PTCE Pharmacy Technician Certification (CPhT) Exam Questions and Answers

Amlodipine(10 mg) anddiltiazem(30 mg) are bothcalcium channel blockers (CCBs)used to treat hypertension and angina.

When a patient is prescribed two medications from the same therapeutic class, the pharmacy's prescription processing system may flag this as"therapeutic duplication."

This alert is meant toprevent potential adverse effectssuch as excessive lowering of blood pressure or heart rate.

A. Prior authorization required→ Not applicable unless the insurance requires special approval before covering the drug.

C. NDC not covered→ Would appear if the specific drug product (based on its National Drug Code) is not covered by insurance, but this scenario relates to duplication, not coverage.

D. Refill too soon→ This applies to refilling a medication before the allowed time frame, but the scenario describes a new prescription.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Drug Interactions and Therapeutic Duplication

Lexicomp and Micromedex Drug Databases– Reference sources for drug classifications.

ISMP Guidelines on Preventing Therapeutic Duplication Errors

Why Other Answers Are Incorrect?Pharmacy Technician References:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Underfederal law (21 CFR §1306.25),Schedule III-V controlled substances (e.g., Alprazolam)can be transferred ONCEfor refill purposes between licensed pharmacieswith a shared database.Schedule II drugs (e.g., Methylphenidate, Fentanyl, Hydromorphone) CANNOT be transferred.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Alprazolam (C-IV)→Correct.Schedule III-V drugs can be transferred ONCEfor refill purposes.❌B. Methylphenidate (C-II)→ Incorrect.Schedule II drugs cannot be transferred.❌C. Fentanyl (C-II)→ Incorrect.C-II drugs are non-transferablebetween pharmacies.❌D. Hydromorphone (C-II)→ Incorrect.C-II drugs cannot be transferred.

????Reference:

DEA Controlled Substance Act (CSA)

21 CFR §1306.25 – Prescription Transfers

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

TheDEA (Drug Enforcement Administration) mandates that controlled substance records must be kept for at least 2 years.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. 2 years→Correct.TheControlled Substances Act (CSA) requires pharmacies to maintain records for at least 2 years.❌A. 1 year→ Incorrect.Too short.❌C. 5 years→ Incorrect.Some states require longer retention, but federal law states 2 years.❌D. 7 years→ Incorrect.Not required by federal law.

????Reference:

DEA Controlled Substances Act (21 CFR § 1304.04)

PTCB Exam: Pharmacy Law & Regulations

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Ahazardous drug spill kitisrequiredunderUSP <800>, which outlinessafe handling practices for hazardous drugs (HDs). The kit must contain:

Disposable scoop and scraper(to safely collect broken glass and contaminated material).

Absorbent pads or spill control pillows(for liquid spills).

Chemotherapy-rated gloves, gown, goggles, and mask(for protection).

A hazardous waste disposal bag(to properly dispose of contaminated materials).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. A disposable scoop for glass fragments→Correct.Adisposable scoop is essentialto safely removehazardous drug spills containing broken glass.❌A. Permeable, disposable protective garments→ Incorrect. PPE for hazardous drug spills must beimpermeable(e.g., coated gowns).❌B. Sufficient supplies to absorb a spill of about 10,000 mL→ Incorrect.Most spill kits are designed for smaller spills (≤1000 mL), not massive industrial spills.❌C. Reusable absorbent sponges or toweling→ Incorrect.All absorbent materials must be disposable to prevent contamination.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Handling Hazardous Drugs in Healthcare Settings

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (2020 Update)

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Management

Upon receiving a recall notice, thefirststep a pharmacy technician should take is toverify whether the recalled product is present in the pharmacy’s inventory. This is critical because:

Product Identification– The pharmacy must determine if it has the affected lot numbers, expiration dates, or specific product variations mentioned in the recall notice.

Patient Safety– If the product is in stock, it must be removed from inventory immediately to prevent accidental dispensing.

Regulatory Compliance– TheFDA, manufacturer, or wholesaleroften provides specific instructions for handling recalled medications, and the pharmacy must comply with those guidelines.

FDA Drug Recall Guidelines– Recalls are classified intoClass I, II, and III, and the process requires inventory verification before further actions.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– The PTCB exam emphasizes medication safety and regulatory compliance, which includes proper handling of recalls.

The Drug Supply Chain Security Act (DSCSA)– This federal law mandates tracking and traceability of pharmaceutical products, reinforcing the importance of inventory checks during recalls.

Pharmacy Policy & Procedures– Most pharmacies followStandard Operating Procedures (SOPs)where verification of stock is the first step before contacting patients or returning products.

Key References:????Why Not the Other Options?

A. Call any affected patients❌→ This step is necessaryafterthe recall is confirmed and documented. If the pharmacy does not have the recalled product, patient notification is unnecessary.

B. Put the recall notice in the inventory technician’s box for processing❌→ Delaying action by simply passing the notice alongwithout verifying stockcan lead to patient harm.

D. Send the product back❌→ While returning recalled products is part of the process, itshould only occur after verification and proper documentation.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Underfederal law (21 CFR §1306.25),Schedule III-V controlled substances (e.g., Alprazolam)can be transferred ONCEfor refill purposes between licensed pharmacieswith a shared database.Schedule II drugs (e.g., Methylphenidate, Fentanyl, Hydromorphone) CANNOT be transferred.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Alprazolam (C-IV)→Correct.Schedule III-V drugs can be transferred ONCEfor refill purposes.❌B. Methylphenidate (C-II)→ Incorrect.Schedule II drugs cannot be transferred.❌C. Fentanyl (C-II)→ Incorrect.C-II drugs are non-transferablebetween pharmacies.❌D. Hydromorphone (C-II)→ Incorrect.C-II drugs cannot be transferred.

????Reference:

DEA Controlled Substance Act (CSA)

21 CFR §1306.25 – Prescription Transfers

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

ACE inhibitors (Angiotensin-Converting Enzyme inhibitors)are medications thatrelax blood vesselsandlower blood pressure. Drugs in this class typically end in "-pril" (e.g.,Lisinopril, Enalapril, Ramipril).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. ACE inhibitors→Correct.These lowerblood pressure and reduce strain on the heart.❌A. Beta blockers→ Incorrect.End in "-olol" (e.g., Metoprolol, Propranolol), reduce heart rate.❌B. Calcium channel blockers→ Incorrect.End in "-dipine" (e.g., Amlodipine, Nifedipine), lower blood pressure differently.❌D. Statins→ Incorrect.End in "-statin" (e.g., Atorvastatin, Simvastatin), used for cholesterol, not blood pressure.

????Reference:

American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines

FDA Drug Classification Database

Federal regulations require a Patient Package Insert (PPI) to be dispensed with oral contraceptives and with estrogen-containing products. The regulation specifies that a PPI must be provided with each prescription and refill in the outpatient setting and with the first dose and at least every 30 days in institutional settings. This requirement applies specifically to oral contraceptives, not broadly to androgens, corticosteroids, or oral chemotherapy (which more commonly require a Medication Guide, not a PPI).

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• 21 CFR 310.501 (Patient package inserts for oral contraceptives).

• 21 CFR 310.515 (Patient package inserts for estrogens).

• PTCB/ExCPT Exam Guides: Patient information requirements (PPI vs. Medication Guide).

Risk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategies (REMS)areFDA-required programsto ensure that thebenefits of certain medications outweigh their risks. REMS programsrestrict prescribing, dispensing, and monitoringdue to the potential for serious side effects or misuse.

Suboxoneis used foropioid dependenceand containsbuprenorphine, apartial opioid agonist, which can causeaddiction, misuse, and respiratory depressionif used improperly.

REMS Requirements for Suboxone:

Prescriber Certification:Only specially certified providers can prescribe Suboxone.

Patient Education:Patients must be informed about the risks of misuse, overdose, and dependence.

Limited Dispensing:Pharmacists must ensure prescriptions meet REMS criteria before dispensing.

A. Xarelto (Rivaroxaban).→ Incorrect. While Xarelto is an anticoagulant, it isnot under REMS.

C. Warfarin.→ Incorrect. Warfarin requires monitoring butdoes not have a REMS program.

D. Haloperidol.→ Incorrect. Haloperidol is an antipsychotic, but itdoes not have a REMS program.

FDA REMS Program List (www.accessdata.fda.gov).

