C11 Principles and Practice of Insurance Questions and Answers

Pre-loss objectives in risk management are goals an organization aims to achievebeforeany loss occurs. These objectives focus on minimizing the frequency and severity of losses, ensuring preparedness, and maintaining organizational functionality.

Operational continuityis a key pre-loss objective because it emphasizes having systems, controls, and procedures in place to ensure that operations run smoothly—even when risk exposures are present. This includes safety programs, maintenance schedules, compliance measures, and contingency planning. Operational continuity ensures the business can withstand or avoid disruptions.

Option A (external obligations) is vague and not formally defined as a risk management objective.

Option B (sustained growth) and D (business development) arebusiness goals, not pre-loss risk management objectives.

Thus, the correct answer isC: Operational continuity.

Statutes—especially older, comprehensive ones—can only be amended or repealed by an act of the legislative authority that created them. In Canada, this means a provincial or federal legislature must formally pass a new act or amendment. Legislatures are the bodies responsible for enacting, revising, or modernizing statutory law to reflect new legal, social, or commercial developments.

Option B is incorrect because Canada does not change statutes through public votes (referenda), except in rare constitutional matters. Option C is incorrect and uses U.S. terminology (“congress”), which does not apply to the Canadian system. Even if compared to Parliament, a bill alone does not change a statute until it is passed into law by the legislature. Option D is incorrect because the Supreme Court interprets law, but does not rewrite statutes.

Thus, only an act of legislature can formally alter statutory law, making A the correct answer.

Binding authority is the authority an insurer grants to a broker or agent, allowing the intermediary to bind coverage on the insurer’s behalf before the insurer has formally reviewed the application. When an intermediary has binding authority, they can confirm that coverage is in force immediately, subject to the terms granted by the insurer. This is crucial for situations requiring quick coverage, such as real estate closings, automobile purchases, or commercial contract deadlines.

Option A is incorrect because a cover note is thedocumentissued after binding coverage—not the binding authority itself. Option B is incorrect because binding authority has nothing to do with permission to contact clients. Option D is completely unrelated, as reinsurance agreements occur between insurers, not insureds.

Therefore, the correct description of binding authority is permission granted to an intermediary to bind coverage on behalf of the insurer, which is option C.

Brokers without claims-handling authority must be extremely careful in the statements they make to insureds, especially at the time of a loss. Samuel improperly promised coverage, something he had neither the authority nor sufficient information to confirm. Claims are determined by the insurer based on policy wording, exclusions, and investigation. The proper action would have been to reassure the insured emotionally while clearly stating that the insurer must first investigate the circumstances before any determination of coverage can be made.

Option B is inappropriate; the insured should not admit liability at the scene. Option C is improper because a broker has no authority to intervene in a police investigation. Option D is also incorrect; Samuel cannot deny coverage, as this is solely the insurer’s role. Therefore, the only correct response is A, which aligns with proper professional conduct and avoids misrepresentation

With a guaranteed replacement cost policy, the insurer agrees to pay the full cost of replacing the damaged or destroyed property (subject to conditions), even if that amount approaches or, in some forms, exceeds the stated limit. Here, the total replacement cost of the loss is $500,000.

However, some furniture is salvageable and valued at $4,000. Since Dominika elects to keep this salvage, she is effectively retaining part of the value of the damaged property. To maintain the principle of indemnity and avoid overpayment, the insurer deducts the salvage value from the total amount they would otherwise pay.

Step-by-step:

Replacement cost of loss: $500,000

Less salvage value retained by insured: $4,000

Subtotal: $496,000

Less deductible: $1,000

Net settlement: $495,000

Therefore, Dominika will recover $495,000, making Option A correct.

Apro rata cancellationoccurs when an insurer cancels a policy or when the insured cancelswithout penalty, and the insurer refunds thefullunexpired portion of the premium. The refund is calculated strictly based on time remaining in the policy period. No service charges, cancellation penalties, or retained percentages apply.

This is different fromshort rate cancellation, where a penalty is applied when the insured cancels voluntarily.

“Total rate,” “fully fixed,” and “non-adjusted rate” are not recognized forms of cancellation methods.

Thus, refunding the entire unused premium confirms the cancellation ispro rata.

Statutory conditions exist in property insurance legislation across Canadian provinces to ensure that insurers and insureds operate withclarity, transparency, and fairness. These conditions outline important duties such as:

Requirements for notice of loss

Duties after a loss

Conditions for voiding coverage

Fraud provisions

Replacement and salvage rules

Their main purpose is toclarify the intent of the policy and give certainty to the terms and obligationsof both parties. Because statutory conditions are mandated by law, they ensure uniform standards across all insurers and prevent inconsistent or unclear policy interpretations.

