220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2025) Questions and Answers

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted, secure tunnel across a public or untrusted network. It uses authentication credentials to ensure that only authorized users can connect, keeping data safe from interception.

Fiber optic connections provide the highest data transfer rates and symmetrical upload and download speeds. This makes fiber the ideal choice for applications requiring high-speed connectivity, such as video conferencing, large file transfers, and cloud-based workflows.

Since the issue only occurs during scanning and copying (not printing or faxing), the problem is isolated to the document feeder. A vertical line is typically caused by debris or damage on theglass under the ADF (Automatic Document Feeder), not on components related to printing.

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a network service used to automatically assign IP addresses and other network configuration details (such as subnet masks and default gateways) to devices on an enterprise-wide network.

Why Not A (DNS): DNS resolves domain names to IP addresses but does not allocate IP addresses.

Why Not B (Syslog): Syslog is used for logging system events, not IP address management.

Why Not C (Telnet): Telnet is a protocol for remote access, not for IP allocation.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DHCP concepts​.

If a hard drive is heavily fragmented, file read/write operations can take significantly longer, causing slow backup speeds. Defragmenting the drive organizes the data for more efficient access.

Why Not A (Replace the hard drive's USB cable): A faulty cable would typically cause disconnections or errors, not just slower speeds.

Why Not C (Update the storage drivers): This might help if the issue is with system drivers, but the described symptoms point to a fragmentation issue.

Why Not D (Compress the files): Compression reduces file size but does not address the root cause of the slow backups.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, storage troubleshooting​.

Inlaser printers, thefuser unitis responsible formelting the toner onto the paperusing heat and pressure. If the toner rubs off easily, it's a clear sign thefuser is failing or not heating properly. Replacing the fuser will ensure the toner bonds correctly to the paper.

Option B (Drum):Transfers the image, but doesn't fuse the toner.

Option C (Developer roller):Applies toner to the drum wouldn’t cause toner to rub off.

Option D (Discharge lamp):Prepares the drum for a new image; not related to toner adhesion.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

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A port replicator expands the number and types of ports available to a laptop, including additional USB ports, video outputs, Ethernet, and more. CompTIA A+ identifies port replicators as solutions for users needing greater connectivity, especially when docking stations are unnecessary or unavailable.

Port replicators connect through a single USB or proprietary connector and provide multiple expansion ports instantly. This resolves the issue of limited USB availability without requiring hardware replacement.

NFC (A) is used for short-range communication, not peripheral connectivity. Bluetooth (B) only supports wireless peripherals such as mice and headphones, not wired USB devices. A USB receiver (C) adds wireless capability for one specific device, not general expansion.

Thus, the correct solution is a port replicator.

Bluetooth audio issues are typically related to distance and signal strength, not internet connectivity or Wi-Fi access points. Bluetooth devices—especially headsets—generally have a limited effective range of around 10 meters (33 feet) for Class 2 Bluetooth, which is common in consumer laptops and headsets. When the user leaves the room and walks into adjacent offices, they are likely moving beyond the optimal Bluetooth range or passing through walls that weaken the signal.

CompTIA A+ highlights that Bluetooth uses low-power radio frequencies easily disrupted by physical obstructions, distance, and interference. Since the laptop remains stationary and the user moves, the headset becomes progressively further from the laptop, causing intermittent audio dropouts, stuttering, or loss of connection.

The number of APs (A) is irrelevant because the headset is not using Wi-Fi. Mesh mode (C) applies only to wireless AP-to-AP communication. The internet connection (D) is high-quality fiber and conference calls work fine when stationary, so the issue is not bandwidth or WAN throughput.

Thus, the most likely cause is that the user is moving in and out of Bluetooth range.

A. Check the product manual for the procedure:

When hardware is not easily accessible, always consult the product manual for proper disassembly procedures. Forcing the cover can damage the laptop or void the warranty.

Product manuals often provide step-by-step instructions for safely accessing internal components.

Incorrect Options:

B. Use a pry tool to force the cover open: Forcing the cover can cause physical damage to the device.

C. Insert the wireless card into the M.2 slot: This step cannot be performed until the cover is properly removed.

D. Try to move the cover by sliding it in all directions: Randomly sliding the cover can cause damage if the correct removal method is not followed.

Key Takeaway: Always refer to the product manual to ensure safe and proper disassembly of laptop components.

A hybrid environment combines both on-premises infrastructure and cloud-based resources, allowing virtual machines to operate seamlessly between the two. CompTIA A+ describes hybrid cloud as a deployment model where organizations maintain their own private servers or virtualization hosts while also leveraging public cloud platforms such as AWS, Azure, or Google Cloud. This model supports flexibility, scalability, and gradual migration, making it ideal for businesses not ready to fully abandon local infrastructure.

In this model, workloads can move between the local environment and the cloud depending on performance requirements, cost considerations, or redundancy needs. Additionally, hybrid clouds allow resource sharing, data synchronization, and load balancing across both environments.

A public cloud hosts resources entirely in the provider’s data center, offering no on-premises integration. A private cloud exists solely within the organization’s infrastructure with no external shared resources. SaaS delivers applications, not infrastructure, meaning it cannot host or manage virtual machines.

Therefore, an environment where VMs exist both on-site and in the cloud is best described as a Hybrid cloud.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides the foundational computing components: virtualized hardware, storage, networking, and hypervisor resources. CompTIA A+ explains that customers using IaaS are responsible for installing and maintaining:

The operating system

Applications

Patches, updates, and configurations

This model gives organizations maximum flexibility because they can build custom server environments without purchasing physical hardware.

In contrast:

SaaS (A) provides fully managed applications—users do not manage OS or software.

PaaS (B) provides a development platform and tools but does not allow OS management.

XaaS (D) is a broad term meaning “anything as a service,” not a specific model.

Thus, IaaS is the only model where OS-level control remains with the customer.

Quality of Service (QoS) prioritizes VoIP traffic on the network, reducing jitter, latency, and packet loss to improve call quality.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Network troubleshooting:

“Enabling QoS in the router ensures time-sensitive traffic, like VoIP, receives network priority, reducing dropped or lagging calls.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4

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Whenever a CPU heat sink is removed or replaced, thermal paste must be reapplied. Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU heat spreader and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat transfer. Without it, there is a significant air gap, which acts as an insulator, causing CPU temperatures to rise dramatically even under light load. CompTIA A+ stresses thermal compound application as a key step in CPU cooling installation.