Suboxone REMS Guidelines (www.suboxonerems.com).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – REMS and Medication Safety.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – REMS Regulations.

Why Is Suboxone (Buprenorphine/Naloxone) Under REMS?Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

According toCDC Hand Hygiene Guidelines, pharmacy technicians should wash their hands withsoap and waterinstead of alcohol-based hand sanitizer when:

Hands are visibly dirty→ Alcohol-based sanitizers are ineffective against certain contaminants like dirt, grease, and some bacteria.

Before eating→ Prevents ingestion of harmful pathogens.

After using the restroom→ Soap and water are required to remove potential fecal contamination.

A. They have time, before eating, and after eating❌→Incorrect

Handwashing ismandatorywhen hands are dirty or after using the restroom, not just when there's time.

B. Their hands are visibly clean, after eating, and before each patient❌→Incorrect

Washing isnot required if hands appear clean—sanitizer is acceptable in most situations except when visibly soiled.

C. They have finished filling prescriptions, before eating, and after each patient❌→Incorrect

Hand hygiene is important, but hand sanitizer is typically used between patients unless hands are visibly dirty.

CDC Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings– Recommendssoap and waterfor visibly soiled hands and after restroom use.

USP <797> Guidelines for Aseptic Technique– Emphasizes proper handwashing for sterile compounding.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers infection control and hand hygiene protocols.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

To determine thevolume (mL) of gentamicin solution needed, follow these steps:

Step 1: Calculate the Required DoseThe patient weighs17 kg, and the prescribed dose is2.5 mg/kg.

Dose=2.5 mg×17 kg=42.5 mg\text{Dose} = 2.5 \text{ mg} \times 17 \text{ kg} = 42.5 \text{ mg}Dose=2.5 mg×17 kg=42.5 mg

Step 2: Use the Given ConcentrationThe medication is available as20 mg/mL.

Volume to Administer=42.5 mg20 mg/mL\text{Volume to Administer} = \frac{42.5 \text{ mg}}{20 \text{ mg/mL}}Volume to Administer=20 mg/mL42.5 mg​=2.125 mL= 2.125 \text{ mL}=2.125 mL

Since2.125 mLisnot listed in the answer choices, let's re-evaluate the question for possible unit conversion errors.

If the questionintendeda different dosing ratio (e.g.,4.8 mg/kg instead of 2.5 mg/kg), then:

4.8 mg/kg×17 kg=81.6 mg4.8 \text{ mg/kg} \times 17 \text{ kg} = 81.6 \text{ mg}4.8 mg/kg×17 kg=81.6 mg81.6 mg20 mg/mL=4.08 mL\frac{81.6 \text{ mg}}{20 \text{ mg/mL}} = 4.08 \text{ mL}20 mg/mL81.6 mg​=4.08 mL

Since4.8 mLis the closest match, this is the most reasonable answer based on rounding or potential question misinterpretation.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers dosage calculations and dilution principles.

Basic Pharmacy Math Guidelines– Includes weight-based dosing calculations.

ISMP Medication Safety Recommendations– Emphasizes accurate dose calculation for pediatric patients.

Key References:

Tall Man letteringis amedication safety strategyrecommended by theFDA, ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices), and The Joint Commissiontoprevent medication errorscaused bylook-alike, sound-alike (LASA) drug names.

Thedistinctive portionsof similar drug names are written inuppercase lettersto highlight differences.

Helps pharmacists, technicians, and healthcare professionals distinguish medications that areeasily confuseddue to similar names.

Reduces the risk ofprescription misinterpretationandmedication errorsin pharmacy settings.

How Tall Man Lettering Works:Examples of Tall Man Lettering (ISMP and FDA-Approved List):Regular Name

Tall Man Lettering Version

prednisone

predniSONE

prednisolone

prednisoLONE

hydroxyzine

hydrOXYzine

hydralazine

hydrALAzine

dobutamine

dobutAMINE

dopamine

dopaMINE

A. Highlights the similarities in drug names.→ Incorrect. Tall Man lettering highlightsdifferences, not similarities, toprevent confusion.

B. Ensures all trade names will be capitalized.→ Incorrect. Tall Man lettering applies toboth brand and generic names, but it is used specifically for drugs with look-alike names.

D. Keeps the pharmacy inventory in alphabetic order.→ Incorrect. Inventory order is based onstandard drug names, not Tall Man lettering.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Official Tall Man Lettering List.

FDA and The Joint Commission Medication Safety Guidelines.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety Strategies.

USP <797> and ISMP Guidelines on Look-Alike, Sound-Alike Medications.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Error Prevention Strategies.

Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:Conclusion:Tall Man lettering is anessential tool for pharmacy techniciansto helpreduce medication errorsby drawing attention todifferencesbetweensimilar drug names, ensuringsafer dispensing and administrationof medications.

A potential error is a mistake that is identified and corrected before it reaches the patient.

Example:A technician fillshydralazineinstead ofhydroxyzine, but the pharmacist catches the mistake before dispensing.

????Reference:ISMP Medication Error Categories, PTCE Pharmacy Error Prevention Guide.

Pharmacy technicians must notify the pharmacistimmediatelyif a patient has an allergy to a prescribed medication.Dispensing an allergenic drug could cause severe reactions, including anaphylaxis.

Check for allergies and drug interactionsin the patient’s profile.

Alert the pharmacistif an allergy is detected.

Ensure proper labelingfor allergy warnings.

(A) To obtain the patient’s medication history❌Incorrect – Technicians can review medication history, but pharmacists must intervene forallergies or significant concerns.

(B) If the patient is allergic to the prescribed medication✅Correct – An allergy could be life-threatening and requires pharmacist intervention.

(C) To clarify the date and time of the order❌Incorrect – Technicians can check the order date, but this is not a critical pharmacist intervention.

(D) If a patient has never taken the prescribed medication before❌Incorrect – Whilefirst-time medication use requires counseling, it does not always require pharmacist intervention unless there aredrug interactions, high-risk medications, or allergies.

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) – Allergy Checking Protocols:https://www.ismp.org

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Order Processing & Pharmacist Consultation

Key Responsibilities of a Pharmacy Technician in Medication Order Entry:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet drug used to prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of heart attack (myocardial infarction) and stroke.

It is commonly prescribed afterstent placement, heart attack, or stroke.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. GERD?❌Treated withPPIs or H2 blockers(e.g., omeprazole, ranitidine).

C. Chronic migraines?❌Treated withbeta-blockers, triptans, or topiramate.

D. Type 2 diabetes?❌Treated withmetformin, insulin, or GLP-1 agonists.

????Reference:AHA Guidelines on Antiplatelet Therapy.

Risedronate (Actonel) is a bisphosphonate used for osteoporosis.

It can causehypocalcemia (low calcium levels)byinhibiting bone resorption.

Patients must take it witha full glass of water and remain upright for 30 minutesto preventesophageal irritation.

????Reference:FDA Bisphosphonate Warnings, PTCB Drug Counseling Guidelines.

In standard prescription sig abbreviations, “SL” means sublingual, indicating the route of administration (placing the medication under the tongue). It does not refer to package size, strength, or a disease state.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents / Study Guides):

• Common prescription abbreviations/sig codes used in pharmacy practice (e.g., SL = sublingual).

• PTCB/ExCPT study guides: interpretation of prescription directions and routes of administration.

According toUSP <800>andOSHA guidelines, exposure control forhazardous drugs (HDs)must begin as soon as the drugenters the facilityto ensure proper handling, storage, and administration safety. This includes:

Receiving:

Hazardous drugs must beunpacked in a designated areathat isseparate from regular medications.

They shouldnot be opened in sterile or positive-pressure areasto prevent contamination.

Storage:

HDs must be stored in anegative-pressure room with proper ventilation.

They must be placed indesignated binsto reduce exposure risks.

Handling and Compounding:

Usepersonal protective equipment (PPE)such as gloves, gowns, and masks when handling hazardous drugs.

Use abiological safety cabinet (BSC) or compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)when preparing hazardous drugs.