Option B is only a small subset of what statutory conditions address.

Option C is incorrect—privacy legislation like PIPEDA is separate from insurance statutory conditions.

Option D is incorrect; statutory conditions do not alter legal burden-of-proof standards.

Thus, the best answer isA.

Insurance policies require the insured to report all accidents promptly, even when they appear minor. By settling privately and failing to notify the insurer, Mark violated a fundamental policy condition. This breach is significant because it prejudices the insurer’s rights: the insurer lost the opportunity to investigate, defend, or control settlement negotiations. Under the statutory conditions (especially for automobile insurance), failure to report may result in the forfeiture of the insured’s right to recovery.

Option A is incorrect because limitation periods vary and do not automatically cause a denial; moreover, the issue is the insured's breach, not limitation law. Option C is incorrect because this is a liability claim, not accident benefits. Option D is incorrect because the current policy does not automatically cover past unreported accidents, and coverage can be denied if the insured breached statutory reporting conditions.

Thus, the insurer will most likely deny coverage because Mark forfeited his rights by failing to report the loss, making B correct.

To calculate premiums rated per $100 of insurance, the formula is:

Premium = (Amount of Insurance ÷ 100) × Rate

Step-by-step:

$500,000 ÷ 100 = 5,000 rating units

5,000 × $0.80 =$4,000

Thus, the annual premium for the building is$4,000, makingOption Cthe correct answer.

Option A is too low, while Options B and D do not match the rating calculation. Underwriters rely on these standardized rating methods to ensure consistent and adequate premium development.

A claims adjuster’s primary initial responsibility is to receive, record, and gather preliminary information about a loss. This includes confirming the identity of the insured, the date and circumstances of the loss, and whether the situation appears to fall within the policy period and coverage. The adjuster also must ask probing questions to obtain the essential facts to begin an investigation. This early information is critical because it guides further steps such as contacting witnesses, arranging inspections, evaluating liability, and determining the need for expert reports.

Option A is incorrect because an adjuster cannot confirm coverage until a full review of the policy and the facts is completed. Option C is incorrect because the adjuster uses an independent adjuster’s report but is not required to “verify no errors” in a formal sense; they assess and evaluate the report’s content. Option D is unrelated to claims adjusting—premium changes are underwriting functions.

Therefore, the adjuster’s correct responsibility at the early stage is to record preliminary details and obtain further necessary information, making B the accurate answer.

A cover holder is a business entity authorized by an insurer—most often within the Lloyd’s structure—to bind coverage, issue policies, collect premiums, and sometimes handle claims for specific lines of business. This authority is granted through a binding authority agreement, which outlines the scope of operations, underwriting limits, and compliance requirements. Cover holders extend the market reach of insurers while maintaining oversight through strict reporting and audit mechanisms.

A reinsurer assumes risk from insurers but does not issue retail policies or bind coverage for individual clients. A factory mutual is a specialized mutual insurer focusing on highly protected risks, not delegated binding authority. A syndicate mutual is not a recognized category in Canadian P&C operations. Since only a cover holder has formal delegated binding authority from an insurer, the correct answer is B.

Loss adjusters are required to conduct themselves with professionalism, fairness, and integrity. Their responsibilities include explaining how coverage applies, gathering facts, assessing damage, and ensuring the claim is handled according to policy terms and applicable law. This includes respecting legal requirements and proper interpretation of insurance statutes and conditions.

However, adjusters must not provide legal advice. Legal advice is the domain of licensed lawyers. Adjusters may explain policy terms, clarify obligations, or interpret claims procedures, but they cannot advise a claimant on legal strategy, liability, lawsuit responses, or legal rights beyond policy interpretation. Doing so breaches professional boundaries and regulatory expectations.

Therefore, the only option that isnota responsibility is D: Provide legal advice, making it the correct answer.

In the structure of reinsurance practices explained inPrinciples and Practice of Insurance, aretrocessionaireis the reinsurer that accepts risk from another reinsurer. This occurs through a process calledretrocession, where a reinsurer (the retrocedent) transfers a portion of its assumed risk to another reinsurer to further spread exposure and maintain solvency stability.

The terminology is important:

Theprimary insurerissues the original policy to the insured.

Thereinsurer(cessionaire) accepts risk from the primary insurer.

When that reinsurer then cedes part of the risk again, the receiving party is theretrocessionaire.

Retrocession is essential in risk-management frameworks because it allows reinsurers to diversify exposures and avoid concentration risks from catastrophic events. Therefore, the correct term for the second reinsurer isC. Retrocessionaire.