The scenario indicates that temperatures increased drastically after upgrading to a better heat sink. A higher-performing heat sink should improve temperatures, not worsen them—unless a critical installation step was missed. Missing thermal paste is the most common cause of this symptom and easily explains the sudden overheating.

Decreased CPU voltage would lower temperatures, not raise them. Higher fan RPM increases cooling efficiency, not reduces it. Airflow interruption is possible but less likely in a simple heat sink upgrade scenario unless the technician installed the CPU cooler incorrectly; however, the most direct and common cause described by CompTIA is missing thermal paste.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

Mobile Device Management (MDM) enables administrators to enforce controls on enterprise devices, such as restricting apps, ensuring compliance, and remotely managing security policies.

Why Not B (MFA): Multi-Factor Authentication secures user access but does not control device configurations.

Why Not C (VPN): VPN secures communication but does not enforce device controls.

Why Not D (SSL): SSL secures data in transit but does not provide device management.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, device management concepts​.

If only one print job fails and others succeed, it is often due to a paper type or tray selection mismatch for that specific job. If a print job is configured to use a tray that is empty or set to manual feed, it will not be released until resolved.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Printer troubleshooting:

“If a specific print job stalls while others succeed, check the job settings for specific tray or paper type configurations that do not match the printer’s current setup.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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An internal cloud platform operated exclusively for a single organization is a private cloud, providing dedicated resources and enhanced control.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud models:

“A private cloud is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization, typically managed internally or by a third party, and may be hosted on-premises.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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A loopback plug is a diagnostic tool used to test whether a physical port such as an Ethernet NIC port or serial port is capable of sending and receiving its own signal. When inserted, it “loops” outgoing signals back into the device, confirming the port's transmit/receive functionality.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes loopback plugs as essential tools during hardware and network troubleshooting, especially when isolating physical port or NIC failures.

Network taps passively monitor traffic, crimpers attach RJ45 connectors to cables, and patch panels organize cabling none of these verify port-level functionality. Therefore, only a loopback plug can confirm that a port is working correctly by testing signal integrity and hardware responsiveness.

2.4GHz Wi-Fi signals have better penetration through walls and other obstacles compared to 5GHz and 6GHz. Lower frequency waves (like 2.4GHz) travel farther and are less absorbed by physical barriers.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.5 – Compare and contrast wireless networking protocols:

“The 2.4GHz frequency band offers greater range and better penetration through walls and obstacles than higher frequencies like 5GHz and 6GHz. Higher frequencies provide faster speeds but are more easily absorbed by walls.”

NFC (Near Field Communication) is not a Wi-Fi technology and works only over very short distances (a few centimeters).

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Wireless Networking

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.5

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F-type connectors are commonly used to terminate coaxial cables in cable internet, cable TV, and satellite connections.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Network cables and connectors:

“F-type connectors are used for coaxial cable terminations in cable modem and TV installations.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Networking Cables and Connectors

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

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Asandboxis an isolated virtual environment used totest or run applications securelywithout risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.

Option A (VDI):Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.

Option B (Private cloud):Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.

Option D (Type 1 hypervisor):Runs VMs directly on hardware and doesnotinherently block communication.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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A docking station allows users to connect multiple peripherals (monitor, keyboard, mouse, etc.) to a laptop with a single connection, reducing cable clutter and improving convenience.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Laptop hardware and connections:

“A docking station enables the use of multiple external devices with a laptop using only one or two connections, making it ideal for office environments.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Laptop Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

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Bluetooth is a wireless technology designed for short-range communication between devices. It is a classic example of a Personal Area Network (PAN), which supports communication between devices like smartphones, headsets, keyboards, and mice within a few meters. PANs are smaller in scope compared to LANs or WANs.

Changing the page orientation(e.g., fromportrait to landscape) allows wider columns to fit on one side of the page. This maintains readability while continuing to use duplex printing.

Option A:Disabling duplex defeats the goal of printing on both sides.

Option B:May help, but could make the document harder to read if the font is too small.

Option D:Unlikely to resolve formatting issues related to layout and dimensions.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

Portable devices such as laptops, small-form-factor computers, and mini-PCs use SODIMM (Small Outline DIMM) memory modules. CompTIA A+ explains that SODIMMs are physically smaller and consume less power than standard DIMMs, making them ideal for mobile systems where space and energy efficiency are critical. Unlike ECC memory, which is primarily used in servers, or RAID which is a storage redundancy methodology rather than a memory type SODIMM is specifically designed for compact computing devices. SATA is a storage interface, not a memory form factor.

The A+ study guide clearly lists SODIMM as the standard laptop memory type because of its compact footprint and compatibility with mobile motherboard layouts. This makes SODIMM the most widely implemented memory technology in portable devices.

A spam gateway filters unsolicited emails at the server level, significantly reducing spam before it reaches user inboxes.

Why Not A (Load balancer): Load balancers distribute traffic but don’t filter spam.

Why Not C (Mail forwarding): Forwarding doesn’t filter spam.

Why Not D (Proxy servers): Proxies control web traffic, not email filtering.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.10, email security controls​.

The symptoms slow response and failed app launches indicate that thedevice's memory or processing resources are overutilized. Closing unnecessary apps can free up RAM and CPU resources, improving performance.

Option A:Overheating may cause sluggishness, but that’s not indicated here.

Option C:Factory reset is a last resort, not the next logical step.

Option D:Battery health would affect uptime, not system speed.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.6: Given a scenario, configure basic mobile device network connectivity and application support.

USB-Cis a versatile connector capable oftransmitting data, video, audio, and power. With standards likeDisplayPort over USB-C or Thunderbolt 3/4, it can be used for external displays, file transfers, charging, and more all through one cable.

Option B (HDMI):Supports video and audio but not general data transfer.

Option C (DisplayPort):Similar to HDMI supports video/audio but not general file transfer.