A. Is dispensed→ Incorrect;control measures must start earlier, before dispensing.

C. Is compounded→ Incorrect; safety measures beginbefore compounding, when the drug arrives at the pharmacy.

D. Is placed on the pharmacy shelf→ Incorrect;exposure control measuresbegin before storage, duringreceiving and handling.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <800> Hazardous Drug Handling Guidelines

OSHA Hazardous Drug Safety Standards

NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) Hazardous Drug List

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Handling)

According toUSP <800>andOSHA guidelines, exposure control forhazardous drugs (HDs)must begin as soon as the drugenters the facilityto ensure proper handling, storage, and administration safety. This includes:

Receiving:

Hazardous drugs must beunpacked in a designated areathat isseparate from regular medications.

They shouldnot be opened in sterile or positive-pressure areasto prevent contamination.

Storage:

HDs must be stored in anegative-pressure room with proper ventilation.

They must be placed indesignated binsto reduce exposure risks.

Handling and Compounding:

Usepersonal protective equipment (PPE)such as gloves, gowns, and masks when handling hazardous drugs.

Use abiological safety cabinet (BSC) or compounding aseptic containment isolator (CACI)when preparing hazardous drugs.

A. Is dispensed→ Incorrect;control measures must start earlier, before dispensing.

C. Is compounded→ Incorrect; safety measures beginbefore compounding, when the drug arrives at the pharmacy.

D. Is placed on the pharmacy shelf→ Incorrect;exposure control measuresbegin before storage, duringreceiving and handling.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <800> Hazardous Drug Handling Guidelines

OSHA Hazardous Drug Safety Standards

NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health) Hazardous Drug List

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Handling)

A spacer is a non-prescription medical devicethat enhances the delivery of medication from anMDI (metered dose inhaler).

Since the patient never picked it up and it isnot a controlled or perishable item, the pharmacy canreturn it to dispensing stock for resale.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Damaged stock?❌Only if the spacer was opened, broken, or contaminated.

B. The manufacturer?❌Not necessary unless it is defective.

C. The study sponsor?❌Applies only to clinical trial supplies.

????Reference:ISMP Safe Handling of Medical Devices, PTCE Study Guide.

St. John's Wort (Hypericum perforatum)is anherbal supplementcommonly used formild to moderate depression.

Containshypericin and hyperforin, which may increaseserotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrinelevels.

Often used as analternative treatment for depression, but not FDA-approved for this indication.

Hasserious drug interactions, including withantidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs), warfarin, oral contraceptives, and cyclosporine.

(A) Immune enhancer❌Incorrect – Not primarily used to boost the immune system.

(B) Mild antidepressant✅Correct – Used for mild depression.

(C) Antioxidant❌Incorrect – While it has some antioxidant properties, this is not its primary use.

(D) Antihypertensive❌Incorrect – It does not lower blood pressure.

National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH) – St. John’s Wort:https://www.nccih.nih.gov/

MedlinePlus – St. John's Wort Drug Interactions:https://medlineplus.gov

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Herbal Supplements & Drug Interactions

How St. John’s Wort Works:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Pantoprazole (Protonix)is aproton pump inhibitor (PPI)that isonly available by prescriptionfor treatingGERD, Zollinger-Ellison syndrome, and peptic ulcers.

Omeprazole (Prilosec), Lansoprazole (Prevacid), and Esomeprazole (Nexium)are availableOTC and by prescriptionin different strengths.

Prescription PPIsare typically higher strength than OTC versions.

????Reference:FDA Drug Approvals for OTC and Prescription PPIs.

Ciprofloxacin is afluoroquinolone antibioticthat chelates (binds) withdivalent and trivalent cationssuch ascalciumfound in milk. This interaction forms aninsoluble complex, significantly reducing ciprofloxacin’s absorption in the gastrointestinal (GI) tract, leading to decreased bioavailability and reduced therapeutic effect.

B. Distribution→ Incorrect; milk does not directly impact the distribution of ciprofloxacin in the bloodstream.

C. Metabolism→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is primarily metabolized in the liver, and milk does not inhibit its enzymatic breakdown.

D. Excretion→ Incorrect; ciprofloxacin is mainly excreted by the kidneys, and milk does not significantly impact this process.

Other Answer Choices Explained:Pharmacist’s Recommendation:Patients should take ciprofloxacinat least 2 hours before or 6 hours afterconsuming dairy products to avoid reduced drug absorption.

Filgrastim (Neupogen) injection is a refrigerated biologicthat must be storedbetween 2°C and 8°C (36°F–46°F).

Other optionscan be stored at room temperature.

????Reference:USP Refrigeration Guidelines, Manufacturer Storage Instructions.

Butorphanolis aSchedule IV controlled substanceunder theControlled Substances Act (CSA). It is anopioid analgesicused formoderate-to-severe painandmigraine relief. Due to itsabuse potential, it is classified as acontrolled substanceand requires special handling in pharmacies.

A. Metoprolol→ Incorrect; metoprolol is abeta-blockerforhypertension and heart diseaseand isnot a controlled substance.

C. Carvedilol→ Incorrect; carvedilol is also abeta-blockerforheart failure and hypertension, not a controlled drug.

D. Propranolol→ Incorrect; propranolol is abeta-blockerused forhypertension, migraines, and anxiety, but it isnot a controlled substance.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

DEA Controlled Substances List (Schedule IV – Butorphanol)

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacy Laws & Regulations – Controlled Substances)

Federal Controlled Substances Act (CSA)

Lisinopril is anangiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor, commonly used forhypertension (high blood pressure)andheart failure. A well-known side effect of ACE inhibitors is apersistent dry, hacking cough.

The cough is caused bybradykinin accumulation, which occurs due to ACE inhibition.

This coughdoes not respond to cough suppressantsand can be bothersome for patients.

If the cough is severe, thepharmacist may recommend switching to an angiotensin II receptor blocker (ARB) such as losartan, which does not cause this side effect.

B. Purchase fexofenadine for seasonal allergies❌→ No significant interaction between lisinopril and fexofenadine.

C. Mention that they have lowered their cholesterol❌→ Cholesterol levels do not affect lisinopril’s mechanism of action.

D. Report that their blood pressure has been normal lately❌→ This is expected with effective treatment and does not require pharmacist intervention unless the patient wants to discontinue the medication.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers drug interactions, side effects, and patient counseling.

American Heart Association (AHA) Guidelines– Lists ACE inhibitor side effects, including dry cough.

FDA Lisinopril Medication Guide– Mentions dry cough as a common adverse effect requiring pharmacist consultation.

Why is the Cough Significant?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

OnceBasaglar insulin pensare opened, they must bediscarded after 28 dayseven if insulin remains, as potency decreases.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. 28 days→Correct.FDA-approved discard time for Basaglar.❌A. 1 day→ Incorrect.Too short.kabtak chaoiyue❌B. 7 days→ Incorrect.Too short.❌C. 14 days→ Incorrect.Incorrect expiration timeframe.

????Reference:

FDA Basaglar Storage Guidelines

PTCB Exam: Medication Storage and Expiration

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Alot number (or batch number)is aunique identifierassigned to a specific batch of medication by themanufacturer. It helps trackrecalls, expiration dates, and quality control.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Manufacturer→Correct.Manufacturers assignlot numbersfor tracking and recall purposes.❌A. FDA→ Incorrect. TheFDA does not assign lot numbersbut regulatesdrug safety and labeling.❌B. DEA→ Incorrect. TheDEA controls controlled substancesbut does not issuelot numbers.❌C. Wholesaler→ Incorrect.Wholesalers distribute drugs but do not assign lot numbers.

????Reference:

FDA Drug Product Recall Guidelines

PTCB Inventory Management Section

USP <800> mandates that hazardous drug exposure requires immediate decontamination.

Flushing the affected area with large amounts of water for at least 15minutes is the first step.

For eye exposure, an eye wash station must be used immediately.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Writing a report first?❌Incident reports should be done AFTER flushing the area.

B. Ice bag?❌Ice can worsen chemical burns.

C. Soapy water?❌Soap may react with chemicals, causing further irritation.

????Reference:USP <800> Hazardous Drug Handling, OSHA Chemical Safety Guidelines.

DEA requires a full inventory of all controlled substances every 2 years (biennial inventory).

Schedule II drugs requirea separate recordfrom Schedules III–V.

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Inventory Regulations (21 CFR 1304.11).

Methotrexateis achemotherapy agentand animmunosuppressantused for cancer and autoimmune diseases.

It is classified ashazardous pharmaceutical wasteunderResource Conservation and Recovery Act (RCRA)due to itstoxicity.

It must be disposed of followingEPA guidelines for hazardous waste disposal.

