FC0-U71 CompTIA Tech+ Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Encryption protects data by encoding it, so it can only be accessed or read by someone with the proper key or password. It ensures confidentiality during file transfers over insecure networks like the internet.

“Encryption is used to protect data in transit, ensuring that only authorized parties can read the content during transmission.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Essentials

Correct answer: C

Pop-up blockers prevent new windows or tabs from opening, which can block reports that open in pop-up windows:

“If a web page uses pop-up windows to present information, a pop-up blocker may prevent the new content from loading.”

Cache clearing, accessibility options, or private browsing don’t directly affect hyperlink behavior.

The correct answer is C. 4.4 GHz. GHz means gigahertz, or billions of cycles per second, while MHz means megahertz, or millions of cycles per second. Therefore, any GHz value is much faster than a MHz value. Between 3.1 GHz and 4.4 GHz, 4.4 GHz is higher.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that IBM’s first PC ran at 4.77 MHz, which is 4.77 million cycles per second, while modern processors operate at “billions of cycles per second, or gigahertz (GHz).” It also states that, generally speaking, faster processor speed is better.

Encryption protects files by converting them into unreadable formats unless the correct decryption key is provided. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

" Encryption is the process of converting data into a secure format that cannot be read without a decryption key. Only users with the proper key can access the original data. "

File permissions control user access based on OS-level rules, but encryption specifically ensures that only those with the key can read the file even if they access the file storage.

Hidden folders merely conceal files but don’t protect content. Compression reduces file size but doesn’t protect access.

A keyboard allows a user to enter data into a system:

“Input devices allow users to provide data or control signals to the computer; keyboards are primary examples.”

Storage saves data, output displays data, and processing handles data operations.

According to the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“The rules and structure of the database are called its schema. It defines the tables, forms, reports, queries, data types allowed, and pretty much everything else about the database.”

It also clarifies:

“The logical schema outlines the structure of the database, such as the tables and their fields (columns), and relationships between tables.”

Thus, an outline of a database’s structure is called a schema.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 7: Database Fundamentals — “Schema” (pp. 392–393).

Data monetization refers to generating revenue from data assets, such as selling access or insights from collected user data to third parties.

“Data monetization involves using data to generate economic value — for example, selling user data to vendors or advertisers.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Concepts

Correct answer: A

As per the CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide (Exam FC0-U71, 3rd Edition, 2025):

“Some companies’ IT policies require that you change or reset your password at regular intervals, such as every 90 days. The rationale for having a password expiration policy is that the longer you keep a password, the more likely it is that someone has seen it or written it down.”

The guide further notes:

“Many companies have password policies in place that enforce strict requirements… The policy can also make users reset their password every so often, such as 90 days.”

This describes password expiration, which ensures that passwords are periodically updated to reduce security risks.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Password Changes” (pp. 596–598).

Markup languages, such as HTML and XML, use tags (e.g., < p > , < title > , < body > ) to define the structure and presentation of data. They are not programming languages in the traditional sense, as they don ' t include logic or execution flow.

“Markup languages use tags to annotate and structure text. Common examples include HTML and XML.” — CompTIA ITF+ Software Concepts

Correct answer: A

A VPN (Virtual Private Network) creates a secure, encrypted connection over the internet between the user and a remote network, enabling secure access from home or public networks.

“VPNs provide a secure tunnel for transmitting data over unsecured networks, such as the internet, by encrypting all traffic between the client and the network.” — CompTIA ITF+ Security Topics

Other options:

A. LAN – Local and not for remote use

B. FTP – Transfers files but lacks modern encryption

C. DNS – Resolves domain names, not for access

Correct answer: D

CPU speed is measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), indicating how many million or billion cycles the processor can execute per second.

“CPU performance is commonly measured in megahertz (MHz) or gigahertz (GHz), representing the processor’s clock speed.” — CompTIA ITF+

MB is for memory/storage size.

Mbps is for network speed.

MAC is a hardware address, not a performance metric.

Correct answer: A

The correct answer is D. Restoring lost files. The main purpose of backups is to protect data so it can be restored after loss, corruption, deletion, or failure. Copying data to a different server and creating shareable copies can happen in some situations, but they are not the primary benefit. Testing outside production is not a direct benefit of regular file backups.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains that if data loss or equipment failure occurs, “restoring access will be the most important task,” and after hardware is working, “you can restore missing data.” The guide also includes a Windows exercise specifically titled “Restoring Files.”

The correct answer is B. Hypervisor. A hypervisor is the software layer that enables virtualization. It allows multiple virtual machines or guest operating systems to share the same physical computer and controls how physical resources such as CPU, memory, storage, and networking are assigned to those virtual systems. A guest OS uses the resources assigned to it but does not manage the overall allocation. PaaS and SaaS are cloud service models, not the virtualization component that allocates virtual computer resources.