Option D (VGA):Legacy analog video only no data or audio support.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.1: Identify common connector types.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

The wireless environment is crowded, and the office is using:

WEP encryption → obsolete, insecure, and supported only by outdated hardware

Default channel → likely causes interference in a busy area

CompTIA A+ emphasizes:

WEP should be replaced with WPA2 or WPA3

Older APs that only support WEP cannot simply be updated

Newer APs also allow dual-band / multiple channels to avoid interference

Therefore, the best solution is:

✔ Replace the access point with a modern WPA2/WPA3-capable AP that supports improved channel selection.

Why the other options are incorrect

B. Disabling SSID broadcast – Does nothing for performance or security.

C. MAC filtering – Ineffective for performance and easily bypassed.

D. Updating firmware – Cannot upgrade WEP hardware to WPA2/3 if hardware limitations exist.

Final Answer: A

Mobile devices can share their LTE or cellular data connection using a feature called tethering, more commonly known as hotspot mode. According to CompTIA A+ objectives on mobile networking technologies, a hotspot allows a smartphone or tablet to become a mini wireless router, broadcasting a Wi-Fi signal that nearby devices can connect to. The LTE (or 5G) connection is then shared over Wi-Fi, enabling laptops, tablets, or other phones to access the internet through the mobile device.

Bluetooth is capable of tethering but provides much lower bandwidth and slower speeds—not ideal for sharing LTE widely. NFC is used for close-range data exchange or payment transactions and cannot share internet service. "Cellular" refers to the phone’s own mobile network connection, not the mechanism for sharing it with others.

Hotspot functionality is specifically built into modern mobile OSs and supports WPA2/3 encryption, password protection, and device whitelisting. This makes it the most common and efficient method to share LTE connectivity with multiple nearby devices.

Thus, Hotspot (D) is the correct answer.

Data centers and high-performance servers prioritize stability and fault tolerance. CompTIA A+ identifies ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM as the standard memory used in such environments. ECC RAM automatically detects and corrects single-bit memory errors, preventing system crashes, data corruption, and downtime—critical requirements for servers running mission-critical workloads.

ECC memory is commonly paired with registered/buffered modules (RDIMM) for additional stability, but ECC itself is the defining feature required in data center environments. Non-ECC, unbuffered memory is used in consumer desktops where minor memory errors pose minimal risk.

Single-channel memory (B) is simply a configuration and does not imply reliability. Unbuffered RAM (C) is not used in enterprise-grade systems because it lacks error correction and electrical stabilization. RDIMM (D) includes buffering but may come with or without ECC; however, ECC is the key requirement highlighted by the question.

Therefore, the correct answer is ECC RAM.

Gaming laptops prioritize speed, low latency, fast read/write times, and quick loading. CompTIA A+ explains that NVMe M.2 SSDs provide the fastest consumer storage available due to their use of the PCIe bus, which delivers significantly higher performance compared to SATA-based drives.

HDDs (Options A and C) are mechanical and have slow seek times, making them unsuitable for high-performance gaming. SAS SSDs (Option D) are enterprise-grade, rarely used in laptops, and require SAS controllers not found in consumer systems.

Thus, a 512GB NVMe M.2 SSD offers the best performance, fastest boot times, rapid texture loading, and optimal gaming responsiveness fully aligning with A+ hardware performance recommendations.

Software as a Service (SaaS) provides users access to fully managed applications hosted in the cloud. CompTIA A+ explains that SaaS is subscription-based and typically billed monthly or annually, which aligns perfectly with the phrase “recurring fee.” Business productivity applications—such as Microsoft 365, Google Workspace, Zoom, Slack, and Salesforce—are classic examples of SaaS offerings.

SaaS applications run entirely in the provider’s cloud environment, eliminating the need for installation, maintenance, or management by the customer. This makes SaaS ideal for businesses that need reliable, scalable tools without maintaining their own infrastructure.

DaaS (Desktop as a Service) provides virtual desktops.

PaaS (Platform as a Service) offers a development framework for building applications.

IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service) provides virtual servers, storage, and networking—not end-user productivity apps.

Thus, SaaS is the correct and only model that matches the description of subscription-based access to productivity applications.

CompTIA A+ explains that Wi-Fi issues at the edges of a building are typically caused by weak signal coverage, not client configuration. The recommended solution is to add additional wireless access points (APs) or mesh extenders to expand coverage and eliminate dead zones.

Enabling 5GHz would worsen the problem because 5GHz has shorter range and penetrates walls less effectively than 2.4GHz. Flushing DNS affects name resolution, not wireless signal strength. Upgrading the NIC to Wi-Fi 6 improves maximum throughput but still depends on sufficient signal, which the user does not have.

Additional APs ensure strong signal-to-noise ratio, consistent throughput, and stable roaming all solutions emphasized in the A+ wireless troubleshooting section. Therefore, option D is the correct and CompTIA-aligned fix.

A modular power supply allows the user to connect only the cables needed, reducing clutter and improving organization inside the case.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Power supplies:

“Modular power supplies provide detachable cables, allowing users to use only the required connections for a neater build.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Supplies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

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In a corporate office environment where multiple employees must share a single printer, the most efficient and manageable solution is a print server. A print server centralizes print management, queues print jobs, handles driver distribution, and provides access control. CompTIA A+ highlights print servers as the enterprise-standard method for managing shared printing resources because they ensure reliability, scalability, and better network performance.

Bluetooth printing and Wi-Fi Direct are short-range, peer-to-peer technologies meant for one-to-one or small-scale printing. They lack user authentication management, enterprise security controls, and cannot efficiently support dozens or hundreds of print requests simultaneously. Cloud printing requires internet reliance and external service routing, which introduces latency, potential downtime, and privacy concerns—often unsuitable for corporate networks, especially those with sensitive internal documents.

A print server allows users to connect to the printer through a standard network infrastructure (wired or wireless), and technicians can configure permissions, monitor print loads, and troubleshoot from a central location. It integrates seamlessly with enterprise directory services such as Active Directory, enabling controlled access and auditing. Because of these capabilities, the print server is the best professional-grade solution for corporate-wide printing needs.

RAID 1, also known as disk mirroring, duplicates data identically to two drives, ensuring full redundancy if one drive fails. Because the workstation only has two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID level that provides fault tolerance under this constraint, exactly as described in the CompTIA A+ study guide.

RAID 0 offers no redundancy, RAID 5 requires at least three drives, and RAID 10 requires at least four drives.

