220-1201 CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam (2025) Questions and Answers

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation (100–150+ words):

Secure printing ensures that print jobs are not immediately output to the tray but instead held in a secure queue. The user must enter a PIN, password, or badge authentication directly at the printer to release the job. CompTIA A+ emphasizes secure printing as the correct method for environments where sensitive information such as HR files, performance reviews, or confidential reports must not be viewed by unauthorized individuals.

Audit logging tracks usage but does not protect documents from being seen on the printer tray. Wired connectivity has no relation to security or confidentiality. Duplex is simply a printing mode.

Secure printing is widely used in corporate environments so shared devices can remain shared without compromising sensitive data. The A+ curriculum describes this as a security control that ensures confidentiality in shared-print environments, making Secure Printing the proper solution.

correct answer is "Overclocking" and "Reduce CPU Clock speed" CPU is at 4.5 Ghz when normal is 3.2 Ghz. Overclocking too much can cause freezes, and this is a gaming computer sothe user probably took it too far. http://blog.logicalincrements.com/2018/12/4-troubleshooting-tips-overclocking-pc/

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers because it can detect and correct memory errors, providing greater stability and reliability for mission-critical environments.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Types of RAM:

“Servers often require ECC memory, which can detect and correct single-bit errors, preventing data corruption and increasing system reliability.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Memory Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

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C. Installing redundant PSUs (Power Supply Units):

Redundant PSUs provide fault tolerance by ensuring that if one power supply fails, another will take over seamlessly.

This is a cost-effective way to increase uptime while waiting for the UPSs to arrive.

Incorrect Options:

A. Purchasing backup generators: Generators are costly and are typically used for long-term outages, not as an immediate or cost-effective solution.

B. Increasing input voltage: This is not a practical solution to hardware failures or power issues.

D. Activating a hot site: A hot site is an expensive, fully operational backup facility that would not be a cost-effective solution for this scenario.

Key Takeaway: Installing redundant PSUs is a cost-effective way to balance uptime requirements in case of power or hardware failure.

The digitizer is the component responsible for detecting touch input on a screen. If touch is not registering and there's no physical damage, the digitizer may be faulty.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.1 – Mobile device hardware:

“If a touchscreen device does not respond to input and the screen is intact, the digitizer (touch sensor) may be defective.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Mobile Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.1

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The baseline documentation says the valid network range ends at 192.168.232.255, but the user’s gateway is 192.168.233.1, which is outside the permitted network range. CompTIA A+ emphasizes that devices must have a gateway inside their own subnet.

Given a mask of 255.255.255.0, the user’s subnet is 192.168.223.x, so the gateway must be in 192.168.223.x, not 192.168.233.x.

DNS settings are public and acceptable. The IP address and subnet mask are valid within the documented address space.

Therefore, the incorrect setting is the gateway, which prevents external routing. Correcting it resolves the connection issue, matching CompTIA’s routing and TCP/IP troubleshooting procedures.

A workstation running three high-end GPUs requires a power supply capable of both high wattage and stable, reliable output. In CompTIA A+ power supply fundamentals, modularity and redundancy are emphasized for high-performance and mission-critical systems.

Modularity (B) allows the technician to connect only the necessary cables, reducing clutter, improving airflow, and enabling proper cable routing to multiple GPUs. High-end graphics cards require multiple PCIe connectors, and modular PSUs provide the flexibility to attach the exact number of required GPU power cables. This is important for systems where space management and cooling efficiency directly affect performance and component longevity.

Redundancy (D) is critical for mission-critical workstations used for 3-D modeling and rendering. A redundant power supply ensures that if one PSU module fails, the system continues running without interruption. CompTIA A+ highlights redundancy as a key feature in professional environments where uptime is essential. These systems typically use dual hot-swappable power modules to guarantee continuous power delivery.

The other options do not meaningfully address the requirements. A 12V output is standard on all PSUs. A 20-pin connector is outdated; modern motherboards use 24-pin. The 3.3V rail is not relevant to GPU loads, and 240 VAC input only refers to wall power compatibility, not PSU capability. Therefore, modularity and redundancy best meet the workstation’s needs.