Exact Extract/Reference: The Tech+ Study Guide states that the hypervisor is “also known as a virtual machine manager (VMM)” and “manages the physical resource allocation” to virtual operating systems. The Exam Essentials also states that a hypervisor “allows multiple operating systems to share the same host” and manages physical resource allocation.

This scenario describes a policy where the system enforces password expiration, prompting users to update passwords after a defined period.

“Password expiration is a security policy that requires users to reset their passwords periodically—commonly 30, 60, or 90 days—to mitigate the risk of compromised credentials.” — CompTIA ITF+ Objectives

Password privacy refers to keeping the password confidential.

Password history restricts reuse of old passwords.

Password complexity enforces character rules (e.g., uppercase, numbers, symbols).

Correct answer: D

A simple static web page is best created using a markup language, such as HTML. Markup languages describe the structure and formatting of content on a web page.

“Markup languages like HTML are used to design and structure static web content. They do not contain logic or interactivity like scripting languages.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Correct answer: D

A MAC (Media Access Control) address is a hardware address assigned to a network interface card. It follows a 48-bit hexadecimal format usually displayed as six pairs separated by colons or hyphens:

“MAC addresses typically appear as 00:50:09:2D:4D:94.”

192.68.10.24 is an IPv4 address, fe80:102d:cd62:5434:82ae is an IPv6 address, and 0x3476 is simply a hexadecimal number, not a MAC address.

A flat file is a simple database format often stored as a plain text or CSV file. It is ideal for small data sets where speed and simplicity are required.

“Flat files are simple and fast for storing small amounts of data and are easy to process without requiring a full database management system.” — CompTIA ITF+ Data Concepts

Correct answer: A

A GPU (Graphics Processing Unit) is a specialized processor designed to perform calculations related to rendering images and videos. It’s an example of a processing component.

“The GPU is a processor dedicated to graphical computations and image rendering, assisting or replacing the CPU in handling visual data.” — CompTIA ITF+ Hardware Essentials

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide highlights that:

“If no sound is coming from your speakers, even after confirming they’re powered and connected, check your sound settings. The wrong output device may be selected—especially when multiple audio devices are present.”

This describes a misconfigured output—where the OS is sending audio to the wrong device (e.g., Bluetooth or HDMI).

Verified Reference:

Chapter 4: Operating Systems — “Troubleshooting Sound Devices” (pp. 232–233).

Meaningful reporting refers to the process of analyzing and summarizing data into actionable insights to support business decisions.

“Reports generated from data analytics provide meaningful insights to support strategic decision-making by company leadership.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: A

The correct answer is D. Integrity. The phrase “contents are unchanged” directly refers to whether data has remained accurate, consistent, and unaltered. In security, integrity is the principle that protects data from unauthorized or accidental modification. Confidentiality is about keeping private data from unauthorized viewing. Authentication verifies identity. Availability ensures systems or data can be accessed when needed. Only integrity matches checking that a downloaded file has not changed.

Exact Extract/Reference: The Tech+ Study Guide explains that integrity means “the data is accurate and consistent and from the indicated source,” and identifies data integrity concerns such as unauthorized information alteration. The guide’s summary also states that integrity is ensuring data is “true and correct.”

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states:

“Floats are numbers that include decimals. Integers are whole numbers with no decimals, and strings are text.”

An example from the book:

“It’s a float data type, which is a number with a decimal place.”

Therefore, -2.34 represents a float.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 6: Software Development Concepts — “Data Types and Structures” (pp. 372–373).

Wireless interference is often caused by environmental factors such as proximity to kitchens, which may contain microwaves and other electronic devices operating on the same 2.4 GHz frequency used by many Wi-Fi networks. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide explains:

“Wireless signals are subject to interference from physical objects, walls, appliances, and other electronic devices operating on the same frequency.”

“Microwave ovens and cordless phones are common sources of interference for Wi-Fi networks.”

In this case, the user ' s proximity to the kitchen is causing interference, not access control or standards issues.

A firewall can block traffic between workstations if it ' s not properly configured. If a user cannot connect from one device to another on the network, it is likely that the firewall settings are preventing this communication.

“Firewalls control the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined security rules. If improperly configured, they may block legitimate access between devices.” — CompTIA ITF+ Study Guide

Other options:

B. Database – Not related to connectivity

C. Anti-malware – Protects from malicious software, not network configuration

D. Certificate – Used for secure communication, but not basic connectivity

Correct answer: A

Because the pay rate is fixed and does not change for all workers, it is best represented as a constant in code. Constants are variables whose values do not change during execution.