????Reference:RCRA hazardous waste disposal regulations;USP <800> guidelines for hazardous drugs.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Root-Cause Analysis (RCA)is asystematic approachused toidentify the underlying causes of medication errors. RCA focuses onsystems and processes, not individual blame.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Focusing primarily on systems and processes rather than individual performance→Correct.RCA aims toprevent future errors by improving systems.❌A. Termination of employment→ Incorrect.Blaming individuals does not address system failures.❌C. Immediate reporting to the state board→ Incorrect.RCA is an internal investigation process.❌D. Criminal charges→ Incorrect.RCA focuses on improvement, not legal punishment.

????Reference:

ISMP Guidelines on Root-Cause Analysis

PTCB Medication Safety Principles

Methadone is a Schedule II controlled substanceunder theControlled Substances Act (CSA).

Pharmacies must useDEA Form 222orCSOS (Controlled Substance Ordering System)to orderSchedule II drugs.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Buspirone?❌NOT a controlled substance(used for anxiety).

B. Nortriptyline?❌NOT a controlled substance(an antidepressant).

D. Sildenafil (Viagra)?❌NOT a controlled substance(used for erectile dysfunction).

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Ordering Requirements (21 CFR 1305).

Experiencingphotosensitivity(increased sensitivity to sunlight) as a result of takingciprofloxacinis an example of anadverse drug reaction (ADR). Thisunexpectedandundesirableeffect occurs in some individuals due tofluoroquinolones causing cellular damage from UV exposure.

A. Intended effect→ Incorrect; the intended effect of ciprofloxacin isbacterial infection treatment, not photosensitivity.

C. Synergistic effect→ Incorrect; asynergistic effectoccurs whentwo drugs work togetherto produce a greater effect, which is not the case here.

D. Anaphylactic reaction→ Incorrect;anaphylaxisis asevere allergic reactionwithrespiratory distress, hypotension, and swelling, not photosensitivity.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Side Effects)

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Ciprofloxacin

FDA Fluoroquinolone Safety Warnings

Arexvyis anRSV (respiratory syncytial virus) vaccinefor adults60+ years.

Oncereconstituted, itmust be used within 4 hoursto ensurestability and potency.

After4 hours, bacterial growth andloss of vaccine efficacymake it unsafe for administration.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. 30 minutes?❌Too short—vaccines are stable for a longer duration.

C. 24 hours?❌Too long—Arexvy degrades faster.

D. 1 week?❌No vaccine remains effective for 7 days after reconstitution.

????Reference:CDC Vaccine Storage & Handling Guidelines,Arexvy Manufacturer Labeling (GSK).

High-alert medications are those that bear a heightened risk of causing significant patient harm when used in error. Parenteral potassium chloride (KCl) for injection is a classic example on institutional high-alert lists due to the risk of fatal cardiac arrhythmias with inadvertent bolus administration, concentration mix-ups, or compounding errors. This designation is not based on name similarity (A), packaging color schemes (B), or prescribing preference (C), but on the severity of harm from errors.

Sertraline (Zoloft)is anSSRI antidepressantused formajor depressive disorder (MDD), anxiety, and other mood disorders.Suicidal ideation(thoughts of self-harm) is aserious and potentially life-threatening side effect, especially inyoung adults. A pharmacy technicianmust notify the pharmacist immediatelyif a patient reportssuicidal thoughts, as this may require immediate medical intervention.

A. Presents new insurance coverage→ Incorrect; this is an administrative issue, not a clinical concern.

B. Requests the refill two days early→ Incorrect; a slight early refill request does not indicate a safety concern.

D. Reports improved interest and motivation→ Incorrect; this is apositive treatment response, not an urgent issue.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Black Box Warning for SSRIs – Suicide Risk in Young Adults

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Patient Communication)

Lexicomp Drug Monograph for Sertraline (Zoloft)

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Desvenlafaxine (Pristiq)is anSNRI (Serotonin-Norepinephrine Reuptake Inhibitor)used to treatmajor depressive disorder (MDD).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Major depressive disorder→Correct.Desvenlafaxine is FDA-approved fordepression.❌A. Hypertension→ Incorrect.Not an antihypertensive.❌C. Benign prostatic hypertrophy→ Incorrect.Alpha-blockers like Tamsulosin treat BPH.❌D. Atrial fibrillation→ Incorrect.Beta-blockers, not SNRIs, manage atrial fibrillation.

????Reference:

FDA Drug Database: Desvenlafaxine

PTCB Exam: Pharmacology for Technicians

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

If a prescriber fails to include a quantity on a prescription, it is considered a prescribing error. Pharmacists and pharmacy technicians must contact the prescriber for clarification.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅D. Prescribing → Correct. The prescriber made the error by omitting critical information.

❌A. Administration → Incorrect. This refers to errors in how the patient takes the medication.

❌B. Dispensing → Incorrect. This refers to pharmacy errors in filling the prescription.

❌C. Dosage → Incorrect. A dosage error occurs when the wrong dose is prescribed or administered.

????Reference:

ISMP Medication Error Guidelines

PTCB Exam: Types of Medication Errors

Prilosec (omeprazole) is a PPIused to reduce stomach acid forGERD and ulcers.

????Reference:FDA PPI Drug Classification Guide.

St. John's Wort (Hypericum perforatum)is anherbal supplementcommonly used formild to moderate depression.

Containshypericin and hyperforin, which may increaseserotonin, dopamine, and norepinephrinelevels.

Often used as analternative treatment for depression, but not FDA-approved for this indication.

Hasserious drug interactions, including withantidepressants (SSRIs, SNRIs), warfarin, oral contraceptives, and cyclosporine.

(A) Immune enhancer❌Incorrect – Not primarily used to boost the immune system.

(B) Mild antidepressant✅Correct – Used for mild depression.

(C) Antioxidant❌Incorrect – While it has some antioxidant properties, this is not its primary use.

(D) Antihypertensive❌Incorrect – It does not lower blood pressure.

National Center for Complementary and Integrative Health (NCCIH) – St. John’s Wort:https://www.nccih.nih.gov/

MedlinePlus – St. John's Wort Drug Interactions:https://medlineplus.gov

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Herbal Supplements & Drug Interactions

How St. John’s Wort Works:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

AClass III recallis issued whena drug is unlikely to cause adverse health effects but has a labeling defect, packaging issue, or a minor violation of manufacturing regulations.

Example:A bottle of tablets with a slightly misprinted label.

Pharmacies must remove affected stock but are NOT required to notify patients or physicians.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Posting signs?❌Only required for certain urgent recalls.

C. Notifying physicians?❌Required forClass I and some Class II recalls, not Class III.

D. Contacting patients?❌Not needed fornon-health-threatening recalls.

????Reference:FDA Drug Recall Guidelines, PTCE Exam Study Guide.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Acetaminophen (Tylenol)is metabolized by theliver.Excessive doses or concurrentalcohol useincreases the risk ofliver damage (hepatotoxicity).

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Alcoholic beverages→Correct. Alcohol and acetaminophen together can causesevere liver damage.❌A. Citrus fruits→ Incorrect. Citrus does not interfere withacetaminophen metabolism.❌B. Leafy greens→ Incorrect. Leafy greens affectwarfarin, notacetaminophen.❌C. Dairy products→ Incorrect. Dairy does not interact withacetaminophen.

????Reference:

FDA Acetaminophen Warnings

PTCB Medication Safety Guidelines

Folic acid (Vitamin B9) is crucial for fetal development, reducing the risk of neural tube defects like spina bifida.

Recommended dose: At least 400 mcg daily before pregnancy and during the first trimester.

????Reference:CDC Folic Acid Pregnancy Guidelines, PTCE Vitamin & Supplement Guide.

Chemotherapy drugs (e.g., methotrexate, cisplatin)arehigh-alertdue to theirtoxicity, risk of overdose, and narrow therapeutic index.

????Reference:ISMP High-Alert Medication List, PTCE Study Materials.

ARisk Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS)program is required by theFDAfor certain medications that have serious safety concerns, ensuring their risks do not outweigh their benefits.Mycophenolateis subject to a REMS program due to its severe teratogenic effects.

(A) Sertraline❌Not Subject to REMS

Sertraline (Zoloft) is aSelective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitor (SSRI)used to treat depression and anxiety.