The symptoms clearly point to a hardware-level signal degradation issue, which is most commonly caused by a malfunctioning or damaged Wi-Fi antenna in the smartphone. CompTIA A+ mobile device troubleshooting emphasizes comparing the affected device's signal strength with other nearby devices. In this case, other devices in the same location have stronger Wi-Fi signals, meaning the network itself is functioning normally. The consistent low signal across multiple networks strongly suggests antenna failure.

Modern smartphones use internal antenna assemblies located along the frame or behind the back cover. If the antenna becomes loose, damaged, or obstructed, the device may show weak or unstable Wi-Fi connectivity, especially in crowded environments where strong, stable reception is required to maintain a connection.

Option B (outdated Wi-Fi standard) would limit speed but not cause significant signal weakness compared to surrounding devices. Option C (interference) affects all devices in an area similarly—not just one device. Option D (power settings) may reduce background activity or scanning frequency, but it does not cause consistently low signal strength.

Therefore, the most likely cause is a malfunctioning Wi-Fi antenna inside the smartphone.

ECC (Error-Correcting Code) RAM is commonly used in servers to provide error detection and correction, improving reliability in critical systems. It is designed to detect and correct single-bit errors, ensuring data integrity in environments where stability is paramount.

Option A (SODIMM): Incorrect. SODIMM is typically used in laptops, not servers.

Option B (Rambus): Incorrect. Rambus is an outdated RAM type and not commonly used today.

Option C (DDR3): Incorrect. While DDR3 is a type of RAM, it is not specific to servers and does not provide error correction.

Changing the page orientation(e.g., fromportrait to landscape) allows wider columns to fit on one side of the page. This maintains readability while continuing to use duplex printing.

Option A:Disabling duplex defeats the goal of printing on both sides.

Option B:May help, but could make the document harder to read if the font is too small.

Option D:Unlikely to resolve formatting issues related to layout and dimensions.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.7: Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems.

An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) protects systems against power outages by providing temporary backup power, giving users time to save data and safely shut down.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.3 – Power protection:

“A UPS supplies backup power to prevent data loss and hardware damage during outages or surges, ensuring system integrity.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Power Protection

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.3

When a laptop powers on but the screen is blank, the quickest way to isolate the problem is to connect to an external monitor. This helps determine if the issue is with the laptop display or with the graphics subsystem.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.1 – Troubleshoot common hardware problems:

“A blank screen on a laptop with power indicators lit should be tested with an external display first to rule out a faulty screen or ribbon cable.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Laptop Display Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.1

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Looking at the network configurations and outputs from both PCs and servers, here are the possible issues and solutions:

1. PC 1

Issue: The IP address for PC1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with Server 1 (which also uses 192.168.1.1).

Solution: Change the IP address on PC1 to a unique one within the range, like 192.168.1.3.

2. PC 2

Issue: PC 2 is configured with 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with Server 2 that has the same IP address.

Solution: Update the IP address on PC 2 to something unique, like 192.168.1.4.

3. Server 1

Issue: The IP address for Server 1 is 192.168.1.1, which conflicts with PC1.

Solution: Since Server 1 and PC1 are using the same IP address, change one of them. For Server 1, you could change the IP address to 192.168.1.5.

4. Server 2

Issue: Server 2 is using the IP address 192.168.1.2, which conflicts with PC2.

Solution: Update Server 2 to use a different IP address, such as 192.168.1.6.

General Remediation:

The primary problem here is overlapping IP addresses, leading to connectivity issues. Each device on the network must have a unique IP address. After making these changes, ensure that all devices can communicate properly by testing the connection between devices and verifying they can access shared resources.

Wall Outlet

(empty — nothing goes directly to the wall)

Surge Protector (Power Source: Wall Outlet)

Printer

Scanner

UPS (Power Source: Surge Protector)

Computer

Monitor

Cable Modem

Wi-Fi Router

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Answer of both steps below.

