is also true. ISO/IEC 17021-1 states that the audit team leader , in consultation with the audit team, shall assign to each team member responsibility for auditing specific processes, functions, sites, areas or activities . This is a direct audit-planning responsibility of the team leader. Observers are also part of the audit arrangements that must be defined and managed during planning. ( IAS )

Why the other statements are false:

B. The audit team leader should plan to interview each employee is false. Certification audits are conducted using sampling , not by interviewing every employee. Audit evidence is gathered on a representative basis. ( ISO )

C. The organisation must provide hospitality for the audit team is false. Hospitality is not a certification requirement and can raise impartiality concerns.

D. The audit team leader should audit the Occupational Health and Safety Manager is not a mandatory requirement. The audit plan must cover relevant processes, functions, activities and responsibilities, but it does not require the team leader personally to audit one named individual. ( IAS )

E. The organisation should cancel all staff leave during the audit is false. The auditee should ensure availability of relevant personnel as needed, but cancelling all leave is not an audit requirement.

Therefore, the two true statements are:

A, F

Hazard: A potential source of harm or adverse health effects.

Risk: The likelihood of harm occurring as a result of the hazard.

Danger: An immediate threat that requires urgent action.

Analysis of Options:

A. Conference room emergency sign directs people to an exit that is no longer available for use (Hazard): Correctly identified as a hazard since it poses a potential risk during emergencies.

B. The carpet on the main staircase is peeling off (Risk): This is a hazard, not a risk, as it represents a source of potential harm.

C. The emergency light in the gift shop did not work when checked (Risk): This is a hazard because it is a condition that could lead to a risk during emergencies.

D. The fire extinguishers in the Natural World area have not been serviced in the last five years (Risk): Correctly identified as a risk because the likelihood of fire-related harm increases without proper servicing.

E. The head of the dinosaur suspended over the main hall has become detached from the rest of the skeleton (Risk): This is a hazard, not a risk, as it represents a potential source of harm.

F. The non-slip mats have been removed from the restaurant (Risk): This is a hazard, not a risk.

G. There is a high possibility of unfit food being sold due to the failure of the oven temperature indicator in the visitors ' restaurant (Hazard): This is a risk because it specifies the likelihood of harm occurring (selling unfit food).

H. There is a water leak next to the electric heater in the admissions area (Danger): Correctly identified as a danger because it represents an immediate and critical threat.

ISO References:

Clause 6.1.2: Hazard identification and assessment of risks and opportunities.

ISO 45001 defines " documented information " as information required to be controlled and maintained by an organization. This can include policies, procedures, records, or other relevant data in any format (Clause 3.19). It encompasses all information used to establish, operate, and demonstrate the effectiveness of the OH and S management system.

Analysis of Options:

A. Any paperwork generated when the system is in operation: Incorrect. This is too narrow and excludes digital or other formats.

B. Any information about the system, or generated by it, held in any format: Correct. This aligns with the ISO 45001 definition in Clause 3.19.

C. Paperwork such as Permits to Work and risk assessments: Incorrect. These are examples of documented information but do not encompass the full scope of the term.

D. The master copies of the documents used to operate the system, held in any format: Incorrect. This definition is limited to master copies, while documented information includes records as well.

ISO References:

Clause 3.19: Definition of documented information.

Clause 7.5: Control of documented information.

The best answer is B .

Under ISO 45001, worker consultation and participation is required by Clause 5.4 , but the standard does not require a specific documented procedure for that clause. The organization must provide mechanisms, information, time, training, and resources for consultation and participation, but ISO 45001 does not say it must maintain a formal procedure specifically for this.

Also, ISO 45001 Clause 7.5.3 requires documented information to be controlled so that it is available and suitable for use, and adequately protected. An “obsolete” document is not automatically a nonconformity just because it exists. It may be retained for reference or historical reasons, provided the organization controls it properly and it is not being used unintentionally as current information. That is why the correct audit reaction is to note it and verify on site whether it is actually part of the current controlled documented information .

Why the other options are not the best:

A is weak because using an obsolete procedure to prepare the checklist risks relying on invalid information before confirming what the current controlled version is.

C is unnecessary as the first response. You already have enough evidence to note a potential document-control point and verify it during the audit.