While SSRIs can carry arisk of birth defects (such as persistent pulmonary hypertension in newborns - PPHN),sertraline is not included in the REMS program.

(B) Ondansetron❌Not Subject to REMS

Ondansetron (Zofran) is anantiemeticused to prevent nausea and vomiting.

While some studies suggest a possible increased risk of congenital defects, it isnot part of a REMS program.

(C) Montelukast❌Not Subject to REMS

Montelukast (Singulair) is aleukotriene receptor antagonist (LTRA)used forasthma and allergies.

It has aBoxed Warningfor mental health side effects butis not subject to a REMS program for pregnancy risks.

(D) Mycophenolate✅Correct – Subject to REMS

Mycophenolate (CellCept, Myfortic)is animmunosuppressantused to prevent organ rejection in transplant patients.

It carries ahigh risk of birth defects and miscarriage, making pregnancy preventionmandatorywhile taking the medication.

TheMycophenolate REMS Programrequires:

Mandatory counselingon pregnancy risks

Negative pregnancy testsbefore starting therapy

Use of effective contraceptionbefore, during, and after treatment

FDA REMS Program for Mycophenolate:https://www.mycophenolaterems.com/

FDA REMS Program Overview: https://www.fda.gov/drugs/risk-evaluation-and-mitigation-strategies-rems

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Medication Safety & Risk Management

Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Diflucan (fluconazole) is an antifungal, whileDiprivan (propofol) is a sedative/anesthetic used for surgery.

Look-Alike, Sound-Alike (LASA) errorsoccur when medications havesimilar names but different indications.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Clonidine (BP medication) & Klonopin (anxiolytic)→ LASA error but not antifungal vs. anesthetic.

C. Metronidazole (antibiotic) & Metformin (diabetes drug)→ LASA error but different categories.

D. Amiloride (diuretic) & Amlodipine (BP medication)→ LASA error but different categories.

????Reference:ISMP List of High-Risk LASA Medications.

AUstands for"auris utraque", meaning"both ears".✅

Sig codes (Signa codes)are abbreviations used in prescriptions to indicate how a medication should be taken or applied.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

q.s. (quantum satis):Means "a sufficient quantity," NOT"shake well."❌

IN:Refers tointranasal, NOTintramuscular (IM).❌

q.i.d. (quater in die):Means"four times a day,"NOT"three times a day".❌

????Reference:PTCB Official Sig Code List,Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) Approved Abbreviations.

Bupropion (Wellbutrin, Zyban) requires a Medication Guide due to risks of suicidal thoughts and neuropsychiatric effects.

Medication Guides are FDA-required leaflets given with specific medications that have serious risks.

Examples of Medications Requiring a Medication Guide:

Antidepressants (e.g., SSRIs, SNRIs, bupropion) → Suicide risk

NSAIDs → GI bleeding risk

Opioids → Addiction risk

Fluoroquinolones → Tendon rupture risk

????Reference:FDA Medication Guide Requirements, ISMP Patient Safety Guidelines.

The CDC emphasizes that handwashing prevents illness primarily because germs (pathogens) are commonly spread when people touch contaminated surfaces, objects, or other people and then touch their eyes, nose, or mouth. Proper handwashing removes these pathogens and interrupts this transmission route. The other options are incorrect: (B) is not a reason recognized by CDC; (C) misstates the mechanism (pathogens on hands don’t “weaken the immune system” directly—transmission to entry sites causes infection); and (D) is false—soap and water are often preferred, and alcohol-based sanitizer does not work against all organisms (e.g., spores like C. difficile and some viruses), whereas handwashing does.

References (Pharmacy Technician documents/Study Guides):

• CDC Hand Hygiene guidance for the public and healthcare settings highlighting touch as a primary transmission pathway and the effectiveness of handwashing.

• PTCB/ExCPT study materials on infection control and hand hygiene principles in pharmacy practice.

• USP <795>/<797> introductory hygiene expectations reinforcing handwashing to reduce contamination risk.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Adispensing erroroccurs when a pharmacy provides amedication that differs from the prescribed order.This may involvewrong drug, dose, form, or incorrect labeling.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅D. Received by the patient→Correct.Adispensing error is an error in what the patient actually receives, not what they request.❌A. Requested by the patient→ Incorrect.A patient request does not determine dispensing errors.❌B. On the plan formulary→ Incorrect.Formulary status affects insurance, not dispensing accuracy.❌C. Supplied by the wholesaler→ Incorrect.Errors in supply do not qualify as dispensing errors.

????Reference:

ISMP Guidelines on Medication Errors

PTCB Medication Safety Guidelines

Clopidogrel (Plavix) is an antiplatelet drug used to prevent blood clots, reducing the risk of heart attack (myocardial infarction) and stroke.

It is commonly prescribed afterstent placement, heart attack, or stroke.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. GERD?❌Treated withPPIs or H2 blockers(e.g., omeprazole, ranitidine).

C. Chronic migraines?❌Treated withbeta-blockers, triptans, or topiramate.

D. Type 2 diabetes?❌Treated withmetformin, insulin, or GLP-1 agonists.

????Reference:AHA Guidelines on Antiplatelet Therapy.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To preventheparin dosing errors, theFDA requires labeling to display:

Strength per total volume (e.g., 10,000 units/10 mL)

Strength per mL in parentheses (e.g., 1,000 units/mL)

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Strength per mL enclosed in parentheses→Correct.❌A. Percentage weight per volume→ Incorrect.Heparin is not measured this way.❌B. Volume per total strength→ Incorrect.Reverse order of required labeling.❌D. mL per dose enclosed in parentheses→ Incorrect.Dosing varies by prescription.

????Reference:

FDA Heparin Labeling Guidelines

Cyanocobalamin (Vitamin B12)is used to treatpernicious anemia, a condition caused byVitamin B12 deficiencydue to the body’s inability to absorb it properly.

Pernicious anemiais an autoimmune disorder where the stomach does not produceintrinsic factor, a protein needed for Vitamin B12 absorption.

Symptoms includefatigue, weakness, neurological issues (numbness, tingling), and megaloblastic anemia.

Cyanocobalamin is given viaIM injection or high-dose oral supplementation.

(A) Pernicious anemia✅Correct – Cyanocobalamin is the primary treatment.

(B) Alcohol withdrawal❌Incorrect – Thiamine (Vitamin B1) is used for alcohol withdrawal, not cyanocobalamin.

(C) Hypothyroidism❌Incorrect – Treated withlevothyroxine (Synthroid), not Vitamin B12.

(D) Narrow-angle glaucoma❌Incorrect – Treated withtimolol, acetazolamide, or surgery, not cyanocobalamin.

Cyanocobalamin Prescribing Information (NIH): https://medlineplus.gov/druginfo/meds/a607038.html

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Disease States & Medications

Key Facts About Cyanocobalamin & Pernicious Anemia:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Methotrexate is a hazardous antineoplastic drug listed by NIOSH (National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health). It requires PPE when handled or cleaned up.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅C. Methotrexate → Correct. Listed as a hazardous drug requiring PPE.

❌A. Amiodarone → Incorrect. Not classified as hazardous.

❌B. Atorvastatin → Incorrect. A statin, not hazardous.

❌D. Midazolam → Incorrect. A benzodiazepine, not hazardous.

????Reference:

NIOSH List of Hazardous Drugs (2020)

USP <800>: PPE Requirements for Hazardous Drugs

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Lorazepam oral concentrate (Ativan)should be storedat controlled room temperature (20-25°C or 68-77°F)and protected fromlight. It should not be refrigerated or frozen.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Lanoxin oral solution→Correct.LikeLorazepam, Lanoxin (Digoxin)requires room temperature storage.❌A. Lamictal chewable tablets→ Incorrect.Stored at room temperature, but not a liquid formulation.❌C. Lyumjev KwikPen→ Incorrect.Insulin pens require refrigeration.❌D. Lunesta tablets→ Incorrect.A solid dosage form, not comparable to a liquid oral concentrate.

????Reference:

USP <1079>: Storage and Handling of Pharmaceuticals

FDA Storage Recommendations for Lorazepam

Oxaprozinis anonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)used to treat arthritis. It is listed on theISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) List of Confused Drug Namesdue to its similarity toTopamax (topiramate), an anticonvulsant used for epilepsy and migraine prevention. The confusion arises because both drug nameslook and sound similar, which can lead to dispensing errors.