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Packet loss

Plug an Ethernet cable into the workstation

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The degraded status on Server 2 indicates a RAID-5 issue, typically due to a failed or failing drive. In RAID-5 configurations, when one drive fails, the system can still operate but with reduced performance as parity data is used to rebuild missing data on-the-fly.

Recommended Replacement Drive:

To minimize performance degradation, the replacement drive should be:

SAS HDD with the same specifications (64KB stripe size, no read-ahead, and write-back policy).

Matching the configuration exactly ensures seamless integration and optimizes recovery speed in the RAID-5 array.

In RAID-5, degraded performance is expected when one drive fails, as parity data needs to rebuild missing information during each read/write process. Replacing the failed drive restores the RAID array to optimal status, reducing the load on existing drives and returning the system to normal read/write performance. The write-back policy and disabled disk cache settings are designed to reduce latency and increase efficiency, essential for handling real-time applications.

A user reports poor performance on the

application server.

INSTRUCTIONS

Click on Server 1 and Server 2 and review

the information presented in each chart to

determine which drives need to be replaced.

Select the appropriate replacement drive

that should be used, for the least

performance degradation to the server.

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Check the exhibit diagram for both parts.

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Part 2

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CompTIA A+ repeatedly highlights that modern motherboards require two power connectors:

The 24-pin ATX main power connector

The 4-pin or 8-pin CPU power connector (EPS connector)

If the CPU power connector is missing, the system will not POST, even though other components appear to have power. This is a very common mistake after replacing PSUs and is specifically noted in CompTIA materials as a frequent cause of “no boot” scenarios.

Insufficient wattage usually causes instability, not a total failure to start. RAM is unrelated to powering on. Redundant PSUs are used in servers, not gaming PCs.

Thus, the missing CPU power connector is the correct diagnosis and matches A+ hardware troubleshooting guidelines.

A Virtual Private Network (VPN) creates an encrypted, secure tunnel across a public or untrusted network. It uses authentication credentials to ensure that only authorized users can connect, keeping data safe from interception.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

PIN printing (also known as secure printing) ensures that documents are held in a queue until the authorized user enters a PIN directly at the printer. This prevents unauthorized viewing of confidential documents.

RAID 1 is known as mirroring. It duplicates all data to both drives simultaneously, providing redundancy in the event of a single drive failure. CompTIA A+ teaches that RAID 1 is ideal when reliability is the priority and only two drives are available exactly matching this scenario.

RAID 0 offers no redundancy. RAID 5 requires three or more drives. RAID 10 requires four or more drives.

Since the workstation has only two drives, RAID 1 is the only RAID configuration providing data protection and is heavily featured in CompTIA’s coverage of RAID technologies, their requirements, and their purposes in fault tolerance.

Asandboxis an isolated virtual environment used totest or run applications securelywithout risk to the host or network. It prevents the VM from communicating with external systems, making it ideal for testing malware or suspicious software.

Option A (VDI):Virtual Desktop Infrastructure allows network communication; it does not restrict it.

Option B (Private cloud):Refers to a cloud deployment model, not a communication barrier.

Option D (Type 1 hypervisor):Runs VMs directly on hardware and doesnotinherently block communication.

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 4.1: Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.

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CompTIA A+ highlights that swollen or expanding batteries especially lithium-ion batteries can physically warp the laptop chassis, keyboard, or trackpad. This happens when internal chemical reactions cause the battery to swell. Distorted keyboards, bulging trackpads, and lifted chassis panels are classic symptoms of battery failure.

RAM and HDD issues do not cause physical deformation. A broken keyboard may malfunction electronically, but it will not bulge upward unless forced by something underneath typically an expanding battery.

The A+ safety domain also warns technicians not to puncture swollen batteries and to replace them immediately due to fire hazards.

Therefore, a failing (swollen) laptop battery is the most likely cause.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation:

Laptop Wi-Fi antennas run through the display bezel and connect via small coaxial clips. After motherboard replacement, these are often not fully seated, causing weak or unstable Wi-Fi.