RAID 1 is the recommended configuration for small environments or workstations that rely on data integrity and quick recovery, matching CompTIA’s guidance for redundancy in systems with limited drive availability.

Port flapping refers to a network port continuously going up and down, which can prevent the access point from fully coming online.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.4 – Wired and wireless troubleshooting:

“Repeated loss and restoration of network link is called port flapping and may result in network devices, such as access points, not coming online.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.4

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If two devices have thesame static IP address, anIP conflictoccurs. This results in both devices being intermittently disconnected or unable to communicate on the network. It’s a common mistake when copying configurations manually.

Option B:DNS conflicts wouldn’t cause total disconnection and wouldn't occur just from copying IP settings.

Option C:A cable issue would only affect one workstation.

Option D:Switchport security issues wouldn't affect both machines simultaneously unless port security was configured very specifically.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RAID 6 uses two parity blocks, allowing it to tolerate the failure of two drives without losing data.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes that satellite internet connections inherently suffer from extremely high latency because the data must travel from the user's antenna to satellites orbiting tens of thousands of miles above Earth and back. Although satellite systems offer broad geographic coverage, this long travel distance introduces noticeable delays often 500ms or more.

Fiber, cable, and DSL operate through terrestrial wiring and have far lower latency due to short signal paths. Fiber, in particular, is the fastest and lowest-latency connection type.

Satellite delay significantly impacts VoIP calls, video conferencing, online gaming, and real-time applications. The A+ exam specifically notes latency as a major performance characteristic of satellite service, distinguishing it from other broadband technologies.

CompTIA A+ strongly emphasizes that virtual machines (VMs) are ideal for testing potentially unsafe software, malware samples, or experimental code because they isolate the environment from the host system. VMs allow snapshots, cloning, and rollback functionality, which makes them essential in development, QA, and cybersecurity environments where code might be unstable or harmful.

Hybrid cloud refers to infrastructure strategy, not code execution isolation. Load balancers distribute production traffic but have no testing or sandboxing purpose. Application gateways filter traffic but do not provide execution environments.

Virtual machines create a safe sandbox where failure, infection, or corruption is contained. This is covered in the Virtualization and Cloud Computing domain of the CompTIA A+ exam, making VMs the correct tool for executing unauthorized code safely.

Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

To determine the correct device, we need to understand how a DOCSIS (Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification) network functions in a Small Office/Home Office (SOHO) environment:

C. Cable Modem:

A cable modem is required to convert the signal provided by the ISP (Internet Service Provider) over a DOCSIS network into a format that is usable by the local area network (LAN).

DOCSIS is a standard for high-speed internet over cable television infrastructure, and the cable modem acts as the gateway between the ISP's coaxial network and the LAN.

Without the cable modem, devices in the LAN would not be able to access the internet.

The symptoms clearly point to a hardware-level signal degradation issue, which is most commonly caused by a malfunctioning or damaged Wi-Fi antenna in the smartphone. CompTIA A+ mobile device troubleshooting emphasizes comparing the affected device's signal strength with other nearby devices. In this case, other devices in the same location have stronger Wi-Fi signals, meaning the network itself is functioning normally. The consistent low signal across multiple networks strongly suggests antenna failure.

Modern smartphones use internal antenna assemblies located along the frame or behind the back cover. If the antenna becomes loose, damaged, or obstructed, the device may show weak or unstable Wi-Fi connectivity, especially in crowded environments where strong, stable reception is required to maintain a connection.

Option B (outdated Wi-Fi standard) would limit speed but not cause significant signal weakness compared to surrounding devices. Option C (interference) affects all devices in an area similarly—not just one device. Option D (power settings) may reduce background activity or scanning frequency, but it does not cause consistently low signal strength.

Therefore, the most likely cause is a malfunctioning Wi-Fi antenna inside the smartphone.

A firewall implements ACLs (Access Control Lists) to filter traffic and enforce policies based on rules such as IP address, port, or protocol.

Why Not A (Managed switch): A managed switch supports VLANs and QoS but does not enforce ACLs at the network perimeter.

Why Not B (Gateway): Gateways connect networks and translate protocols but don’t typically implement ACLs.

Why Not C (Repeater): Repeaters extend signal range but don’t enforce policies.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.2, firewall concepts​.

Unmanaged switches require no configuration they simply need to be plugged in and start working immediately, making them ideal for simple network setups.

Managed switches provide advanced features such as VLANs, SNMP monitoring, port security, and traffic management, but require configuration.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Compare and contrast common networking hardware:

“Unmanaged switches operate out of the box with no configuration and are designed for simple connectivity. Managed switches allow for configuration, monitoring, and management of network traffic and security.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Networking Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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When installing copper network cable in spaces that serve as air-handling plenums, safety regulations require the use of plenum-rated cable. Suspended ceilings used for ventilation fall into this category. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that plenum spaces require cable with low-smoke, fire-resistant insulation made from specialized materials that limit toxic emissions during combustion.

Plenum-rated cabling (CMP) is designed to meet strict fire codes such as NFPA 70 (National Electrical Code). It prevents smoke-filled ventilation pathways, which could rapidly spread fire or toxic fumes throughout a building. Standard PVC-jacketed twisted pair cables are not permitted in plenum spaces because they produce thick, toxic smoke when burned.

Multimode cable refers to fiber optics, not copper cabling. Coaxial cable is used for broadband and certain RF applications but does not inherently meet plenum safety requirements unless specifically plenum-rated. Twisted pair describes the cable’s internal structure (Cat5e, Cat6, etc.), but it does not indicate the type of jacket. Only plenum-rated twisted pair is acceptable.

Therefore, the correct answer is Plenum, as it ensures compliance with safety standards and building codes, prevents hazardous conditions, and aligns with CompTIA best practices for structured cabling installations.

The scan-to-SMB feature allows the printer to send scanned documents to a shared folder (SMB share) on the network. Setting up a network share enables the device to securely and conveniently save files for user access.

Security groups are used to manage access permissions to network resources, ensuring only authorized HR department members can access the shared materials.

Why Not B (Audit logs): Audit logs monitor activity but do not restrict access.

Why Not C (Time-of-day access): Time-of-day access limits when users can access resources but doesn’t specify user permissions.

Why Not D (Print server): A print server manages print jobs but does not control file access.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, access control and permissions​.

Cloud storage platforms—such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox—use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.