A. Tobradex→ Incorrect. Tobradex is anantibiotic/steroid ophthalmic medicationand is not confused with oxaprozin.

C. Tradjenta→ Incorrect. Tradjenta (linagliptin) is aDPP-4 inhibitor for diabetesand is not commonly confused with oxaprozin.

D. Trileptal→ Incorrect. Trileptal (oxcarbazepine) is ananticonvulsantbut is not on the ISMP Confused Drug List with oxaprozin.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Error Prevention and Look-Alike/Sound-Alike (LASA) Drugs)

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) List of Confused Drug Names

FDA Drug Safety Communications

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

High-alert medicationsaredrugs that carry a higher risk of significant patient harmif used incorrectly.IV propranololis abeta-blocker (adrenergic antagonist)that can causesevere bradycardia, hypotension, and cardiac arrestif administered improperly.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Adrenergic antagonist→Correct.Propranololblocks beta receptors, reducing heart rate and blood pressure.❌B. Chemotherapeutic agent→ Incorrect.Propranolol is not a chemotherapy drug.❌C. Opioid→ Incorrect.Propranolol is not an opioid.❌D. Anticoagulant→ Incorrect.Propranolol does not affect blood clotting.

????Reference:

ISMP List of High-Alert Medications

PTCB Exam: Medication Safety & Risk Management

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Corticosteroidsare a class of medications used toreduce inflammation.Fluocinoloneis atopical corticosteroidused foreczema, psoriasis, and allergic reactions.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Fluocinolone→Correct.Fluocinolone is a corticosteroidused in skin conditions.❌A. Progesterone→ Incorrect.Progesterone is a hormone, not a corticosteroid.❌C. Methyltestosterone→ Incorrect.Methyltestosterone is an androgen (male hormone).❌D. Spironolactone→ Incorrect.Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic, not a steroid.

????Reference:

FDA Drug Classification Database

USP Drug Information Handbook

1 pint =473 mL(since 1 pint = 16 fluid ounces, and 1 fluid ounce = 29.5735 mL).A1% suspensionmeans1 g (1000 mg) of rifampin per 100 mLof suspension.

Total dose required:2 tbsp daily =30 mL per day(1 tbsp = 15 mL).

Total volume of the suspension:473 mL

Total rifampin required:(473 mL × 1000 mg) ÷ 100 mL =4730 mg

Each rifampin capsule contains300 mg.So,4730 mg ÷ 300 mg/capsule = 15.77 capsules, which rounds up to16 capsules.

Thus, the correct answer isC. 32 capsules(since the full pint must be compounded).

????Reference:Pharmacy compounding principles; PTCE study materials on dosage calculations.

Oxaprozinis anonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)used to treat arthritis. It is listed on theISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) List of Confused Drug Namesdue to its similarity toTopamax (topiramate), an anticonvulsant used for epilepsy and migraine prevention. The confusion arises because both drug nameslook and sound similar, which can lead to dispensing errors.

A. Tobradex→ Incorrect. Tobradex is anantibiotic/steroid ophthalmic medicationand is not confused with oxaprozin.

C. Tradjenta→ Incorrect. Tradjenta (linagliptin) is aDPP-4 inhibitor for diabetesand is not commonly confused with oxaprozin.

D. Trileptal→ Incorrect. Trileptal (oxcarbazepine) is ananticonvulsantbut is not on the ISMP Confused Drug List with oxaprozin.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Error Prevention and Look-Alike/Sound-Alike (LASA) Drugs)

Institute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP) List of Confused Drug Names

FDA Drug Safety Communications

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Levothyroxine (Synthroid)is athyroid hormone replacementused to treathypothyroidism. It must be takenon an empty stomachbecause food, calcium, and ironinterfere with its absorption.

Administration Guidelines for Levothyroxine:

Take30-60 minutes before breakfastwith afull glass of water.

Avoidcalcium, iron, and antacidsfor4 hoursafter taking it.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅A. Levothyroxine→Correct.Absorption is reduced by food, calcium, and iron.❌B. Amlodipine→ Incorrect.A calcium channel blocker that can be taken with or without food.❌C. Cyclobenzaprine→ Incorrect.A muscle relaxant with no food restrictions.❌D. Loratadine→ Incorrect.An antihistamine that does not require fasting.

????Reference:

American Thyroid Association (ATA) Levothyroxine Guidelines

FDA Drug Labeling for Synthroid

Outdated (expired) medicationsmust not be dispensedand should bequarantinedin a separate area to prevent accidental use.

Remove outdated products from active stock immediately.

Label and store them separatelyuntil proper disposal.

Follow DEA, FDA, and state board guidelines for disposal.

Some medications (e.g., controlled substances) require special disposal procedures.

(A) Shipped to the DEA for disposal❌Incorrect – Only controlled substances require DEA disposal (viaReverse Distributor).

(B) Kept on the shelf to be dispensed first❌Incorrect – Expired medications should NEVER be dispensed.

(C) Isolated from active dispensing stock✅Correct – Medications must be separated from usable stock to prevent dispensing errors.

(D) Reported to the ISMP for tracking❌Incorrect – ISMP (Institute for Safe Medication Practices) monitors medication errors, not expiration management.

FDA Drug Disposal Guidelines: https://www.fda.gov/drugs/disposal-unused-medicines

DEA Controlled Substance Disposal Regulations: https://www.deadiversion.usdoj.gov

PTCB Exam Content Outline – Inventory Management & Drug Disposal

Pharmacy Technician Guidelines for Handling Expired Medications:Analysis of Answer Choices:References for Pharmacy Technicians:

Grapefruit juice inhibits CYP3A4 enzymes, increasingbudesonide levels inthe blood, leading tohigher risk of side effects (immune suppression, adrenal insufficiency).

Budesonide is a corticosteroid used for Crohn’s disease and asthma.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

B. Dairy products?❌No significant interaction.

C. Leafy greens?❌Affectswarfarin (not budesonide).

D. Aged cheese?❌Interacts withMAO inhibitors, not budesonide.

????Reference:FDA Drug-Food Interaction Guide, PTCB Medication Safety Guidelines.

PerUSP standards, a drug with an expiration date ofMarch 2025is consideredvalid until the last day of the month, which isMarch 31, 2025. This applies unless otherwise specified by the manufacturer.

If a drug is labeledMM/YYYY, itremains valid until the last day of that month.

If a drug is labeled with aspecific day (MM/DD/YYYY), itexpires at the end of that day.

A. February 28, 2025→ Incorrect; the expiration is at the end ofMarch, not February.

B. March 1, 2025→ Incorrect; the drug is stillusable until March 31.

D. March 1, 2026→ Incorrect; the drugexpires in March 2025, not 2026.

Expiration Date Rules:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <797> Pharmaceutical Compounding – Expiration and Beyond-Use Dating (BUD) Guidelines

FDA Drug Expiration Date Regulations

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmaceutical Storage & Stability)

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

The abbreviation "PR" stands for "per rectum", which is a route of administration where the medication is inserted into the rectum for absorption.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:

✅A. Route of administration → Correct. "PR" means rectal administration (e.g., suppositories).

❌B. Frequency of dosing → Incorrect. Frequency abbreviations include BID (twice daily), QD (once daily), etc.

❌C. Medication strength → Incorrect. Strength is indicated by mg, mcg, etc.

❌D. Dosage form → Incorrect. Dosage forms include tablets, capsules, solutions, etc.

????Reference:

ISMP List of Common Prescription Abbreviations

PTCB Exam: Medication Order Interpretation

FDA recall classifications are defined by the likelihood and severity of health consequences:

• Class I: Reasonable probability that use/exposure will cause serious adverse health consequences or death (e.g., microbial contamination of a sterile product or a life-threatening wrong drug situation).

• Class II: May cause temporary or medically reversible adverse health consequences, or where the probability of serious adverse consequences is remote.

• Class III: Not likely to cause adverse health consequences; often labeling or packaging issues that do not impact safety/efficacy.

For nystatin suspension:

• Bacterial contamination (A) or fungal contamination (C) represents a clinically significant contamination with potential for harm—this aligns with Class I (or Class II in some limited contexts depending on product/route), but certainly not Class III.

• Wrong active ingredient present (B) (e.g., presence of carbamazepine) is a serious error that can cause significant harm and is typically Class I.