CompTIA Concepts:

Laptop hardware troubleshooting

Antenna connector checks after repair

WLAN performance issues caused by antenna misalignment

Application virtualization allows legacy software to run in a virtualized environment while the operating system remains current. It isolates the application from the OS, ensuring compatibility without downgrading the OS.

Why Not A (Shared resources): This relates to resource sharing, not application compatibility.

Why Not B (System sandbox): Sandboxes isolate applications for security testing, not compatibility.

Why Not C (Test development): Test environments are used for development, not running legacy applications.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 4.2, virtualization concepts​.

A Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip used to enable encryption technologies such as BitLocker, providing secure key storage for system-wide encryption.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.5 – Security features:

“A TPM chip is required for system encryption, storing encryption keys securely on the hardware.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Security Hardware

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.5

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Comprehensive and Detailed Step-by-Step Explanation:

S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology):

S.M.A.R.T. is a monitoring system integrated into modern HDDs and SSDs that detects and reports on various indicators of drive health and reliability.

A S.M.A.R.T. error indicates that the drive is showing signs of impending failure, even if the PC continues to boot and work normally for the time being.

Next Steps:

The appropriate action is to replace the hard drive (HDD) because a S.M.A.R.T. error is an early warning of possible hardware failure. Ignoring the warning could result in data loss if the drive fails completely.

The technician should also back up the user's data immediately to avoid losing critical information.

Incorrect Options:

B. Update the PC's BIOS: While keeping the BIOS updated is a good practice, it does not address the S.M.A.R.T. error, which is specific to the HDD.

C. Close the ticket: Closing the ticket without resolving the issue would be improper, as the S.M.A.R.T. error is a hardware problem that needs to be addressed to prevent future data loss or downtime.

D. Change the NIC: The NIC (Network Interface Card) is unrelated to the storage system and would not resolve a S.M.A.R.T. error.

Key Takeaway:

A S.M.A.R.T. error is a critical indicator of HDD health issues, and the drive should be replaced as soon as possible. Backing up data is also essential.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation From Exact Extract:

RAID 6 uses two parity blocks, allowing it to tolerate the failure of two drives without losing data.

Whenever a CPU heat sink is removed or replaced, thermal paste must be reapplied. Thermal paste fills microscopic gaps between the CPU heat spreader and the heat sink, ensuring efficient heat transfer. Without it, there is a significant air gap, which acts as an insulator, causing CPU temperatures to rise dramatically even under light load. CompTIA A+ stresses thermal compound application as a key step in CPU cooling installation.

The scenario indicates that temperatures increased drastically after upgrading to a better heat sink. A higher-performing heat sink should improve temperatures, not worsen them—unless a critical installation step was missed. Missing thermal paste is the most common cause of this symptom and easily explains the sudden overheating.

Decreased CPU voltage would lower temperatures, not raise them. Higher fan RPM increases cooling efficiency, not reduces it. Airflow interruption is possible but less likely in a simple heat sink upgrade scenario unless the technician installed the CPU cooler incorrectly; however, the most direct and common cause described by CompTIA is missing thermal paste.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

Input voltage must be validated to ensure desktop PCs can operate in different regions with varying power standards (e.g., 110V in North America vs. 220V in Europe). Failure to verify input voltage compatibility can lead to hardware damage or operational issues.

Option B (BIOS language support): Incorrect. While language support may be helpful, it is not critical for hardware deployment across regions.

Option C (Supply chain security): Incorrect. This refers to ensuring secure sourcing of components but does not directly impact deployment.

Option D (Power efficiency): Incorrect. Power efficiency may be important for energy savings but is not relevant to regional compatibility.

NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) drives commonly use the M.2 interface and provide the highest performance for SSDs.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.2 – Storage devices:

“NVMe drives connect via the M.2 slot and provide the fastest data transfer rates available for storage devices.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Storage Technologies

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.2

When troubleshooting intermittent latency to a remote internal resource, CompTIA A+ recommends using tools that help identify where latency occurs and whether it is consistent or fluctuating over time. The best tools for this scenario are ping -t and tracert.