Synchronization allows users to:

Modify files offline and have them sync once online

Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices

Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients

Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution

A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.

Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.

Channel configuration(e.g.,dual-channel,quad-channel) determines how memory modules communicate with the memory controller. Usingmatched pairs in dual- or quad-channel setupscan significantlyincrease memory bandwidth, improving performance especially for gaming and video-intensive tasks.

Option A (Error correction):ECC RAM is used in servers for reliability, not performance or gaming.

Option B (RAM voltage):Affects compatibility and overclocking but not bandwidth.

Option D (Physical size):Refers to module form factor (e.g., DIMM, SO-DIMM) and does not impact bandwidth.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.2: Given a scenario, install RAM types.

Older motherboards use 20-pin connectors, while newer power supplies use 24-pin connectors. An adapter resolves the compatibility issue cost-effectively.

Why Not A (Adjust the input voltage): Input voltage adjustment is unrelated to connector compatibility.

Why Not B (Install a modular power supply): While modular supplies are versatile, this doesn’t address the connector issue directly.

Why Not C (Rebuild the failed power supply): Rebuilding is costly and complex compared to using an adapter.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply compatibility​.

Reasoning: A docking station is designed to provide a central connection point for multiple peripherals, such as monitors, keyboards, mice, and network cables. It allows users to quickly connect or disconnect all devices by simply docking or undocking their laptop, improving mobility and reducing wear and tear on individual ports.

Why the Other Options Are Incorrect:

A. Serial interfaces:

Serial interfaces are outdated and rarely used in modern laptops or peripherals. They are not practical for facilitating the connection of multiple devices.

C. Network switch:

A network switch is used to connect multiple devices to a network, but it does not simplify the connection of peripherals to a laptop.

D. USB hub:

A USB hub can extend the number of available USB ports but lacks the full functionality of a docking station, such as video output or Ethernet connectivity.

Practical Example:

A user with a laptop, external monitors, keyboard, and mouse can use a docking station to connect all devices with a single action, instead of plugging in each device manually.

CompTIA A+ Exam Objective Alignment:

Objective 5.2: Explain device interfaces, connection types, and usage of docking stations.

The most likely cause is a swollen battery, which occurs when the battery's internal components break down, causing a buildup of gas. This results in:

Physical Symptoms: The battery bulges, pushing the screen away.

Operational Symptoms: The device may still power on when connected to a charger but fails to hold a charge due to battery degradation.

Option A (Malfunctioning power supply): Incorrect. Power supply issues affect charging but do not cause physical bulging.

Option B (Damaged charge port): Incorrect. A damaged port can prevent charging but does not explain the bulge.

Option D (Broken screen): Incorrect. A damaged screen does not cause the device to bulge; it is likely a secondary effect of the swollen battery.

Safety Note: A swollen battery poses a risk of fire or explosion and should be replaced immediately following proper disposal procedures.

If a desktopfails to power on entirely, the most probable cause is afaulty Power Supply Unit (PSU). If there are no lights, fans, or POST beeps, the PSU may have failed, cutting off all power to the motherboard and components.

Option B (GPU):Could prevent video output, but the system would still power on and beep.

Option C (RAM):Missing or faulty RAM would cause POST errors but not prevent startup entirely.

Option D (CPU):A bad CPU may cause POST failure, but the system would usually at least power on.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPU, and power.

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An IP address starting with169.254.x.xis aself-assigned address(also calledAPIPA– Automatic Private IP Addressing). It’s used when a client device cannot contact a DHCP server. This address allows limited communication on the local network segment butno internet access.

Option A:DHCP reservations assign specific IPs from the DHCP server they don’t result in APIPA.

Option B:Dynamic assignment from DHCP assigns valid IPs in the proper subnet, not 169.254.x.x.

Option D:Static IPs are manually set and would not fall in the 169.254.x.x range unless set incorrectly.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 2.6: Given a scenario, configure and troubleshoot network connectivity.

Port 3389 is used by the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) for remote desktop connections in Windows environments. This port allows remote control and management of systems across the network.

DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is the service used to automatically assign IP addresses to network hosts. It dynamically manages the distribution of IP addresses and configuration details (like subnet mask, gateway, and DNS servers), ensuring no two devices are assigned the same address on the network.

Option B (DNS): Incorrect. DNS translates domain names into IP addresses but does not assign them.

Option C (LDAP): Incorrect. LDAP is a protocol used for accessing and maintaining directory services, such as user information and permissions.

Option D (SMTP): Incorrect. SMTP is used for sending and receiving email, not for IP address assignment.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

When assigning a static IP address to a network device such as a printer, the administrator must manually enter all information that a DHCP server would normally provide automatically.

CompTIA A+ networking fundamentals explain that a statically assigned host requires:

IP address (set manually)

Subnet mask (must be manually configured to define the network boundary)

Default gateway (must be manually assigned so the device can communicate outside its subnet)

DNS (also typically required, but in SOHO printer configs, it is not always mandatory unless name resolution is needed)

The question asks specifically: Which must be set manually?

The two required components for every static IP assignment in a CompTIA-compliant small office network are:

✔ B. Subnet mask

Defines the network and host portions of the IP address. Must be manually entered for static IPs.

✔ C. Default gateway

Allows communication outside the local network. Must also be manually set for static IP devices.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. DHCP

Not used in static addressing. DHCP is automatic; static addressing bypasses it.

D. DNS

Not always required for printers unless hostname resolution is needed. The question asks for what must be set manually.

E. Reservations

DHCP reservations create “static-like” addresses via DHCP, not manual configuration.

F. Exclusions

Used to prevent DHCP from assigning certain IPs; not part of configuring a static IP on a device.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

When installing an operating system from external media (USB flash drive), the motherboard firmware must be instructed to check that device before checking the internal storage.

The CompTIA A+ official objectives describe that technicians must know how to access UEFI/BIOS settings and configure boot priority. Installing an OS from USB requires:

Entering UEFI/BIOS setup

Navigating to the Boot or Startup menu

Setting the USB drive as the first boot device

Saving and exiting to allow the computer to boot from the USB installer

This process is specifically referenced in CompTIA A+ material under “BIOS/UEFI settings,” where boot sequence / boot order is a fundamental configuration needed for OS installation.