D is incorrect because you should not raise a nonconformity before verifying the facts on site. An obsolete-marked document alone does not prove a breach of Clause 7.5.3. A nonconformity must be based on objective evidence gathered during the audit.

Clause 5.1 of ISO 45001:2018 requires top management to demonstrate leadership and commitment to the OH and S management system. This includes awareness of the OH and S policy and its objectives.

Analysis of Options:

A. As a member of the management team, the Deputy College Principal is not aware of the OHSMS policy: Correct. A lack of awareness of the policy reflects poor leadership commitment, which violates Clause 5.1.

B. OH and S improvement is not possible due to the lack of awareness of the OHSMS: Incorrect. While improvement may be hindered, this is not the main issue in this scenario.

C. The Deputy College Principal is not competent to manage the OHSMS: Incorrect. The Deputy’s competence to manage the OHSMS is not in question; the issue is their lack of awareness of key elements.

D. The OH and S policy only exists as a document in the College Principal’s office: Incorrect. The policy may be accessible but not effectively communicated or understood by management.

ISO References:

Clause 5.1: Leadership and commitment.

Clause 5.2: OH and S policy.

The PDCA (Plan-Do-Check-Act) cycle is a core principle of ISO 45001 and many other management systems. It does not include environmental management, as ISO 45001 focuses on Occupational Health and Safety (OH and S), while environmental aspects are covered by ISO 14001.

Analysis of Options:

A. Treatment of Risks: Correct. Risk assessment and control are part of the Plan phase.

B. OHSMS Policy: Correct. The OH and S policy is established in the Plan phase.

C. Environment Management Program: Incorrect. This is outside the scope of ISO 45001 and pertains to ISO 14001.

D. Analyzing OHSMS Performance: Correct. Performance analysis occurs in the Check phase of the PDCA cycle.

ISO Reference:

Clause 0.3: PDCA model in ISO 45001.

ISO 45001:2018 Clause 9.3.3 states that the outputs of management review shall include decisions related to:

the continued suitability, adequacy and effectiveness of the OH and S management system,

opportunities for continual improvement ,

any need for changes to the OH and S management system ,

resources needed ,

actions, if needed,

opportunities to improve integration of the OH and S management system with other business processes, and

any implications for the strategic direction of the organization.

Based on that, the six correct outputs are:

B. Procurement of new safety harnesses for workers

This is evidence of an action/resource decision arising from management review. It shows management has decided to provide resources or take action to improve OH and S performance.

D. Allocation of a bigger budget for the OHS department

This clearly matches resources needed , which is specifically listed as a management review output.

E. Plan to prioritise health and safety issues as a business strategy

This fits implications for the strategic direction of the organization , which ISO 45001 names as a management review output.

F. Decisions related to continual improvement opportunities

This is almost verbatim from Clause 9.3.3: management review outputs include decisions related to opportunities for continual improvement .

G. Improvements in the OHSMS

This reflects changes needed in the OH and S management system and resulting improvement actions. Where management review decisions lead to system improvements, those improvements are valid output evidence from the review.

J. Opportunities to integrate the OHS management system with other business processes

This is directly stated in Clause 9.3.3 as a required management review output.

Why the other four are not outputs:

A. Report showing the trend of an increase in safety incidents is an input to management review under performance information and trends, not an output.

C. Minutes of previous management reviews are also an input , because management review must consider the status of actions from previous reviews.

H. Worker feedback of positive and negative comments is an input , linked to consultation, participation, and relevant communications.

I. Updates to the risk register may result from actions elsewhere in the system, but they are not specifically identified in ISO 45001 as required management review outputs.

Therefore, the six statements that represent output audit evidence for management review are:

B, D, E, F, G, J

Clause 10.2 of ISO 45001 pertains to Nonconformity and Corrective Action . Organizations are required to evaluate incidents, investigate their causes, and implement effective corrective actions to prevent recurrence.

Issue Identified: The incidents in the five old shops are related to VOC emissions from outdated equipment, leading to staff and customer health concerns. This indicates inadequate risk management and failure to act on known safety issues.

Analysis of Options:

A. Display an emergency phone number. This is a reactive approach and does not address the root cause of the issue, i.e., VOC emissions. It also does not align with ISO 45001’s emphasis on preventive measures.

B. Evaluate and update the PPE requirements. While PPE is important, relying solely on PPE without addressing the root cause (emission of VOCs) is insufficient. PPE is considered the last line of defense under the hierarchy of controls.