“Constants are used in programming to represent fixed values that do not change during the run of a program.” — CompTIA ITF+ Software Development Guide

Correct answer: C

In object-oriented programming, methods are functions or procedures associated with an object that perform actions such as retrieving data:

“Methods are actions that an object can perform. They typically manipulate or retrieve data stored within the object.”

Variables store data, attributes define properties, and loops control repetition but do not directly handle data retrieval within objects.

The correct answer is C. Databases provide better data organization, indexing, and querying. A flat file is a two-dimensional structure made of rows and columns, such as a simple spreadsheet. Databases are better for larger, more complex, multiuser, scalable, searchable data systems. Databases can manage relationships between data points, support queries and reports, and provide stronger data persistence, availability, and security. A flat file does not represent a relational system, and query languages are associated with databases rather than basic flat files.

Exact Extract/Reference: The Tech+ Study Guide explains that a flat file has “two dimensions, rows and columns,” while databases can “manage far more complicated relationships between data points.” It also states that databases are better when multiple users, large quantities of data, speed, scalability, data persistence, data availability, and security matter. The guide further states that databases can be queried and reports can be run from them.

Although basic scanner functionality may work with default drivers, full functionality (like programmable buttons) often requires the manufacturer ' s software suite. Installing the correct software from the vendor ensures that all features are supported.

“Peripheral devices may require manufacturer-specific drivers and utilities to enable full feature support. Downloading from the vendor’s website ensures compatibility.” — CompTIA ITF+

The correct answer is B. Document the findings. In the troubleshooting methodology, after the issue has been resolved and functionality has been verified, the final step is to document the findings, lessons learned, actions, and outcomes. Testing the theory, creating an action plan, and implementing the action plan all happen before the problem is resolved.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide lists the troubleshooting steps in order: identify the problem, establish a theory, test the theory, establish a plan and implement the solution, verify full system functionality, and finally “Document findings/lessons learned, actions, and outcomes.”

Gaming monitors are often described using refresh rates, which are measured in hertz (Hz), often specified in MHz for related processing frequencies. The CompTIA ITF+ FC0-U71 Official Study Guide states:

" Monitor refresh rate refers to how many times per second the screen updates, usually measured in Hz. "

" MHz (megahertz) is used for various frequencies, including GPU and monitor refresh processing. "

GPU and RAM refer to hardware components, TB measures storage, and MHz relates to the frequency, applicable for monitor performance metrics.

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide discusses social engineering prevention:

“Social engineering relies on manipulating people rather than technology. The best protection against social engineering is user awareness and verifying identity before sharing information.”

Verifying a user’s identity via a phone call before taking any action (such as password reset or data access) is an essential safeguard against impersonation attempts.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 11: Security Best Practices — “Recognizing Social Engineering and Phishing Attacks” (pp. 586–588).

The pseudocode reads from a block of numbers listed in line 40. This collection of values is structured like an array—a group of data elements stored together.

“An array is a collection of similar data elements stored in a structured sequence, often referenced or processed in loops.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: B

The web browser history stores records of websites that a user has visited. This is typically the most straightforward and accessible method for determining whether users accessed inappropriate or unauthorized online content. The CompTIA ITF+ documentation explains:

“Web browsers maintain a history of visited URLs, which can be used for monitoring and auditing user activity, including detecting policy violations regarding internet usage.”

System logs are broader and generally capture system or security events.

Cookies store session and tracking data but don’t always show what content was accessed.

Location tracking helps with geolocation, not content monitoring.

Therefore, the correct choice is D.

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When the network is unavailable, portable storage like a flash drive (USB storage device) is suitable for transferring large files:

“Flash drives provide portable storage solutions capable of handling large data files.”

NAS (network-attached storage) requires a functioning network. RAM is volatile memory not used for file transfer, and cloud storage requires internet connectivity.

Browsers store previously loaded pages in their cache to improve performance. If outdated content is cached, clearing the cache forces the browser to load the latest version from the server.

“Clearing the browser cache removes stored versions of web pages and resolves display issues caused by outdated content.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: C

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains:

“Firewalls filter network traffic. Firewalls filter inbound and outbound network traffic based on rules defined by the administrator. That list of rules is called an access control list (ACL). By default, most firewalls are configured as default deny, which means that all traffic is blocked unless specifically authorized by the administrator.”

Therefore, a firewall is the network security device that primarily permits and restricts traffic based on predefined rules.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 5: Software Applications — “Software Firewalls” (pp. 316–317).

Chapter 8: Networking Concepts and Technologies — “Firewalls” (pp. 447–448).