Ping -t (B) sends continuous ICMP echo requests, allowing the technician to observe packet loss, fluctuating response times, or timeouts. This helps identify intermittent connectivity problems that occur at specific times, such as bandwidth congestion, routing instability, or wireless interference.

Tracert (F) maps each hop between the local workstation and the remote office. If latency spikes occur only after a particular hop—such as a VPN tunnel, MPLS gateway, or inter-office router—that device becomes the suspected bottleneck. This makes tracert essential for isolating WAN-related slowdowns.

Ipconfig /all (A) only provides local configuration and does not diagnose latency. Nslookup (C) is for DNS testing—not latency to a specific internal host. Examining switchports (D) helps with local issues but not remote latency. QoS (E) is a solution, not a troubleshooting step. Calling ISP (G) may be premature unless testing confirms ISP-related issues.

Thus, ping -t and tracert are the correct diagnostic tools.

Port 23 is used by Telnet, an unencrypted remote connection protocol that poses significant security risks. Disabling Telnet and using secure alternatives like SSH (port 22) is best practice.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 2.1 – Common ports and protocols:

"Port 23 (Telnet) provides unencrypted remote access and should be disabled to increase security. Use SSH (port 22) for secure remote connections."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 2: Ports and Protocols

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 2.1

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A sandbox is a secure, isolated environment used to test potentially harmful software or code. It prevents the software from affecting the main system, allowing safe malware testing. Thismethod is standard in cybersecurity best practices.

Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) hosts user desktops on centralized servers rather than physical PCs. Users access a virtual desktop session remotely through thin clients, laptops, or web browsers. The CompTIA A+ cloud-computing domain explains that VDI improves manageability, security, and resource efficiency by allowing IT to centralize OS images, apps, and updates.

SaaS provides applications not desktops. RMM is for monitoring and managing devices. Containers virtualize applications, not full desktops.

VDI enables organizations to avoid purchasing physical desktops while still delivering full computing environments to users, which aligns with the A+ virtualization objectives and remote-access concepts.

An internal cloud platform operated exclusively for a single organization is a private cloud, providing dedicated resources and enhanced control.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.7 – Cloud models:

“A private cloud is provisioned for exclusive use by a single organization, typically managed internally or by a third party, and may be hosted on-premises.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: Cloud Concepts

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.7

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Assigning astatic IP addressto a network printer ensures it always retains the same address, allowing users and print servers to consistently reach it even after a reboot or network refresh.

Option B (Private address):Refers to address ranges (e.g., 192.168.x.x) doesn't guarantee address persistence.

Option C (Wi-Fi):Is a connection method, not a method of IP assignment.

Option D (Dynamic addressing):Via DHCP, which can change over time unless reservations are made (less reliable).

CompTIA A+ Core 1 Exam Objective Reference:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, install and configure printers.

Comprehensive and Detailed Explanation

CompTIA troubleshooting procedures emphasize confirming input source settings on the external display device.

Even if the HDMI cable is connected properly:

The projector must be set to the correct input source (HDMI 1, HDMI 2, etc.).

If the source is incorrect, the laptop will not display, even though the laptop output is functioning normally.

Since the projector is powered on, and the laptop is already set to “Duplicate,” and cables are good, the most likely cause is:

✔ The projector is set to the wrong input source.

This is a common real-world issue covered under "video and projector troubleshooting."

Why the other answers are incorrect

A. Projector may support HDMI; this is not the “most likely.”

B. “Extend” is not required — “Duplicate” works for projectors.

C. A failed HDMI port is possible but not the most likely scenario.

Final Answer: D

SAS (Serial Attached SCSI) is a high-performance drive interface commonly found in enterprise environments and servers due to its reliability and speed. While SATA is more common in consumer systems, SAS is specifically designed for mission-critical applications, offering features like full-duplex operation and compatibility with SATA drives.

C. Initiate the system restore:

If the technician is confident that rolling back the system to a previous restore point will resolve the issue, the next logical step is to initiate the System Restore process.