C. Reassess the OH and S risks associated with the laundry process in the five old shops. This option aligns with ISO 45001, Clause 8.1.2, and Clause 10.2, as it emphasizes reassessing risks and taking steps to mitigate them. A thorough risk assessment could lead to interim measures such as process improvements or administrative controls until the equipment is replaced.

D. Review the current safety procedures. While reviewing safety procedures is useful, it does not address the specific nonconformity related to the equipment’s inability to operate safely.

Best Action: Reassessing the risks in the five shops (Option C) ensures a comprehensive review of the hazards posed by outdated equipment, leading to appropriate preventive and corrective actions.

ISO References:

Clause 10.2: Requires identifying and addressing nonconformities to prevent recurrence.

Clause 8.1.2: Emphasizes the hierarchy of controls and risk assessment as a foundation for mitigating hazards.

Analysis of Each Option:

ISO 45001:2018 requires a holistic approach to occupational health and safety. This means considering all aspects that could impact worker well-being, not just obvious physical hazards. The correct answer encompasses work activities (the tasks themselves), workplace design (the physical environment), and human factors (psychological and social aspects like working hours and harassment). It ' s the most comprehensive and aligned with the standard ' s philosophy

ISO 45001:2018, Clause 6.1.2, outlines requirements for hazard identification . Hazards to consider include work activities, workplace design, human factors, and social factors that may impact OH and S. These go beyond traditional physical risks and include psychosocial and organizational hazards.

Analysis of Options:

A. Work activities, workplace design, and human factors such as hours of work and bullying and harassment: Correct. This comprehensively addresses hazard categories outlined in ISO 45001, Clause 6.1.2.

B. Work activities where there is the possibility of danger: Too general. ISO 45001 includes broader categories of hazards, including those related to organizational and social factors.

C. Hot-work, working at height, enclosed space entry, and work on electrical equipment: Too narrow. These are specific hazards but do not encompass the full range outlined in ISO 45001.

D. Work hazards and environmental factors such as bad weather: Incomplete. While environmental factors are relevant, ISO 45001 also includes workplace design, human factors, and psychosocial hazards.

ISO References:

Clause 6.1.2.1: Hazard identification.

Annex A.6.1.2: Examples of hazard categories, including workplace design and human factors.

An audit trail for evaluating compliance with regulations should focus on the identification, communication, and monitoring of legal and other requirements. Clause 9.1.2 of ISO 45001:2018 requires organizations to evaluate compliance with applicable OH and S legal and other requirements.

Analysis of Options:

A. What is the cost of repairing the wall? Irrelevant to compliance evaluation, as cost considerations are not part of legal compliance.

B. What hazards have been identified as being associated with regulations? Correct. Identifying hazards is a critical step in understanding compliance obligations (Clause 6.1.2).

C. How are maintenance staff made aware of regulatory requirements? Correct. Communication and training are vital for compliance (Clause 7.3).

D. How are OH and S objectives verified? Not directly relevant to compliance evaluations, as objectives pertain to performance improvement.

E. How are OHSMS records of compliance evaluations controlled and managed? Correct. Proper documentation and record-keeping are essential for demonstrating compliance (Clause 7.5).

F. How are updates to OH and S regulations monitored? Correct. Monitoring regulatory changes is critical for maintaining compliance (Clause 6.1.3).

G. How is the cost of safety improvements calculated? Irrelevant to compliance, as cost analysis is not required by ISO 45001.

H. What are the qualifications of the OHS Manager and Maintenance Manager? While competence is important, this does not directly relate to compliance evaluations.

I. What input does the Maintenance Manager have in the determination of legal compliance? Correct. Understanding the roles and responsibilities of key personnel ensures effective compliance (Clause 5.3).

J. What knowledge does the OHS Manager have in relevant safety legislation? Correct. Awareness of applicable legislation is critical for effective compliance evaluation (Clause 7.2).

ISO References:

Clause 9.1.2: Evaluation of compliance.

Clause 6.1.2: Hazard identification and risk assessment.

Clause 7.5: Documented information.

This statement is True .