The correct answer is C. Onboard NICs are built into the motherboard. An onboard NIC is integrated into the motherboard, while an expansion card NIC is a separate add-on card installed into an expansion slot. The question asks for the primary difference, not speed or cost. Onboard does not automatically mean faster or more expensive.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that Tech+ objective 2.2 expects knowledge of “wired and wireless cards as well as onboard (integrated into the motherboard) versus expansion cards.” It also explains that “most computers today have the NIC circuitry integrated into their motherboards.”

Artificial intelligence (AI) powers predictive text by analyzing user input patterns and language models to suggest likely words or phrases.

“AI enables predictive text by using language models and historical input to forecast what the user intends to type next.” — CompTIA ITF+ Emerging Technologies

Correct answer: C

For locations without cable or cellular towers, satellite internet is the most viable solution. Satellite does not require terrestrial infrastructure beyond a dish and has global coverage.

“Satellite is often used in remote or rural locations where wired and cellular connectivity is not available. It uses a dish to communicate with orbiting satellites for internet access.” — CompTIA ITF+ Curriculum

Fiber optic and IDSL require ground cabling.

Cellular requires nearby towers, which the scenario rules out.

Correct answer: D. Satellite

Task management utilities like Task Manager in Windows are used to monitor and manage running applications and processes, including ending unresponsive ones.

“Task Manager is used to view and end processes or applications that are not responding.” — CompTIA ITF+

Correct answer: B

The correct answer is B. Firewall. A firewall filters network traffic based on configured rules. To disallow inbound file-sharing connections, the firewall can block the relevant inbound traffic. Anti-malware scans for malicious software, multifactor authentication verifies identity, and certificates help establish trust or encryption, but a firewall is the correct control for blocking inbound network connections.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide states that firewalls “filter inbound and outbound network traffic based on rules defined by the administrator.” It also explains that host-based firewalls protect one computer and that Windows includes Microsoft Defender Firewall. The guide further explains that firewall ACLs determine which traffic is passed and which traffic is blocked.

The correct answer is C. Company files saved on a hard disk. Data storage refers to keeping data so it can be used later. A hard disk drive provides long-term, nonvolatile storage and keeps files even when the computer is powered off. RAM is temporary volatile memory, Task Manager shows running processes and system information, and hardware IDs recorded on boards are not the best example of user data storage.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide explains that storage devices provide “long-term, nonvolatile, or persistent storage options,” meaning they do not lose data when powered off. It also states that HDDs are used for “permanent storage and quick access” and hold user data and files the system needs.

This structure uses branching, which allows a program to make decisions based on conditions using " if, " " else if, " and similar statements.

“Branching allows the flow of execution in a program to change based on decisions or conditions.” — CompTIA ITF+ Programming Concepts

Correct answer: D

The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide clearly defines:

“To talk to the hardware, operating systems use specialized programs called device drivers, or drivers for short. A driver tells the OS how to talk to the specific piece of hardware and how to use its features. If there is no driver for that OS, then the hardware will not be compatible with it.”

Hence, drivers are the software components that control and enable communication between the OS and hardware devices.

Verified Reference:

Chapter 4: Operating Systems — “Coordinating Users and Hardware” (pp. 208–209).

The correct order of storage units from smallest to largest is:

Kilobyte (KB)

Megabyte (MB)

Terabyte (TB)

Petabyte (PB)

“A kilobyte is approximately 1,000 bytes. It is smaller than a megabyte (1 million bytes), terabyte (1 trillion bytes), or petabyte (1 quadrillion bytes).” — CompTIA ITF+ Reference

Hence, C. Kilobyte is the smallest unit listed.

The correct answer is C. Configuring automatic software updates. Automatic updates help keep the operating system and applications patched against known security flaws. This is proactive because it reduces exposure before an attack occurs. Cloud backup helps with data recovery, but it does not directly prevent online threats. Updating subscription software may help in some cases, such as antivirus software, but the broader and stronger proactive security measure is automatic software updates. Installing remote access software can increase risk if it is not properly secured.

Exact Extract/Reference: The Tech+ Study Guide states that device hardening “starts with keeping the software up-to-date” and lists patching software as a security-hardening action. It also warns that some updates address “critical security flaws” and that ignoring them can make a PC vulnerable to Internet-based attacks.

The correct answer is A. A flash drive is a small, portable local storage device, so it is useful when a user needs to copy or back up a local file and carry it to another location, such as home. Option B describes cloud storage. Option C describes network file sharing. Option D describes long-term archiving, which is not the best use case for a flash drive because flash drives are small, easy to misplace, and not ideal as long-term archive media.

Exact Extract/Reference: The CompTIA Tech+ Study Guide defines an external flash drive as “a small, portable SSD that connects through a USB port” and says its “primary benefit is portability.” The guide also lists flash drives as a locally attached backup storage option.