System Restore allows the system to revert to a state before the OS update, which can eliminate the performance issues caused by the update.

Incorrect Options:

A. Document the findings: Documentation is important but should occur after resolving the issue.

B. Investigate any recent infrastructure changes: This is unnecessary if the issue is already attributed to the OS update.

D. Verify full system functionality: This step should be performed after the System Restore is completed.

Key Takeaway: When confident that rolling back will resolve the issue, the technician should proceed with initiating a System Restore to revert the OS.

DisplayPort is a fully digital video interface that supports HDCP (High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection), a digital rights-management protocol used to protect copyrighted content such as movies, streaming video, and Blu-ray playback. The CompTIA A+ study guide notes that DisplayPort and HDMI support HDCP, while analog connections like VGA and DVI-A do not support HDCP because analog signals cannot enforce digital content protection.

F-type connectors are used for coaxial cabling (cable TV, satellite), not digital video output. DisplayPort's support for encrypted high-definition video streams makes it the correct answer and aligns with CompTIA’s coverage of display connectors and digital content protection technologies.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) provides virtualized computing resources over the internet. This includes virtual servers, storage, and networking. Deploying server machines falls under IaaS since the organization is responsible for managing the OS and applications on top of the infrastructure.

A. Check the product manual for the procedure:

When hardware is not easily accessible, always consult the product manual for proper disassembly procedures. Forcing the cover can damage the laptop or void the warranty.

Product manuals often provide step-by-step instructions for safely accessing internal components.

Incorrect Options:

B. Use a pry tool to force the cover open: Forcing the cover can cause physical damage to the device.

C. Insert the wireless card into the M.2 slot: This step cannot be performed until the cover is properly removed.

D. Try to move the cover by sliding it in all directions: Randomly sliding the cover can cause damage if the correct removal method is not followed.

Key Takeaway: Always refer to the product manual to ensure safe and proper disassembly of laptop components.

When printing on preprinted forms, precise alignment is critical. If print output shifts downward on the page, the first step is to ensure that the correct paper type and form stock are loaded properly. CompTIA A+ emphasizes verifying media type and tray configuration when dealing with alignment issues, especially in environments using specialized or preformatted paper.

Preprinted forms often require thicker media, specialty settings, or exact tray loading orientation to ensure feeding accuracy. If the wrong paper type is selected on the printer or print driver, the printer may adjust feed rate, roller pressure, or margin expectations incorrectly, causing vertical misalignment. Thus, confirming the correct paper type is loaded—and that the printer is configured for that type—is the most fundamental starting point.

Orientation settings (C) could affect sideways alignment but not vertical shifting. Pickup rollers (D) can cause skewing or paper jams, but they generally do not cause consistent downward shifts. PostScript drivers (B) relate to graphic rendering but do not affect form alignment unless dealing with complex images, which is not indicated here.

Therefore, confirming correct paper type and loading aligns with CompTIA’s troubleshooting methodology: always check the simplest, most likely physical cause first—especially with form printing.

If a printer is set to use a special tray (for cards/invitations) but a different type of print job is attempted (like a letter), a paper tray setting mismatch can cause errors. Changing the tray setting to match the print media resolves the issue.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 4.3 – Troubleshooting printers:

“If print jobs fail when media type changes, verify and adjust the paper tray settings to match the required output.”

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 4: Printer Troubleshooting

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 4.3

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A managed switch allows an administrator to enable or disable individual ports as part of network security and management. If a port on a managed switch has been disabled, the device connected to that port will lose connectivity, which matches the scenario described.

Choppy or unintelligible audio is typically caused by issues with the microphone, such as poor quality, hardware defects, or misconfiguration.

Why Not A (Webcam): The webcam handles video, not audio.

Why Not B (Digitizer): A digitizer relates to touchscreens, not audio.

Why Not C (Inverter): Inverters manage power for displays, not audio.

CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1201), Section 3.6, audio troubleshooting​.