Insurers in Canada are heavily regulated in the way they invest their capital because they must remain financially strong to pay future claims. Government regulations—federal for federally regulated insurers and provincial for provincially regulated insurers—set out specific investment restrictions, including prohibiting certain high-risk or illiquid investments. These rules protect policyholders by ensuring insurers maintain solvency and liquidity.

Insurers must invest prudently in order to meet long-term obligations, and therefore regulators specify the classes of investments deemed too risky or unsuitable. This includes limits on speculative investments or holdings that could jeopardize stability.

Option A is incorrect because insurers arenotrequired to invest in non-liquid assets; in fact, liquidity is important.

Option B is incorrect; although some foreign investments may be allowed, the statement is not a broad principle of regulation.

Option C is incorrect because insurers face significant restrictions, not complete freedom.

Thus, D is the correct answer.

Comprehensive Explanation (150–250 words):

In anexcess of loss (non-proportional) reinsurance contract, the reinsurer pays only when the lossexceeds the primary insurer’s retention, known as thepriorityorattachment point. In this question, the priority is$80,000. This means reinsurance doesnotrespond unless the loss exceeds $80,000.

Here, the actual loss is$60,000, which isbelowthe attachment point. Because the loss never reaches the $80,000 threshold, the reinsurer owesnothing. Theentire lossremains the responsibility of the primary insurer.

The reinsurer’s limit of $100,000 only becomes relevant if the loss exceeds $80,000, which is not the case here.

Therefore, the primary insurer pays100% of the $60,000 loss.

Correct answer:D.

Thepure premiumrepresents theexpected loss costper exposure unit. It is calculated as:

Pure Premium=Probability of Loss×Severity of Loss\text{Pure Premium} = \text{Probability of Loss} \times \text{Severity of Loss}Pure Premium=Probability of Loss×Severity of Loss

Here:

Probability of loss = 1 in 5 homes =0.20

Severity (loss amount) =$50,000

0.20×50,000=10,0000.20 \times 50,000 = 10,0000.20×50,000=10,000

But here is the key detail: one loss of $50,000 spread overfive homesmeans:

50,0005=10,000\frac{50,000}{5} = 10,000550,000​=10,000

But the answer choices do not include $10,000 except option C, yet the correct pure premium per homeownerwith equal distribution per yearequals:

$10,000 per home per year

Thus the correct answer isC: $10,000.

For a legally binding contract, there must beoffer and acceptance—a clear proposal and a clear, communicated acceptance. In this case, George attempts to treatsilenceas acceptance. According to contract law,silence cannot constitute acceptance, unless there is a prior agreement between the parties stating otherwise. Because his cousin has not actively communicated acceptance, the contract remains incomplete.

Option A is incorrect—consideration exists (money in exchange for books).

Option B is irrelevant—buying textbooks is legal.

Option C does not apply—George is 18 and has legal capacity in Alberta.

The missing element isacceptance, so the correct answer isD.

Insurable interest exists when someone would suffer a financial loss if a person or property were damaged, lost, or deceased. Employers have a legitimate, recognized insurable interest in the lives of key employees, as their death or disability could result in financial loss—for example, reduced productivity, training costs, or loss of specialized expertise. Therefore, A represents a valid and legally recognized insurable interest.

Option B involves investment income earned by insurers—this is not an insurable interest but a financial outcome of operations. Option C reflects a business motive but not an insurable interest because an underwriter does not stand to personally lose financially if a policyholder dies or property is damaged. Option D is generally invalid unless the employee can demonstrate a direct financial dependency, which is typically not the case.

Thus, the only clear example of insurable interest is A: the employer’s interest in the life of an employee.

Liability insurance arises because individuals and businesses have legal obligations not to cause bodily injury or property damage to others. When someone is negligent, the law allows the injured party to seek compensation. These legal obligations can be substantial and financially devastating. Liability insurance provides protection by transferring the financial burden of compensating others to an insurer. It ensures that the insured can meet their legal responsibilities and that injured third parties receive compensation.

Option A is incorrect because liability insurance is not for protecting oneself from personal risk—it protects against obligations to others. Option C refers to social norms, which may influence behavior but do not impose enforceable financial duties. Option D refers to ethics, but ethical feelings alone do not create legal liability.

The key reason liability insurance exists is the legal requirement to compensate others when negligent, making B the correct answer.

The insuring agreement is one of the most essential components of an insurance policy. It describes what is insured, the coverage provided, and the extent of the insurer’s promise to indemnify the insured. This section outlines the subject of insurance—property, liability exposure, person, or interest—and specifies what types of losses or perils are insured against. Thus, the accurate choice is D: Description of the property covered.

Option A is incorrect because premium is stated in the declarations page, not in the insuring agreement. Option B, lienholder information, also appears in the declarations or conditions, not the insuring agreement. Option C, the signature clause, appears at the end of the policy to signify the insurer’s formal acceptance of contractual obligations.

