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4A0-100 Nokia Scalable IP Networks Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What must occur for a LAG to become operational?

Options:

A.

There must be multiple ports assigned to the LAG.

B.

All ports in the LAG must be configured with the same characteristics.

C.

Auto-negotiation must be enabled on all ports in the LAG.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 5

Hosts in the same IP network share which common address feature?

Options:

A.

Same host numbers.

B.

Same IP address.

C.

First two bits of the IP address are set to 01.

D.

Same network prefix.

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Questions 6

How is Ethernet II different from Ethernet 802.3?

Options:

A.

Ethernet II can be used on broadcast networks where as 802.3 was designed for point-to-point networks.

B.

Ethernet II identifies its payload type where as 802.3 indicates the frame length.

C.

Ethernet II identifies its frame length while 802.3 indicates the payload type.

D.

Ethernet II and Ethernet 802.3 are two different names for the same protocol.

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Questions 7

What distance is supported using CAT-5 cabling for 10/100/1000 TX?

Options:

A.

100 m.

B.

500 m.

C.

1 Km.

D.

10 Km.

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Questions 8

Which of the following statements about the IP forwarding process is TRUE?

Options:

A.

It uses the forwarding table to find a match for the source IP address.

B.

It uses the ARP table to find a match for the source MAC address.

C.

It uses the ARP table to find a match for the destination MAC address.

D.

It uses the forwarding table to find a match for the destination IP address.

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Questions 9

Which of the following statements about router R1 is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Router R1 is an iLER for both LSPs.

B.

Router R1 is an eLER for both LSPs.

C.

Router R1 is an iLER for LSP A and an eLER for LSP B.

D.

Router R1 is an iLER for LSP B and an eLER for LSP A.

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Questions 10

What is the next-hop for network 172.16.1.0/24 installed in router 2’s routing table?

Options:

A.

10.10.10.0

B.

10.10.10.1

C.

10.10.10.2

D.

10.10.10.3

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Questions 11

Which of the following statements about SDPs is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The same SDP ID can be used on multiple routers.

B.

Each service requires a unique SDP.

C.

SDPs are not configured on P routers.

D.

SDPs are not configured on CE devices.

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Questions 12

What is the purpose of the broadcast address?

Options:

A.

Provides an address that refers to all the devices in a given network.

B.

Provides an address to refer to a specific group of devices in a given network.

C.

Provides an address to refer to a group of devices having the same IP addresses in different Layer 2 networks.

D.

Provides an address to refer to a single device on a given network.

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Questions 13

From a customer’s perspective, how does a VPRN service operate?

Options:

A.

All sites are connected to a single wire.

B.

All sites are connected to a switched network.

C.

All sites are connected to a routed network.

D.

All sites are connected to the Internet.

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Questions 14

Which of the following IP header fields defines the way packets should be queued?

Options:

A.

Type of Service

B.

Identification

C.

Flags

D.

Protocol

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Questions 15

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact flash?

Options:

A.

Console

B.

Session

C.

Memory

D.

File

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Questions 16

Which of the following best describes an Ethernet bridge?

Options:

A.

A passive device simply used to connect two or more cables. Does not generate or amplify any signals.

B.

A device that receives and retransmits a signal out its other ports, but does not do any Layer 2 analysis of the data.

C.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 2 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

D.

A device that receives a signal and based on the Layer 3 destination address, makes a decision on which ports the signal should be retransmitted.

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Questions 17

Where would you expect to find a P router in a service provider's network?

Options:

A.

At the edge of the provider's network facing the customer.

B.

At the edge of the customer's network facing the provider.

C.

In the core of the provider's network.

D.

On the customer premises.

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Questions 18

Which statement best describes an SDP?

Options:

A.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

B.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the connection of the service to CE device. Many services can be bound to a single SDP.

C.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider network side and used to bind the service to an MPLS transport tunnel. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

D.

Service Delivery Points are defined on the service provider access side and used to bind the service to CE device. Only one service can be bound to a single SDP.

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Questions 19

When forwarding a packet, which field in the following table determines the egress interface?

Options:

A.

Preference

B.

Metric

C.

Next-hop

D.

Cost

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Questions 20

What next-hop should be used on CR1 to configure a default route to router R1?

Options:

A.

10.2.3.2

B.

10.2.3.1

C.

192.168.2.0

D.

10.1.1.1

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Questions 21

Which of the following is TRUE regarding routers R2 and R3 in the pictured MPLS network?