DNS contains different record types that serve specific purposes. To determine where incoming email should be delivered for a particular domain, DNS uses an MX (Mail Exchange) record. CompTIA A+ identifies MX records as essential for routing mail from external senders to the appropriate mail server assigned to a domain.

The MX record specifies:

The mail server hostname responsible for receiving messages

Priority values, which determine which server to try first

The server destination for SMTP traffic

When someone sends an email, the sending mail server queries DNS to find the MX record for the recipient’s domain. The SMTP server then relays the email to the server listed in that record.

CNAME is used for aliasing hostnames, TXT is used for verification/security (SPF, DKIM), and AAAA maps a hostname to an IPv6 address. None of these direct email delivery. Only MX records are designed to instruct mail servers where to deliver incoming email.

Thus, the correct answer is MX.

The key detail in the ipconfig output is that the system is receiving an IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, and DHCP server information via DHCP, but the DNS servers shown are 8.8.8.8 and 8.8.4.4, which are Google’s public DNS servers. In most corporate networks, DNS is provided internally by the DHCP server—usually the same device assigning the IP address. When DNS values are different from DHCP-provided defaults, it indicates manual DNS configuration.

CompTIA A+ emphasizes that mismatched DNS settings can cause browsing issues, name-resolution delays, or an inability to access internal resources. DNS is critical because it translates domain names into IP addresses; if manually configured, the device bypasses the organization’s DNS server and may not resolve internal hostnames.

The subnet mask is correct for a Class B private network subdivided using /24 (255.255.255.0). NetBIOS being enabled is common and not a cause of connectivity issues here. DHCP being enabled is normal and functioning correctly, as shown by the proper IP lease obtained.

Thus, the anomalous and most likely problematic configuration is manually configured DNS, making Option D correct.

RAID 0 (striping) provides the fastest read (and write) speeds at the lowest cost, as all disk capacity is used for storage and performance. However, it offers no redundancy.

From CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Official Study Guide, Objective 3.4 – RAID types:

"RAID 0 stripes data across multiple disks, offering the best performance and lowest cost but no fault tolerance."

Verified Source:

CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Official Study Guide, Chapter 3: RAID Levels

CompTIA Exam Objectives 220-1101, Domain 3.4

A Layer 3 switch is the optimal solution when multiple VLANs must intercommunicate while maintaining high performance and minimal hardware complexity. CompTIA A+ explains that Layer 3 switches combine the capabilities of switching (Layer 2) and routing (Layer 3), allowing VLAN traffic to be routed internally at wire speed, without the latency typically associated with traditional routers.

Layer 3 switches use hardware-based routing, meaning they forward inter-VLAN traffic using ASICs (Application-Specific Integrated Circuits). This allows them to achieve extremely fast throughput, ideal for environments like computer training institutes where multiple VLANs may be used for student labs, instructor networks, and administrative traffic.

A router (D) can route between VLANs but introduces more latency due to software-based routing and typically requires additional equipment. A Web application firewall (A) and DDoS appliance (B) are security devices unrelated to internal VLAN communication.

Because the institute requires minimal hardware and high-speed inter-VLAN communication, the Layer 3 switch is the only CompTIA-supported device that meets both requirements simultaneously.

The workstation's IP configuration (192.168.1.27/24 with gateway 192.168.1.1) shows that it has a correct IP address, correct subnet mask, and expected default gateway for a typical small office network. Because the IP is in the correct private range and not an APIPA address (169.254.x.x), this also confirms that DHCP is functioning properly. Therefore, option D (DHCP) cannot be the cause.

The user then pings the default gateway at 192.168.1.1, which should be the router—the device providing routing between local devices and outside networks. The repeated "Request timed out" responses indicate the workstation cannot reach the router at all. This type of failure points directly to a router outage, a powered-off router, a failed router interface, or a physical disconnection of the router from the switch.

If DNS (C) were the issue, the user would still be able to ping the IP address of the gateway because DNS is not required for IP-to-IP connectivity. A web server (A) has no relation to local gateway communication and does not affect workstation access.

Since the workstation has a valid IP but cannot reach its default gateway, the failure point is the router.