The insuring agreement is the foundation of the policy because it establishes the insurer’s undertaking and sets the boundaries of coverage, making option D correct.

Abrokeris an independent insurance intermediary who represents theinsured, not the insurer, yet also interacts professionally with insurers to place coverage. Brokers typicallyown their client lists, have the freedom to place business with multiple insurers, and earn income throughcommissionsonce policies are sold or renewed. They are obligated to provide impartial advice and ensure clients receive suitable coverage.

Underwriters (option B) do not own client lists and do not earn commissions; they work for insurers evaluating risks. Exclusive agents (option C) representone insurer onlyand generally do not own their book of business. Independent adjusters (option D) investigate and adjust claims—they do not sell insurance nor hold client lists.

Orianna’s described attributes—ownership of clients, acting for both parties, and earning commissions—match precisely the role of abroker, makingAcorrect.

Risk mitigation refers to reducing the frequency or severity of potential losses. A first-time homeowner can mitigate risk by taking proactive measures such as installing smoke alarms, securing doors and windows, maintaining the property, or eliminating hazards. These actions directly decrease the homeowner’s volume of risk by reducing the probability of a loss or limiting its potential impact.

Option A—purchasing insurance—is not risk mitigation; it is risk transfer, where the financial consequences of loss are shifted to an insurer. Insurance does not reduce the likelihood of loss; it only provides compensation after loss.

Option B is the opposite of mitigation.

Option D is irrelevant to risk management.

Thus, the correct answer is C: Decrease their volume of risk.

In determining liability, the immediate (proximate) cause refers to the most direct, unbroken cause leading to the injury. In this sequence, the firecracker explodes in Celina’s hands immediately after she receives it from Sandra. Although Antonio initiated the chain of events and Brett contributed, their actions are more remote.

The last voluntary act that directly placed the dangerous object in the position where it caused harm was Sandra’s throw to Celina. Sandra’s action is therefore the immediate cause, even though earlier individuals may share legal responsibility in a broader causation analysis.

Option D is incorrect because Celina did not cause her own injury; she merely received the firecracker.

Option C includes Antonio and Brett, but neither was the final actor in the chain.

Therefore, the immediate cause of loss is B: Sandra.

A hazard is a condition that increases the likelihood or severity of a loss. Installing anti-slip flooring reduces the chance of slips and falls, thereby reducing a hazard. This is an example of loss prevention—altering physical conditions to make an environment safer.

Option B increases danger because high beams on a busy highway can blind other drivers. Option C significantly increases fire hazard because sprinkler systems provide automatic fire suppression. Option D exposes items to damage during transit, increasing rather than decreasing hazard.

Therefore, the only option that clearly reduces a hazard is A: installing anti-slip floor tile.

In insurance terminology, aspeculative riskis a situation where there is a possibility of either financial gain or financial loss, depending on how events unfold. This is what makes it different from apure risk, where the only possible outcomes are loss or no loss (but never a profit). Examples of speculative risk include investing in the stock market, starting a business, or buying foreign currency. In each of these situations, you may end up with a profit, break even, or suffer a loss.

Because speculative risks involve the potential for profit, they are generally not insurable. Insurance is designed to respond to pure risks, such as the risk of fire damaging a building, or a car accident causing injury or property damage. In those cases, there is no opportunity for financial gain from the event itself—only the chance of economic loss or no loss at all.

Therefore, the defining characteristic of speculative risk, and the correct answer to this question, is the possibility of either gain or loss, which is captured by option D.

Purchasing insurance that covers customers’ goods in transit enhances the company’s ability toattract more clients, which is referred to asgreater acquisition potential. Clients feel more confident choosing a mover that offers protection for their belongings, especially when transporting high-value items. This competitive advantage increases business opportunities and strengthens the company’s reputation.

Option B—“feeling of security”—is a benefit but applies to theinsured party, not the business’s competitive positioning. Option C is incorrect because purchasing insurance does not provide additional capital; it is a business cost. Option D (subscription policies) has no connection to transit insurance.

Therefore, the most direct business benefit for the moving company isA: Greater acquisition potential.

The typical privacy-breach response sequence used in Canadian insurance organizations follows four steps:

Contain the breachand secure the data (stop further exposure).

Evaluate the risks— determine sensitivity of data, potential harm, affected individuals, and severity.

Notifythose who must be informed (affected clients, regulators, privacy commissioners, insurers, or law enforcement).

Prevent recurrence— investigate causes and implement corrective measures.

Since Step 1 is containment and Step 2 is risk evaluation, thethirdstep isnotification.

Therefore, the correct answer isC.