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AgilePM-Foundation Agile Project Management (AgilePM v3) Foundation Exam v3 update Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following reasons support why Agility in project management is always advantageous?

    Assumptions are often flawed

    Flexibility enables competitive advantage

    Uncertainty leads to reduced ambiguity

    Deferring decisions is advantageous

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3

B.

1, 2, 4

C.

1, 3, 4

D.

2, 3, 4

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Questions 5

Both numerical and subjective methods can build a picture of how effective your change interventions are. Which type of measure can help us to understand why, how, or what happened behind certain behaviors?

Options:

A.

Qualitative.

B.

Quantitative.

C.

Leading.

D.

Lagging.

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Questions 6

Which of the following roles may be substituted for a Scrum Master?

Options:

A.

Team Leader

B.

Project Manager

C.

Product Owner

D.

Developer

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Questions 7

Which of the following statements about diverse teams are true?

    Quicker to make decisions than teams of 'similars.'

    Members understand each other immediately.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

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Questions 8

While the definition of a Must Have requirement is clearly defined, the definition of Could Have and Should Have requirements can be less clear.

When, ideally, should the project team discuss and agree some objective criteria for how these requirements will be prioritized?

Options:

A.

During the pre-project phase

B.

During the Feasibility phase

C.

During the Foundations phase

D.

During the Development Phase

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Questions 9

How does AgilePM address risk management in the context of a project environment?

Options:

A.

By integrating risk management into the day-to-day project approach and relying on collaboration and transparency.

B.

By following a rigid, rule-based approach to ensure all risks are documented and tracked.

C.

By separating risk management from other project activities to ensure that it is treated independently.

D.

By emphasizing only contract negotiation over customer collaboration to ensure risk control.

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Questions 10

Which of the following is a DSMD principle?

Options:

A.

Build incrementally from firm foundations

B.

Build incrementally from Feasibility onwards

C.

Build incrementally in Timeboxes

D.

Build incrementally

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Questions 11

What DSDM Principles requires the transparency of all work being performed by the team?

Options:

A.

Principle 1- Focus on the Business Need

B.

Principle 1 – Build incrementally from Firm Foundations

C.

Principle 66-Develop iteratively

D.

Principle 8-Demonstrate Control

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Questions 12

Identify the missing words in the following sentence.

Principles 1 –Focus on the Business Need suggests that every decision taken during a project should be [?] – to deliver what the business needs to be delivered.

Options:

A.

The responsibility of the Business Sponsor

B.

Share between all of the project roles

C.

Viewed in light of the overriding project goal

D.

Made collaboratively

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Questions 13

Why do Line Leaders make effective Change Agents?

Options:

A.

They have local decision-making authority.

B.

As leaders, they are unaffected by the change.

C.

They can support and influence local staff.

D.

They have the time to dedicate to the change.

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Questions 14

What role is responsible for the delivery of the project from Foundations through to Deployment?

Options:

A.

Business Sponsor

B.

Business Visionary

C.

Project manager

D.

Technical Coordinator

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Questions 15

Which of the following statements about the Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ) are true?

    Should be revisited at the end of Foundations.

    Should be revisited each time Foundations is revisited.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true

B.

Only 2 is true

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true

D.

Neither 1 or 2 is true

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Questions 16

Which statement applies to the DSDM process?

Options:

A.

Can be configured and calibrated to cater for light or strong governance

B.

DSDM projects can deliver the phases in the DSDM process in any order

C.

Does not require the elaboration of supporting products for complex projects

D.

Provides an approach that can be used for all projects without change

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Questions 17

To show the change is on track, Change Managers must define and agree on a set of measures that reflect the desired outcomes. What are these often called?

Options:

A.

Islands of stability.

B.

Key performance indicators.

C.

Incremental milestones.

D.

Transition tranches.

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Questions 18

According to the brain science of resistance, which of the key neural factors is an example of a fixed mindset?

Options:

A.

Routine seeking.

B.

Emotional reaction to forced change.

C.

Cognitive rigidity.

D.

Short-term focus.

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Questions 19

Which should always be the first step in the Continuous Change Management Cycle?

Options:

A.

Ideas.

B.

Prioritization.

C.

Discovery.

D.

Action.

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Questions 20

Which of the following statements about a 'Force Field Analysis' are true?

    It can reveal both barriers to overcome and possible sources of resistance.

    It should be created independently by the change manager.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

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Questions 21

When assessing the impact and severity of options on how to handle change, not all costs are financial. What type of cost is reflected in the downtime experienced while staff are trained to use a new process or system?

Options:

A.

Productivity dip.

B.

Safety & Wellbeing.

C.

Reputational.

D.

Opportunity.

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Questions 22

Social neuroscience summarizes five brain processes involved in social situations using the mnemonic SCARF. What does the ‘F’ represent?

Options:

A.

Fairness.

B.

Faith.

C.

Fear.

D.

Fight.

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Questions 23

Which of the following statements, about selecting the appropriate communication channels for a change initiative, are true?

    If the aim is to achieve active engagement, then rich communication is essential.

    Leaner channels are suitable where there is little chance of misinterpretation.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

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Questions 24

When initially creating MoSCoW priorities, what is the primary focus?

Options:

A.

Project priorities

B.

Project increment priorities

C.