Options:

A.

Router R2 pushes labels for LSP A, and R3 swaps labels for LSP A.

B.

Router R2 swaps labels for LSP A, and R3 pops labels for LSP A.

C.

Router R2 and R3 swap labels for LSP A and LSP B.

D.

Router R2 and R3 push labels for LSP A and LSP B, respectively.

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Questions 22

From the CE perspective, how does a VPWS operate?

Options:

A.

Two sites are directly connected by a single cable.

B.

Two sites are connected through a single switched LAN.

C.

Two sites are connected through a public routed network.

D.

Two sites are connected through a private routed network.

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Questions 23

Who was responsible for developing and publishing the original standard that was used for 10 Mbit/s Ethernet?

Options:

A.

Intel Corporation.

B.

Digital Equipment Corporation.

C.

DEC-Intel-Xerox.

D.

Apple Computer.

E.

IBM.

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Questions 24

Why is the address field in a PPP header always set to "11111111"?

Options:

A.

PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a broadcast.

B.

PPP supports multipoint access networks with many stations. The all 1's acts as a multicast.

C.

PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field is fixed.

D.

PPP supports point-to-point networks only. The address field can change dynamically since every station is assigned a PPP address.

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Questions 25

Which compact flash on a Control/Switch processor of an Nokia 7750 router stores the runtime image and running configuration?

Options:

A.

CF 1

B.

CF 2

C.

CF 3

D.

Both A and B

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Questions 26

Public IP address spaces are distributed by which of the following organizations?

Options:

A.

Network Solutions INC

B.

IANA

C.

IETF

D.

ITU-T

E.

IEEE

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Questions 27

What is the basic unit of framing in SDH and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STM-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

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Questions 28

Which of the following is a characteristic of a subnet created with a /31 prefix?

Options:

A.

There is no broadcast address on the network.

B.

The address can only be used as a loopback address.

C.

This specifies a single host address.

D.

A /31 prefix is not supported on the SR and ESS platform.

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Questions 29

Which of the parameters in Hello messages exchanged between two OSPF neighbors must be the same to keep the adjacency alive in OSPF? (Choose four.)

Options:

A.

Interface MTU.

B.

Area ID.

C.

Authentication password.

D.

Hello interval.

E.

Dead interval.

F.

Router priority.

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Questions 30

Which bit pattern identifies the network address in the subnet mask?

Options:

A.

A string of consecutive 1's.

B.

A string of consecutive 0's.

C.

A string of alternating 10's.

D.

The network address is determined by masking the source address with a port's if Index binary representation.

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Questions 31

Which of the following describes a static default route?

Options:

A.

A routing entry, included in the RIB by default, that forwards packets with an unknown destination to the CPM for inspection.

B.

A manual entry used when the destination address of a network is not specifically listed in the routing table.

C.

A manual entry that matches a specific /32 host address using the least cost to the destination.

D.

A default entry in the FIB used when forwarding multicast and broadcast packets.

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Questions 32

Which application below would be likely to use UDP?

Options:

A.

Real-time audio application such as VoIP.

B.

Web browser.

C.

Email application.

D.

Telnet.

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Questions 33

SAPs may be a port, a port with a specific VLAN tag in the case of an Ethernet port, or a port with a specific Circuit ID in the case of ATM or Frame Relay.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 34

Which of the following is true of Ethernet half-duplex transmission?

Options:

A.

Half-duplex transmission is less efficient because the frame MTU is smaller.

B.

Half-duplex transmission is only 30-40% efficient because of collisions.

C.

Ethernet switches support half-duplex transmission only.

D.

All of the above.

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Questions 35

Network address: 200.12.30.0

Network mask: 255.255.255.0

Use the information above. You need to create 12 subnetworks supporting 10 host addresses each.

Which extended prefix will meet this requirement?

Options:

A.

/12

B.

/24

C.

/26

D.

/28

E.

/30

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Questions 36

Which of the following routing protocols cannot be used between routers R2 and R4?

Options:

A.

Static Routing

B.

IS-IS

C.

OSPF

D.

iBGP

E.

eBGP

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Questions 37

On a Nokia 7750 SR, which of the following event log destinations is used to store an event log to the compact

flash?

Options:

A.

Console

B.

CLI

C.

Memory

D.

File

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Questions 38

Which of the following statements about route summarization is FALSE?

Options:

A.