ISO 45001:2018 requires the organization to determine, access, and comply with its legal requirements and other requirements related to occupational health and safety. It also requires the organization to evaluate compliance with those legal and other requirements as part of performance evaluation. This is clearly addressed in Clause 6.1.3 Determination of legal requirements and other requirements and Clause 9.1.2 Evaluation of compliance . Therefore, when an audit team conducts a certification renewal assessment, it is part of the audit responsibility to verify that the organization has established, implemented, and maintained processes to meet and evaluate compliance with applicable legal OH and S requirements.

In a renewal audit, the audit team is not limited to checking documents only. It must assess whether the management system continues to be effective and whether the organization fulfills the requirements of ISO 45001, including compliance obligations relevant to worker health and safety. Since legal compliance is a core expected outcome of the OH and S management system, checking this area is an essential audit activity before certification is renewed.

So the correct answer is:

A. True

A first-party audit is an internal audit . ISO defines internal audits, or first-party audits, as audits conducted by, or on behalf of, the organization itself . That means the people participating can be the organization’s own auditors or external people acting on its behalf, such as a consultant. ( ISO )

Therefore:

A. An auditor certified by CQI and IRCA can participate in a first-party audit, provided the auditor is acting for the organization or on its behalf. Certification status does not prevent participation in an internal audit. This is consistent with the principle that first-party audits are defined by who the audit is for , not by the auditor’s credential. ( ISO )

D. An auditor from a consultant organisation can also participate, because first-party audits may be carried out on behalf of the organization by a qualified external consultant. ( ISO )

E. An auditor trained in the CQI and IRCA scheme can participate for the same reason: training route does not change the audit type; the audit remains first-party if it is conducted by or for the organization. ( ISO )

F. An auditor trained by the organisation clearly can participate, since internal audits are commonly performed by trained internal auditors from within the organization. ( ASQ )

The two that do not participate in a first-party audit are:

B. A certification body auditor

C. An auditor from an accreditation body

A certification body auditor performs a third-party audit , not a first-party audit. An accreditation body auditor/assessor evaluates certification bodies or similar conformity assessment bodies, not the organization’s own internal audit program. These are external oversight roles, not first-party audit roles. ( ISO )

So the correct answer is:

B, C

Ethical – C

Diplomatic – F

Open to improvement – B

Perceptive – E

These behaviours are standard auditor personal attributes used in lead auditor training and are aligned with audit competence guidance.

Ethical – C. Fair, truthful, sincere, honest, discreet

An ethical auditor acts with integrity. This includes honesty, truthfulness, sincerity, fairness, and discretion when handling audit evidence, findings, and confidential information. Ethical behaviour is essential because audit conclusions must be trusted and based on professional conduct.

Diplomatic – F. Tactful in dealing with individuals

A diplomatic auditor interacts with people carefully and respectfully. During audits, questions may be sensitive, findings may be difficult to communicate, and interviewees may feel pressure. Being tactful helps maintain cooperation and supports effective evidence gathering.

Open to improvement – B. Willing to learn from situations

An auditor who is open to improvement learns from audit experience, changing conditions, and new information. This behaviour supports continual development and better audit effectiveness over time.

Perceptive – E. Aware of and able to understand situations

A perceptive auditor recognizes what is happening in the audit environment and understands the significance of what is seen, heard, and observed. This helps the auditor detect inconsistencies, identify risks, and understand process realities beyond prepared answers.

Why the other options are not used here:

A. Persistent and focused on objectives describes tenacious behaviour.

D. Actively observing surroundings/activities describes observant behaviour.

So the correct matching is:

Ethical – C

Diplomatic – F

Open to improvement – B

Perceptive – E

According to ISO 45001:2018, the PDCA cycle is explained in Clause 0.4. The Act phase is defined as: taking actions to improve continually the OH and S performance in order to achieve the intended outcomes . This clearly supports C. Making improvements as a correct answer.

Option D. Resetting objectives is also appropriate because ISO 45001 requires OH and S objectives to be reviewed and updated as appropriate . After checking performance results, the organization may revise or reset objectives as part of continual improvement and corrective action. This aligns with the Act stage, where changes are made to improve system effectiveness and performance.

The remaining options belong to other PDCA phases:

A. Verifying training relates more to evaluation of competence and effectiveness, which fits checking activities.

B. Measuring objectives belongs to the Check phase because ISO 45001 says Check includes monitoring and measurement against OH and S policy and objectives.