Timebox priorities

D.

Iterative Development priorities

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Questions 25

According to Tuckman, in what stage of the team development model are team members likely to want to test and challenge assumptions?

Options:

A.

Forming.

B.

Storming.

C.

Performing.

D.

Adjourning.

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Questions 26

How does change management contribute to benefits?

Options:

A.

Encourages users to make the best use of the new situation.

B.

Ensures dis-benefits are avoided.

C.

Provides ultimate accountability for the benefits of a change.

D.

Produces all of the outcomes required to deliver benefits.

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Questions 27

How does the Project Approach Questionnaire (PAQ) help in identifying and managing approach-based risks?

Options:

A.

By highlighting areas where the project’s culture, leadership, or governance may not align with AgilePM principles.

B.

By ensuring that all project team members agree with the AgilePM approach, thereby eliminating the need…

C.

By providing a one-time assessment at the project’s conclusion to identify risks retrospectively.

D.

By solely focusing on technical risks, ignoring cultural and leadership aspects.

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Questions 28

Which competence is NOT required within the Solution Development team?

Options:

A.

All members to be multi-skilled experts

B.

Business knowledge

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Willingness to work with other

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Questions 29

In the context of the project organization, which of the following are classed as External Stakeholders by Agile?

    Regulatory Authorities

    Developers

    Customers

    Employees

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3

B.

1, 2, 4

C.

1, 3, 4

D.

2, 3, 4

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Questions 30

What DSDM product is identified as a governance product because if may be used for purposes such as prioritization of a project within a portfolio?

Options:

A.

Terms of Reference

B.

Business Case

C.

Prioritized Requirements List

D.

Feasibility Assessment

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Questions 31

When using the Iterative Development technique, which of the following should each cycle include?

1. Though

2. Action

3. Control

4. Conversation

Options:

A.

1, 2, 3

B.

1, 2, 4

C.

1, 3, 4

D.

2, 3, 4

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Questions 32

Identify the missing words in the following sentence.

Each event and artifact of [?] has a clear role and is interconnected. If one is removed […] leg. (The end of the sentence appears cut off, but the key context is in the first part).

Options:

A.

Scrum

B.

AgilePM

C.

both Scrum and AgilePM

D.

all Agile approaches

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Questions 33

Which phase in the DSDM process aims to understand the scope of work and, in broad terms, how it will carried out, by whom, when and where?

Options:

A.

Foundations

B.

Feasibility

C.

Pre-Project

D.

Evolutionary Development

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Questions 34

Which of the following is NOT a Project role?

Options:

A.

Business Visionary

B.

Solution Architect

C.

Project Manager

D.

Solution Developer

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Questions 35

Which of the following statements are true?

    The 'change curve' describes a normal human reaction to change.

    The 'change curve' only applies to changes that are perceived as negative.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

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Questions 36

When should the quality of the evolving solution first be tesed?

Options:

A.

At the end of a Timebox

B.

At the end of a project.

C.

At the end of each increment

D.

As part of the iterative Development process

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Questions 37

According to Tuckman, in what stage of the team development model will members of the team be 'working collectively to achieve results'?

Options:

A.

Forming.

B.

Storming.

C.

Adjourning.

D.

Performing.

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Questions 38

What DSDM product reflects the approach to the management of the project as a whole and considers, from a management perspective, how the project will be organized and planned?

Options:

A.

Foundation Summary

B.

Delivery Plan

C.

Terms of Reference

D.

Management Approach Definition

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Questions 39

In which of the project variables does AgilePM recommend placing contingency?

Options:

A.

Time

B.

Cost

C.

Quality

D.

Features

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Questions 40

Which purpose relates to the instrumental Success Factors?

Options:

A.

Underpins the prioritization of requirements

B.

Informs the development of the Business Case

C.

Positions DSDM projects for a successful outcome

D.

Inform the development of the Terms of Reference

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Questions 41

In a free format Timebox, when should reviews take place?

Options:

A.

During the Kick-Off phase

B.

Throughout the body of the Timebox.

C.

During the Close.Out phase

D.

After the Timebox has been completed

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Questions 42

How does DSDM differ from most other Agile approaches?

Options:

A.

It focuses on the entire project lifecycle

B.

It focuses on the development of products

C.

It focuses on the delivery of products

D.

It focuses on the collaborative working of teams

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Questions 43

In what phase is it first established whether further investigation of the project is justified?

Options:

A.

Pre-Project

B.

Feasibility

C.

Foundations

D.

Evolutionary Development

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Questions 44

Which of the following statements about Product Development are true?

    It considers time-based drivers for key events, deliveries, and stakeholder involvement.

    The focus is mainly on what the product is, or needs to become, and how to achieve that.

Options:

A.

Only 1 is true.

B.

Only 2 is true.

C.

Both 1 and 2 are true.

D.

Neither 1 or 2 is true.

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Questions 45

What is defined as "The means by which an organization increases involvement of its employees and other stakeholders with organizational change"?

Options:

A.

Engagement.

B.

Change Agent.

C.

Sponsor.

D.

Line Leader.

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Exam Code: AgilePM-Foundation
Exam Name: Agile Project Management (AgilePM v3) Foundation Exam v3 update
Last Update: Nov 21, 2025
Questions: 150
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