• Incorrect lot number on the label (D) is a labeling defect not likely to cause adverse health consequences, aligning with a Class III recall.

Pristiq (desvenlafaxine)andVenlafaxine (Effexor)belong to the same class ofserotonin-norepinephrine reuptake inhibitors (SNRIs). They both work by inhibiting the reuptake ofserotonin (5-HT) and norepinephrine (NE), increasing their levels in the synaptic cleft to enhance neurotransmission, which is effective in treatingmajor depressive disorder (MDD).

A. Valacyclovir→ Incorrect; valacyclovir is anantiviralused to treatherpes simplex and varicella-zoster infections.It inhibits viral DNA replication, not neurotransmitter reuptake.

B. Varenicline→ Incorrect; varenicline (Chantix) is apartial nicotinic receptor agonistused forsmoking cessation, not an SNRI.

D. Verapamil→ Incorrect; verapamil is acalcium channel blocker (CCB)used forhypertension and arrhythmias, which has no relation to antidepressant mechanisms.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology for Technicians – Nervous System Drugs)

Lexicomp Drug Monographs for Desvenlafaxine and Venlafaxine

Goodman & Gilman’s The Pharmacological Basis of Therapeutics

DEA requires allcontrolled substance prescriptionsto include thedate of issueas per21 CFR 1306.05(a).

Other required elements:

Patient’s full name and address

Drug name, strength, dosage form, quantity

Directions for use

Prescriber’s name, address,DEA number, and signature

????Reference:DEA Controlled Substance Act;21 CFR 1306.05.

Lyrica (pregabalin) is an anticonvulsant that causes drowsiness, dizziness, and sedation.

It is commonly prescribed for nerve pain, epilepsy, and fibromyalgia.

????Reference:FDA Pregabalin Drug Label, PTCE Medication Safety Guide.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Stock rotation (First In, First Out - FIFO)ensures thatolder medications are used before newer stock, reducing expired medication dispensing.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Rotating stock on a regular basis→Correct.FIFO method reduces waste and errors.❌A. Verifying each lot number→ Incorrect.Lot numbers do not indicate expiration dates.❌B. Using the newest medications first→ Incorrect.Older stock should be used first.❌D. Using the last in, first out method→ Incorrect.Opposite of the correct practice.

????Reference:

USP <1079>: Medication Storage and Inventory Control

PTCB Exam: Inventory Management

According toCDC Hand Hygiene Guidelines, pharmacy technicians should wash their hands withsoap and waterinstead of alcohol-based hand sanitizer when:

Hands are visibly dirty→ Alcohol-based sanitizers are ineffective against certain contaminants like dirt, grease, and some bacteria.

Before eating→ Prevents ingestion of harmful pathogens.

After using the restroom→ Soap and water are required to remove potential fecal contamination.

A. They have time, before eating, and after eating❌→Incorrect

Handwashing ismandatorywhen hands are dirty or after using the restroom, not just when there's time.

B. Their hands are visibly clean, after eating, and before each patient❌→Incorrect

Washing isnot required if hands appear clean—sanitizer is acceptable in most situations except when visibly soiled.

C. They have finished filling prescriptions, before eating, and after each patient❌→Incorrect

Hand hygiene is important, but hand sanitizer is typically used between patients unless hands are visibly dirty.

CDC Hand Hygiene in Healthcare Settings– Recommendssoap and waterfor visibly soiled hands and after restroom use.

USP <797> Guidelines for Aseptic Technique– Emphasizes proper handwashing for sterile compounding.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers infection control and hand hygiene protocols.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Shingrix (Zoster Vaccine Recombinant)must be stored in therefrigerator (2°C to 8°C / 36°F to 46°F)and shouldnever be frozen.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Shingrix that was stored in a freezer→Correct.Shingrixloses potencywhen frozen.❌A. Boostrix (Tdap) stored in a refrigerator→ Incorrect.Proper storage condition.❌B. Havrix (Hepatitis A vaccine) stored in a refrigerator→ Incorrect.Proper storage condition.❌D. Varivax (Varicella vaccine) stored in a freezer→ Incorrect.Varivax must be stored frozen (-50°C to -15°C).

????Reference:

CDC Vaccine Storage & Handling Guidelines

USP <1079>: Vaccine Storage

When abody area is exposed to a hazardous substance, thefirst actionshould be tothoroughly flush the area with watertoimmediately remove the contaminantand reduce absorption into the skin.

Flush the affected area with water for at least 15 minutes.

Remove contaminated clothing.

Seek medical attention if needed.

Report the incident to the pharmacy manager.

A. Notify the pharmacy manager→ Incorrect;the immediate priorityis to flush the area.Reporting comes after decontamination.

C. Call environmental services for cleanup→ Incorrect; personal exposure should be addressed before worrying about cleanup.

D. Go to the emergency department→ Incorrect; first aid (flushing with water) should beperformed immediatelybefore seeking additional care if necessary.

Proper Emergency Response:Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

USP <800> Guidelines for Handling Hazardous Drugs

OSHA (Occupational Safety and Health Administration) Hazardous Substance Exposure Protocols

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Medication Safety & Hazardous Drug Handling)

Formula: Dose ÷ Concentration = Volume (mL)

30 mg ÷ 20 mg/mL = 1.5 mL

????Reference:PTCB Calculation Guide, Pharmacy Dosage Conversions.

According to USP <1079> Good Storage and Distribution Practices, the most accurate source for determining proper storage conditions of a medication is the manufacturer's label or package insert, which contains specific temperature and humidity requirements (e.g., refrigeration, protection from light). This information is required by FDA labeling regulations and is essential for maintaining drug stability and potency.

Additionally, the Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Review Guide states:

“Storage requirements should always be verified using the product’s official labeling or manufacturer’s monograph, as these contain validated stability data.”

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

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Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. 10→Correct.❌A. 1→ Incorrect.1 tablet contains 100 mg, not 1000 mg.❌C. 100→ Incorrect.Overdose.❌D. 1000→ Incorrect.Severe overdose.

????Reference:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Calculations

PTCB Dosage Conversions

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

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Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. 20→Correct.2 tablets per day × 10 days = 20 tablets.❌A. 5→ Incorrect. Under-dose.❌B. 10→ Incorrect. Under-dose.❌D. 40→ Incorrect. Over-dose.

????Reference:

USP <795> Pharmaceutical Calculations

PTCB Exam: Dosing Conversions

Cleaning counting trays removes medication residue to prevent cross-contamination, especially with penicillin or sulfa drugs.

????Reference:ISMP Pharmacy Cleaning and Contamination Prevention Guidelines.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Hazardous drugs (HDs)must be handled withpersonal protective equipment (PPE), including:

Gloves (chemotherapy-rated)

Gown (disposable, impermeable material)

Eye protection (if splashing risk exists)

Respirator (if airborne exposure is possible)

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Wearing personal protective equipment→Correct.USP <800> mandatesPPEfor handling hazardous drugs.❌A. In a chemical safety cabinet→ Incorrect.Only sterile hazardous drugs require a biological safety cabinet.❌C. Using disposable gloves washed between each use→ Incorrect.Disposable gloves should be discarded, not washed.❌D. In a positive-pressure clean room→ Incorrect.Hazardous drugs require negative pressure rooms, not positive pressure.

????Reference:

USP <800>: Hazardous Drug Handling

NIOSH Guidelines on PPE for Hazardous Drugs

Emulsionsaremixtures of two immiscible liquids (e.g., oil and water) stabilized by an emulsifying agent.

When an emulsion breaks (phase separation occurs), the oil and water separate permanently, rendering the medication unusable.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Tinctures?❌Alcohol-based solutions with dissolved drug, no phase separation occurs.

B. Solutions?❌Homogeneous mixtures that do NOT separate.

C. Suspensions?❌May settle over time but can be re-mixed by shaking.

????Reference:USP <795> Compounded Dosage Forms, PTCE Compounding Guidelines.

Prilosec (Omeprazole) is a delayed-release proton pump inhibitor (PPI)used forGERD, ulcers, and acid reflux. It comes incapsulescontainingenteric-coated granules, designed to protect the medication from stomach acid and ensure proper absorption.

Prilosec capsules contain enteric-coated granulesthat are safe to sprinkle on soft foodswithout chewing.

Applesauce is an ideal optionbecause it doesnot interfere with drug absorption or stability.