It reduces the number of routes advertised by the router.

B.

It allows a single route table entry to represent multiple subnetworks

C.

It can reduce the size of the routing table in neighboring routers.

D.

It advertises more specific routes for routing advertisement stability.

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Questions 39

As described by the CSMA/CD algorithm, what is the first thing to happen when Host A and Host B begin transmitting data at the same time?

Options:

A.

Host A and B will generate a jam signal.

B.

Listening hosts will request retransmission.

C.

Host A or B will retry the transmission.

D.

A back-off timer is started by Host A or B.

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Questions 40

How does a VPRN service avoid the problem overlapping IP addresses from different customers?

Options:

A.

You cannot have overlapping IP addresses. The service provider must ensure that its customers are all using discrete IP address space.

B.

Each VPRN service maintains a separate VPN routing and forwarding instance to separate customer routing information.

C.

A VPRN will ignore IP addressing information and use MAC addressing instead which are always unique.

D.

A VPRN will translate customer IP addresses to a private addressing scheme administered by the service provider.

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Questions 41

Which of the following statements best characterize Distance Vector Routing? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Routers periodically send a copy of their routing table to their neighbors.

B.

Routers flood link information throughout the entire area.

C.

Network converges quickly (within several seconds) after a topology change.

D.

Routers do not have precise knowledge of the entire network topology.

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Questions 42

Which of the following are considered Virtual Private Networks? Choose all that apply.

Options:

A.

IES

B.

VPWS

C.

VPLS

D.

VPRN

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Questions 43

Which statement best describes a SAP?

Options:

A.

The Service ATM Point is used for ATM connections to a PE.

B.

The Service Access Point is defined on the PE device and is the customers access to the service.

C.

The Service Access Point is defined on the P device and is the customers access to the service.

D.

The Service Access Point is defined on the CE device and is the customers access to the service.

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Questions 44

Which of the following is a characteristic of Port Address Translation?

Options:

A.

Resolves a Mac address given a specific IP address.

B.

Allows a single public IP address to represent multiple private IP addresses simultaneously.

C.

Maps a private address to a well known port number.

D.

Provides a one to one mapping from a private to a public address.

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Questions 45

When a device in an IP network receives an echo request message that is destined for itself, it then:

Options:

A.

Estimates the round trip-time.

B.

Generates an echo reply.

C.

Calculates the data loss statistics.

D.

Verifies the data field of the message.

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Questions 46

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what are the prefix, mask, and next-hop used on CR1 to setup a default static route to R1?

Options:

A.

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 10.2 3.2

B.

0.0.0.0/32 next-hop 10.2.3.2

C.

10.2.3.2/32 next-hop 0.0.0.0/0

D.

0.0.0.0/0 next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 47

You need to implement an interior gateway routing protocol for your network that supports scalability, fast convergence and VLSM. Which routing protocol would best serve your needs?

Options:

A.

RIPv1.

B.

RIPv2.

C.

OSPF.

D.

BGP.

E.

Static routes.

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Questions 48

What is the basic unit of framing in SONET and the bit rate for its transmission?

Options:

A.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 1.544 Mbit/s

B.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 2.048 Mbit/s

C.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 51.84 Mbit/s

D.

STS-1 with a bit rate of 155.52 Mbit/s

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Questions 49

In regards to the Nokia 7750 SR-12 router, how many of the front access card slots are dedicated for Control Processors?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

7

D.

10

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Questions 50

What is the purpose of the source and destination ports in the TCP header?

Options:

A.

These ports identify the physical location of the sender and the receiver on the IP router.

B.

These ports are used as addresses to communicate with the IP layer.

C.

TCP does not use source or destination ports.

D.

These ports are used as an address to identify the upper layer application using the TCP connection.

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Questions 51

Based on the network diagram (click the Exhibit Button), what is the next-hop used on R1 to setup a static route to the network on CR1?

Options:

A.

next-hop 10.2.3.2

B.

next-hop 192.168.2.1

C.

next-hop 10.2 3.1

D.

next-hop 192.168.2.0

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Questions 52

The statement below describes which of the following activities?

"A set of tasks that moves a packet from its entry into an IP network to its exit from the IP network."

Options:

A.

IP forwarding

B.

IP decapsulation

C.

IP encapsulation

D.

IP tunneling

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Exam Code: 4A0-100
Exam Name: Nokia Scalable IP Networks
Last Update: May 16, 2024
Questions: 352
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