Thus, the next step after assembling the PC is to modify the boot order to allow the system to boot from the USB installation media.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. BIOS password

Used for system access security; has no relevance to installing an OS from USB.

B. PXE boot

Used for network-based installations, not USB installations.

C. Secure Boot

Controls OS signature validation; not required to be changed for USB installation and is not the next required step.

Final Answer: D

To add additional wired network devices in a simple and cost-effective manner, the best solution is an unmanaged switch. CompTIA A+ explains that unmanaged switches require no configuration, provide instant port expansion, and operate using plug-and-play functionality. This makes them ideal for home offices where the user wants more Ethernet ports without dealing with administrative overhead or complex setup.

An unmanaged switch automatically forwards traffic using MAC addresses, expanding the network without altering IP configuration or security settings. It is inexpensive compared to other networking equipment and requires no firmware updates, VLAN management, or routing knowledge.

A DSL modem or cable modem provides internet service but does not increase the number of available network ports beyond the single LAN port commonly offered. A firewall controls traffic but does not expand physical connectivity. Therefore, neither modem nor firewall options meet the requirement of adding more wired devices.

Thus, the unmanaged switch is the simplest, cheapest, and most practical choice for expanding connectivity in a home office environment.

PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) is required for high-end video cards.

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) utilizes the M.2 or PCIe interface for the fastest SSD performance.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Motherboard expansion slots and storage interfaces:

“High-end video cards require a PCIe slot, while NVMe drives use M.2 (PCIe) slots for the highest data transfer rates.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Motherboard and Storage

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

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A PoE (Power over Ethernet) switch transmits both data and electrical power over Ethernet cables to devices like wireless access points or VoIP phones. This is especially useful in areas where separate power sources are not available.

A network switch operates at Layer 2 (Data Link Layer) of the OSI model and forwards traffic using MAC addresses. CompTIA A+ teaches that switches maintain a MAC address table, learning which devices reside on each port. When a frame arrives, the switch checks the destination MAC address and forwards it only to the appropriate port, reducing unnecessary traffic and improving performance.

Routers, on the other hand, operate at Layer 3 and forward traffic based on IP addresses, not MAC addresses. Firewalls inspect traffic for security policies and operate across multiple OSI layers but do not perform MAC-based forwarding. A gateway is a broad term that generally refers to a device connecting different networks or protocols, typically involving routing, not MAC-based switching.

Thus, the device specifically responsible for forwarding frames based on MAC address lookup is the switch.

If performance isnot a primary concernand the user requireslarge, cost-effective storage, a2TB 5400rpm SATA HDDis ideal. It offers high capacity at a lower price point than SSDs and faster HDDs.

Option A:NVMe drives offer exceptional speed but are significantly more expensive per GB and not necessary when read/write speed is not a concern.

Option B:RAID 1 improves redundancy but cuts usable capacity in half and uses expensive SSDs.

Option D:SAS drives are fast and reliable but are enterprise-grade and expensive overkill for desktop use.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.3: Given a scenario, install and configure storage devices.

CompTIA A+ explains that radio frequency (RF) connections use electromagnetic waves instead of copper or optical cabling. Satellite uses RF signals transmitted to and from orbiting satellites, while cellular networks (3G/4G/5G) use RF communications via cell towers.

Cable uses coaxial wired infrastructure, DSL uses telephone lines, Ethernet is twisted-pair copper, and fiber uses light instead of RF.

Satellite and cellular are the only technologies in the list that rely on wireless radio frequency transmission as their medium. The A+ networking domain emphasizes understanding the physical media of WAN technologies and distinguishing wired vs. wireless connectivity, making B and D the correct answers.

CompTIA A+ repeatedly highlights that modern motherboards require two power connectors:

The 24-pin ATX main power connector

The 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector (EPS connector)

If the CPU power connector is missing, the system will not POST, even though other components appear to have power. This is a very common mistake after replacing PSUs and is specifically noted in CompTIA materials as a frequent cause of “no boot” scenarios.

Insufficient wattage usually causes instability, not a total failure to start. RAM is unrelated to powering on. Redundant PSUs are used in servers, not gaming PCs.

Thus, the missing CPU power connector is the correct diagnosis and matches A+ hardware troubleshooting guidelines.

If the system reports“Bootable device not found”, and the BIOS is configured correctly, the next step is torun diagnostics on the hard driveto check for physical or logical failure. It could be a sign of afailing drive or corrupt boot sector.

Option A:Reformatting the drive would erase data not a diagnostic step.

Option C:RAM does not affect whether a drive is bootable.

Option D:Replacing the drive should only be doneafter diagnostics confirm failure.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.5: Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to storage devices.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract (Aligned With CompTIA A+ 220-1201 Study Guide)

CompTIA A+ Core 1 memory standards describe the differences between DDR generations. One of the key improvements in DDR4 over DDR3 is reduced operating voltage, which allows lower power consumption and increased efficiency.

DDR3 operates at 1.5V (some variants 1.35V)

DDR4 operates at 1.2V (some variants 1.05V LPDDR4)

This lower voltage is a recognized defining characteristic separating DDR4 from DDR3.

Other differences such as increased speed and internal bank structure exist, but the question specifically asks for the characteristic that differentiates DDR4 from DDR3 — and voltage is the correct, primary distinction used in CompTIA A+ materials.

Why the other options are incorrect

B. Higher latency

DDR4 generally has slightly higher CAS latency numbers, but due to increased speed, real latency is similar. This is not the standard differentiator referenced by CompTIA.

C. Increased DIMM width

DDR3 and DDR4 standard DIMMs both have a 64-bit data width.

D. Single-sided modules

Both DDR3 and DDR4 can be single- or double-sided; not a differentiating factor.

Final Answer: A

PoE (Power over Ethernet) allows both data and electrical power to be delivered over the same Ethernet cable. A PoE injector adds power to Ethernet cables for devices that need it.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Networking hardware:

“Power over Ethernet (PoE) technology and PoE injectors enable both power and data transmission to compatible network devices like access points and IP cameras.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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Mobile Device Management (MDM) allows IT departments to enforce compliance controls, such as restricting the installation of unapproved software, on laptops and mobile devices.

Why Not A (EDR): Endpoint Detection and Response focuses on detecting and mitigating security threats, not compliance controls.