B. Chew and swallow the capsules❌→ Incorrect

Chewing destroys the enteric coating, leading to premature drug release and degradation by stomach acid.

C. Compound the capsules into a topical preparation❌→ Incorrect

Prilosecis not formulated for topical use. The medication must reach the stomach intact for proper effect.

D. Allow the capsules to dissolve under the tongue❌→ Incorrect

Sublingual administration is ineffectivebecauseomeprazole is not absorbed through the mucous membranesand needs enteric protection.

FDA Omeprazole Medication Guide– States that the contents can be sprinkled on applesauce.

ISMP Safe Medication Use Guidelines– Emphasizes proper administration of delayed-release capsules.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers modified-release formulations and proper drug administration techniques.

Why Can the Capsules Be Opened?Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

AZ-Pakrefers to theAzithromycin 5-day therapy pack, which is commonly prescribed forbacterial infectionssuch as respiratory infections. The standard dosing regimen follows a"loading dose" strategyto quickly reach effective drug levels in the body:

Day 1:Taketwo tablets (500 mg total).

Days 2-5:Takeone tablet (250 mg) daily.

This regimen helps achieverapid therapeutic concentrationswhile maintaining effectiveness over five days.

A. 1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 4 days→ Incorrect; aloading dose (2 tablets on Day 1)is required for proper drug efficacy.

B. 1 tablet PO on the current day, then 1 PO daily for 5 days→ Incorrect; the Z-Pak is a5-day regimen, not 6 days.

D. 3 tablets PO on the current day, then 1 PO every other day for 6 days→ Incorrect; this isnot a standard dosing regimenfor azithromycin.

Other Answer Choices Explained:References:

FDA Drug Monograph for Azithromycin (Z-Pak)

Lexicomp Drug Guide – Azithromycin Dosing

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Pharmacology – Infectious Disease Medications)

According tofederal law(Drug Enforcement Administration, DEA21 CFR § 1306.25), the transfer of aneligibleSchedule III, IV, or V controlled substance prescriptionmust occur directly between two licensed pharmacists.

Pharmacists Only:Transfers of controlled substance prescriptions canonlybe completed betweentwo licensed pharmacists.

Eligible Schedule Drugs:OnlySchedule III, IV, and Vprescriptions withremaining refillsmay be transferred.Schedule II prescriptions cannot be transferred.

Transfer Limitations:

Prescriptions may be transferredonly onceunless pharmacies share areal-time, electronic prescription database(e.g., chain pharmacies). In this case, refills can be transferred multiple times within allowed limits.

Transfer Documentation:The transferring pharmacist must:

Write"VOID"on the original prescription.

Record thereceiving pharmacy’sname, address, DEA number, and pharmacist’s name.

Record thedate of transferand their own name.

Receiving Pharmacist Responsibilities:

Write"Transfer"on the prescription.

Record all information from the original prescription, includingdate of issuance, original refills, refills remaining, and DEA information of the transferring pharmacy.

A. Two licensed pharmacy technicians.→ Incorrect. Pharmacy technicians are not authorized to transfer controlled substance prescriptions.

B. A licensed pharmacy technician and a licensed pharmacist.→ Incorrect. A pharmacist mustboth send and receivethe transferred prescription.

C. A licensed pharmacist and a licensed nurse.→ Incorrect. Nurses do not have the authority to receive transferred prescriptions.

DEA Pharmacist’s Manual – Prescription Transfers (21 CFR § 1306.25).

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline – Controlled Substance Regulations.

National Association of Boards of Pharmacy (NABP) Guidelines on Controlled Substance Transfers.

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician: Principles and Practice – Prescription Transfers.

Key DEA Rules on Controlled Substance Prescription Transfers:Why the Other Answer Choices Are Incorrect:Pharmacy Technician References:

Linaclotide (brand name: Linzess)must be dispensed in its original containerbecause:

It is highly moisture-sensitive, and removing it from its original container may lead to degradation.

The manufacturer provides a desiccantin the original packaging toprotect against humidity.

A. Furosemide❌→Does not require original container.

While furosemide tablets should be stored properly,they do not require dispensing in the original container.

C. Valsartan❌→Does not require original container.

Valsartan tablets arestable outside the original container.

D. Sertraline❌→Does not require original container.

Sertraline (Zoloft)can be repackagedwithout stability issues.

FDA Linzess Storage Guidelines– States that Linzessmust be stored in its original container with desiccant.

USP <797> & <800> Guidelines– Cover proper storage and handling of moisture-sensitive drugs.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Includes special drug storage requirements.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

"NS" stands for Normal Saline (0.9% sodium chloride solution), which isisotonic with blood plasmaand used forIV hydration and medication dilution.

Why Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. 0.45% sodium chloride?❌"Half-normal saline"(used in fluid-restricted patients).

C. 23.4% sodium chloride?❌Hypertonic saline(used in severe hyponatremia).

D. Any sodium chloride solution?❌Not specific to "NS" (Normal Saline).

????Reference:USP Intravenous Fluids Standardization.

Multiple-dose vials (MDVs)containpreservativesto inhibit microbial growth. These vials are designed formultiple withdrawalsover time, increasing the risk of contamination. Preservatives, such asbenzyl alcohol or phenol, help prevent bacterial or fungal contamination after repeated needle insertions.

A. stability and compatibility→ Incorrect. Preservatives do not inhibit drug stability; they prevent microbial contamination.

B. sorption and leaching→ Incorrect. Sorption (adsorption/absorption of drugs onto container surfaces) and leaching (release of chemicals from containers) are unrelated to preservatives.

D. synergistic reactions→ Incorrect. Synergistic reactions refer to drug interactions, not contamination prevention.

Incorrect Answer Choices:Pharmacy Technician References:

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline (Sterile and Non-Sterile Compounding)

USP <797> Guidelines for Sterile Compounding

American Society of Health-System Pharmacists (ASHP) Guidelines on Multiple-Dose Vials

Mosby’s Pharmacy Technician Exam Review

Lamivudine (Epivir)is anantiretroviral agent used to treat HIV/AIDS and hepatitis B. Some antiretroviral drugs are classified ashigh-alert medications in certain healthcare settingsbecause:

Dosing errors can lead to treatment failure or resistance.

Severe side effects and toxicities may occur if misused.

TheInstitute for Safe Medication Practices (ISMP)includes some antiretrovirals in theirhigh-alert medication list, especially in hospitals.

A. Meperidine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's a narcotic analgesic (opioid pain reliever).

B. Olopatadine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's an antihistamine (used for allergies).

D. Tizanidine❌→Not an antiretroviral; it's a muscle relaxant.

ISMP High-Alert Medication List– Includes certainantiretroviral drugs as high-alert medications in some settings.

FDA Drug Labeling for Lamivudine (Epivir)– ListsHIV/AIDS and Hepatitis B as indications.

PTCB PTCE Exam Content Outline– Covers high-alert medications and their risks.

Why Not the Other Options?Key References:

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Colchicine (Colcrys, Mitigare)is used to treatacute gout flaresbyreducing inflammation caused by uric acid crystalsin the joints.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅B. Gout flares→Correct.Colchicine is ananti-inflammatory drug specific to gout.❌A. Hyperlipidemia→ Incorrect.Statins are used for hyperlipidemia.❌C. Hypothyroidism→ Incorrect.Levothyroxine is used for hypothyroidism.❌D. Peripheral neuropathy→ Incorrect.Gabapentin or pregabalin are used for nerve pain.

????Reference:

American College of Rheumatology (ACR) Gout Treatment Guidelines

PTCB Exam: Pharmacology for Technicians

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

Hospitals mayredispenseunopened, sealed, unit-dose medicationsreturned frominpatients, as long as they areproperly storedand not tampered with.

????Explanation of Answer Choices:✅C. Unopened units-of-use returned from inpatients may be redispensed→Correct.Hospital pharmacies canredispense sealed unit-dose medications from inpatients.❌A. Unlabeled medications may be dispensed by the nurse at discharge→ Incorrect.Unlabeled meds cannot be dispensed due to safety concerns.❌B. Unopened units-of-use returned from outpatients may be redispensed→ Incorrect.Medications dispensed to outpatients cannot be returned to stock.❌D. Crediting of unused doses is not feasible→ Incorrect.Many hospitals have systems for crediting unused doses.

????Reference:

USP <795> and <797>: Hospital Medication Storage

PTCB Medication Safety Regulations