E. Providing infrastructure belongs to the Do phase because it is part of providing resources and operational support.

F. Auditing processes belongs to the Check phase because internal audits are part of performance evaluation under Clause 9.2.

Therefore, the correct answer is:

C, D

Corrections address immediate issues, such as errors or omissions, without addressing root causes. Clause 10.2 of ISO 45001:2018 allows for corrections alongside corrective actions.

Analysis of Options:

A. Adding a missing signature to a corrective action record: Correct. This is a correction addressing an administrative oversight.

B. Changing a process to reduce its inherent risk: Incorrect. This is a corrective action aimed at addressing root causes, not a correction.

C. Changing the name of a tutor that did not deliver a course to the name of the tutor that did: Correct. This corrects an error in records without addressing systemic issues.

D. Reviewing workers’ training records: Incorrect. This is part of ongoing monitoring or auditing, not a correction.

E. Updating the emergency preparedness plan as a result of carrying out a practical test: Incorrect. This is a corrective action resulting from performance evaluation, not a correction.

F. Using OHSMS induction training to address an identified lack of OHSMS awareness among workers: Incorrect. This is a preventive or corrective action, not a correction.

ISO References:

Clause 10.2: Nonconformity and corrective action.

Clause 7.5: Control of documented information

The auditor should assess whether the organization ' s planned action (using masks in case of dust extraction failure) is both implemented and effective. This aligns with ISO 45001 requirements to ensure that control measures are functional and meet the intended objectives.

Clause 8.1.2 (Hierarchy of Controls): The use of PPE, such as masks, is considered a last resort in the hierarchy of controls. The organization must demonstrate that the measure is:

Implemented (e.g., PPE is available and workers are trained to use it).

Effective (e.g., masks provide adequate protection against dust).

Analysis of Options:

A. Advise that the factory should cease operations if the dust extraction equipment malfunctioned. While ceasing operations may be a necessary control in extreme situations, it is not a practical or realistic recommendation unless a high-risk scenario cannot be otherwise managed.

B. Ask the OHSMS Manager to confirm regulatory compliance. Regulatory compliance is important but does not fully address the requirement to ensure the action is effective.

C. Seek evidence that the response action is both implemented and effective. This is the most appropriate response. The auditor must verify implementation and effectiveness to determine conformity.

D. Suggest increasing maintenance checks. Maintenance is important for preventing equipment breakdowns, but this option does not address the immediate audit finding about the adequacy of response actions.

ISO References:

Clause 8.1.2: Emphasizes applying the hierarchy of controls effectively.

Clause 9.1.1: Requires monitoring and measuring controls to ensure effectiveness.

ISO 45001 requires the organization to adapt the work to workers as part of operational planning and control. Clause 8.1.1(d) states that the organization shall plan, implement, control and maintain the necessary processes, including adapting the work to workers . Annex A.8.1.1 then gives examples, including: redefining how work is organized , redefining processes and work environments , and using ergonomic approaches in the design or modification of workplaces and equipment .

Based on that, D. Providing those who spend the majority of their working days on their computers with frequent breaks is a valid example because it adapts the organization of work to human needs and helps reduce strain and fatigue. This matches the Annex guidance about redefining how work is organized and using ergonomic approaches.

F. Amending a control station to facilitate handicapped workers is also a clear example. ISO 45001 specifically refers to using ergonomic approaches in the design of new workplaces/equipment or in modifying workplaces/equipment . Changing a control station to suit disabled workers is exactly the kind of ergonomic and workplace adaptation the standard is referring to.

G. Amending the start and finish times of processes to accommodate cultural practices is the third valid example, because Annex A.8.1.1 includes the definition or redefinition of how work is organized . Adjusting working times to suit workers’ needs is a direct way of adapting work organization to workers.

Why the others are not the best examples:

A is about competence, which relates more to Clause 7.2 Competence , not adapting work to workers.

B is not appropriate because if workers speak different languages and there are no subtitles , the communication is not being made understandable; ISO 45001 expects information to be comprehensible and identifies language barriers as participation barriers.

C relates to worker participation and consultation, not adapting work to workers.

E is good housekeeping/welfare, but not specifically an example of adapting work to workers in the sense used by ISO 45001 Annex A.8.1.1.

H relates to planning under Clause 6.1, not adapting work to workers.

Therefore, the three actual examples of adapting work to workers are:

D, F, G