Why Not B (VPN): Virtual Private Networks provide secure connections but do not enforce software installation policies.

Why Not D (SaaS): Software as a Service refers to software delivery models and does not enforce compliance controls.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.7, device management and security​.

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) hosts user desktops on centralized servers rather than physical PCs. Users access a virtual desktop session remotely through thin clients, laptops, or web browsers. The CompTIA A+ cloud-computing domain explains that VDI improves manageability, security, and resource efficiency by allowing IT to centralize OS images, apps, and updates.

SaaS provides applications not desktops. RMM is for monitoring and managing devices. Containers virtualize applications, not full desktops.

VDI enables organizations to avoid purchasing physical desktops while still delivering full computing environments to users, which aligns with the A+ virtualization objectives and remote-access concepts.

Cloud storage platforms—such as OneDrive, Google Drive, and Dropbox—use synchronization to ensure that files updated on one device automatically update on all connected devices. CompTIA A+ defines synchronization as a key cloud characteristic that keeps local folders and cloud-stored versions consistent, enabling seamless multi-device collaboration.

Synchronization allows users to:

Modify files offline and have them sync once online

Access identical data on laptops, desktops, and mobile devices

Ensure real-time updates across multiple users or clients

Maintain version consistency and conflict resolution

A network share (A) is local to an organization and does not automatically sync across devices. Availability (C) relates to uptime and reliability, not file updates. Metered utilization (D) refers to cloud billing models where usage is tracked, not data syncing.

Thus, synchronization is the capability that ensures local folders update dynamically whenever changes occur.

An MX (Mail Exchange) record specifies the mail server responsible for receiving email for a domain.

Why Not A (CNAME): CNAME is used for domain aliasing, not for email delivery.

Why Not B (SRV): SRV records are used to locate specific services, not mail servers.

Why Not D (SOA): SOA records provide domain information but do not handle email.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, DNS record types​.

CompTIA A+ explains that Wi-Fi issues at the edges of a building are typically caused by weak signal coverage, not client configuration. The recommended solution is to add additional wireless access points (APs) or mesh extenders to expand coverage and eliminate dead zones.

Enabling 5GHz would worsen the problem because 5GHz has shorter range and penetrates walls less effectively than 2.4GHz. Flushing DNS affects name resolution, not wireless signal strength. Upgrading the NIC to Wi-Fi 6 improves maximum throughput but still depends on sufficient signal, which the user does not have.

Additional APs ensure strong signal-to-noise ratio, consistent throughput, and stable roaming all solutions emphasized in the A+ wireless troubleshooting section. Therefore, option D is the correct and CompTIA-aligned fix.

The baseline documentation says the valid network range ends at 192.168.232.255, but the user’s gateway is 192.168.233.1, which is outside the permitted network range. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that devices must have a gateway inside their own subnet.

Given a mask of 255.255.255.0, the user’s subnet is 192.168.223.x, so the gateway must be in 192.168.223.x, not 192.168.233.x.

DNS settings are public and acceptable. The IP address and subnet mask are valid within the documented address space.

Therefore, the incorrect setting is the gateway, which prevents external routing. Correcting it resolves the connection issue, matching CompTIA’s routing and TCP/IP troubleshooting procedures.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted, secure tunnel across a public or untrusted network. It uses authentication credentials to ensure that only authorized users can connect, keeping data safe from interception.

A managed switch provides advanced features such as traffic monitoring and VLAN configuration, allowing a technician to view network statistics for devices on the local subnet.

Why Not B (Router): A router connects different networks and directs traffic between them but does not provide detailed subnet-level statistics.

Why Not C (Access point): Access points provide wireless connectivity but lack traffic monitoring features.

Why Not D (Firewall): A firewall filters traffic but is not used for monitoring detailed statistics on a local subnet.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 2.6, network monitoring tools​.

An older HDMI cable version may not support 4K resolution. For 4K output, both the device and the cable must support HDMI 2.0 or higher.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Display troubleshooting:

“Ensure the correct version of HDMI cable is used for high-resolution outputs like 4K. Older cables may be limited to 1080p.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Display and Video

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

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Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

CompTIA A+ VoIP and network performance topics stress the importance of Quality of Service (QoS) and traffic separation.

Creating a separate VLAN for VoIP:

Reduces congestion

Prioritizes voice traffic

Prevents voice packets from competing with data traffic

Improves latency, jitter, and packet loss issues during peak hours

This directly fixes intermittent VoIP quality issues.

Why the other options are incorrect

B. Route calls through a gigabit port – Internal port speed is not the bottleneck; congestion is.

C. Shielded cable – Does not solve bandwidth or QoS issues.

D. Increase bit rate – Makes the problem worse, requiring more bandwidth.

CompTIA A+ explains that DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting, and Conformance) relies on TXT DNS records to define its policies. TXT records allow administrators to publish arbitrary text-based configuration data, including DKIM and SPF policies, which DMARC references.

MX records identify mail servers, A records map IP addresses, and CNAME records create aliases none are used to store DMARC policy rules.

DMARC improves email authenticity by requiring SPF and DKIM alignment and specifying how receiving servers should handle failed validations. The A+ exam explicitly mentions TXT records as the method used for SPF, DKIM, and DMARC storage.

Therefore, the correct answer is the TXT record, which stores the policy used by DMARC to authenticate senders and prevent spoofing.

An IDE hard drive uses a Molex connector for power. This 4-pin connector is a standard for older drives.

Why Not A (F type): F type connectors are used for coaxial cables in video and internet applications.

Why Not B (SC): SC connectors are for fiber optic cables.

Why Not D (Lightning): Lightning connectors are for Apple devices.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.1, cable types and connectors​.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

To enable file sharing across different operating systems, CompTIA A+ emphasizes the use of:

✔ SMB (Server Message Block)

The primary file-sharing protocol used by Windows.

Also supported on macOS and Linux (via Samba).

Allows shared folders, printers, and network browsing.

✔ FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

A cross-platform file transfer service supported by all major OSs.

Commonly used to upload/download files between systems of different types.

These two protocols are explicitly listed in CompTIA objectives under network protocols and file services.

Why the other options are incorrect

A. NTP – Time synchronization, not file sharing.

C. IMAP – Email protocol, not related to file sharing.

E. ROP – Not a file-sharing protocol (Return-Oriented Programming = security exploit).

F. LDAP – Directory service for authentication, not file sharing.

Final Answer: B, D

When a device shows asnot connectedeven though it previously paired, the most effective action is tore-pair the devices. This resets the Bluetooth connection, clears any corruption in pairing profiles, and re-establishes communication.

Option A:Entering a PIN is only relevant during initial pairing and may not be prompted again.

Option B:Turning off Wi-Fi doesn’t typically affect Bluetooth; they operate on similar frequencies but don’t conflict this way in normal use.

Option D:If Bluetooth were disabled, the device wouldn’t appear at all, not just show as “not connected.”

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.5: Given a scenario, connect and configure accessories and ports of mobile devices.

A. Run the maintenance application:

Most modern printers include a built-in maintenance application that can calibrate the print heads and correct alignment issues. Running this tool is the first step to address misalignment.

Incorrect Options:

B. Clean the rollers: Cleaning rollers is typically done to resolve paper feed or jamming issues, not alignment problems.

C. Upgrade the firmware: While updating firmware is beneficial for performance improvements, it is not the first step for fixing alignment.

D. Reinstall the drivers: Misaligned printing is usually hardware-related, not a driver issue.

Key Takeaway: The maintenance application should be run first to resolve alignment issues in a newly installed printer.

Client virtualization involves installing an application on a server and enabling multiple users to run the application simultaneously via virtualized sessions. This eliminates the need for individual installations on local machines.

Why Not B (Software as a Service): SaaS delivers software over the internet and does not require local installations but is managed by a third party, not the organization itself.

Why Not C (Sandboxing): Sandboxing is for isolating applications for security testing, not for concurrent user access.

Why Not D (Embedded software): Embedded software is installed on hardware devices, not shared across multiple users.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization concepts​.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. This includes virtual servers, storage, and networking. Deploying server machines falls under IaaS since the organization is responsible for managing the OS and applications on top of the infrastructure.

A Hardware Security Module (HSM) securely manages cryptographic keys, including those used to protect credit card chips.

Why Not A (TLS): TLS secures data in transit, not encryption key storage.

Why Not B (AMD): AMD refers to processors, not security modules.

Why Not D (ARM): ARM is a processor architecture, not a cryptographic security solution.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, cryptographic hardware​.

CompTIA A+ teaches that vertical lines on scanned or copied documents but not printed documents indicate a dirty or smudged scanner glass or ADF glass strip. Dust, ink smears, or debris create a line because the scanning sensor repeatedly passes over the same contaminated area.

If printing works normally, internal printer components such as the transfer roller or pickup rollers are not at fault. Maintenance kits apply to internal wear components like rollers, belts, or fusers not scanning artifacts.

Cleaning the scanner glass or ADF strip directly addresses this common problem. The A+ exam frequently includes troubleshooting questions about print vs. scan artifacts, and this scenario is a classic example.

Therefore, the correct solution is to clean the glass bed (or ADF strip).

The 12VHPWR connector can supply up to 600 watts of power, designed for high-end graphics cards.

Why Not A (400W): This is less than the connector’s maximum capability.

Why Not B (MOW): This is an invalid option.

Why Not D (700W): The maximum supported power is 600W.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.4, power supply and connectors​.

A workstation running three high-end GPUs requires a power supply capable of both high wattage and stable, reliable output. In CompTIA A+ power supply fundamentals, modularity and redundancy are emphasized for high-performance and mission-critical systems.

Modularity (B) allows the technician to connect only the necessary cables, reducing clutter, improving airflow, and enabling proper cable routing to multiple GPUs. High-end graphics cards require multiple PCIe connectors, and modular PSUs provide the flexibility to attach the exact number of required GPU power cables. This is important for systems where space management and cooling efficiency directly affect performance and component longevity.

Redundancy (D) is critical for mission-critical workstations used for 3-D modeling and rendering. A redundant power supply ensures that if one PSU module fails, the system continues running without interruption. CompTIA A+ highlights redundancy as a key feature in professional environments where uptime is essential. These systems typically use dual hot-swappable power modules to guarantee continuous power delivery.

The other options do not meaningfully address the requirements. A 12V output is standard on all PSUs. A 20-pin connector is outdated; modern motherboards use 24-pin. The 3.3V rail is not relevant to GPU loads, and 240 VAC input only refers to wall power compatibility, not PSU capability. Therefore, modularity and redundancy best meet the workstation’s needs.

For a device to communicate on a network, it must have a valid IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway configured.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.2 – Network configuration:

“A valid IP address, subnet mask, and gateway are required for network connectivity and communication outside the local network.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Network Configuration

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.2

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Ultra HD (UHD), also referred to as4K UHD, has a resolution of3840x2160. It's four times the resolution of standard 1080p (Full HD), offering more screen real estate and sharper images.

Option A (1920x1080):Full HD (FHD), not UHD.

Option B (2048x1080):DCI 2K used in cinema, not common for Ultra HD.

Option D (7680x4320):Known as 8K UHD, not standard Ultra HD.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 1.7: Compare and contrast display technologies and their features.

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If print quality remains poor after replacing the ink cartridge, the next step is to clean the printheads. Printheads can become clogged with dried ink, especially in inkjet printers, causing streaks or faded output.

From the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshoot printing problems:

“Poor print quality after replacing cartridges is commonly caused by clogged or dirty printheads. Use the printer's cleaning cycle or manually clean the printheads as needed.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 – Common ports and protocols:

"Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1

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If a printer is set to use a special tray (for cards/invitations) but a different type of print job is attempted (like a letter), a paper tray setting mismatch can cause errors. Changing the tray setting to match the print media resolves the issue.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshooting printers:

“If print jobs fail when media type changes, verify and adjust the paper tray settings to match the required output.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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Inkjet printers are the best choice for a small company seeking full-color printing with a minimal initial cost. While they have higher operating costs (due to ink), they are affordable and capable of high-quality color output.

Why Not A (Thermal printer): Thermal printers are not designed for color printing and are typically used for labels or receipts.

Why Not C (Dot matrix printer): Dot matrix printers are outdated, noisy, and do not support full-color printing.

Why Not D (Laser printer): Laser printers have lower running costs but a higher initial purchase price, especially for color models.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 4.6, printer types​.