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CC CC - Certified in Cybersecurity Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which security measure helps prevent Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Strong password policies

B.

Firewall blocking

C.

Validating and sanitizing user input

D.

Encrypting data

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Questions 5

Which type of control minimizes the impact of an attack and restores normal operations as quickly as possible?

Options:

A.

Compensatory control

B.

Corrective control

C.

Recovery control

D.

Detective control

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Questions 6

The method of distributing network traffic equally across a pool of resources is called:

Options:

A.

VLAN

B.

DNS

C.

VPN

D.

Load balancing

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Questions 7

Duke would like to restrict users from accessing a list of prohibited websites while connected to his network. Which control would BEST achieve his objective?

Options:

A.

URL Filter

B.

IP Address Block

C.

DLP Solution

D.

IPS Solution

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Questions 8

An attack in which an attacker listens passively to the authentication protocol to capture information that can be used in a subsequent active attack to masquerade as the claimant is known as:

Options:

A.

Eavesdropping attack

B.

CSRF

C.

XSS

D.

ARP spoofing

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Questions 9

Why is security training important?

Options:

A.

Because it fulfills regulatory requirements

B.

Because it helps people perform job duties more efficiently

C.

Because it reduces the risk of attacks such as social engineering

D.

All

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Questions 10

Which type of authentication issomething which you know?

Options:

A.

Type 1

B.

Type 2

C.

Type 3

D.

Type 4

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Questions 11

An unusual occurrence in a system or network is best described as:

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Exploit

C.

Event

D.

Intrusion

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Questions 12

A collection of actions that must be followed to complete a task or process in accordance with a set of rules is known as:

Options:

A.

Policy

B.

Procedure

C.

Law

D.

Standard

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Questions 13

What does Personally Identifiable Information (PII) pertain to?

Options:

A.

Information about an individual's health status

B.

Data about an individual that could be used to identify them

C.

Trade secrets, research, business plans, and intellectual property

D.

The importance assigned to information by its owner

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Questions 14

Shaun is planning to protect data in all states (at rest, in motion, and in use), defending against data leakage. What is the BEST solution to implement?

Options:

A.

End-to-end encryption

B.

Hashing

C.

DLP

D.

Threat modeling

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Questions 15

A power outage disrupts operations. Which plan helps sustain operations?

Options:

A.

DRP

B.

IRP

C.

BCP

D.

All

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Questions 16

What are registered ports primarily used for?

Options:

A.

Core TCP/IP protocols

B.

Web servers

C.

In-house applications

D.

Vendor and proprietary applications

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Questions 17

Which aspect of cybersecurity is MOST impacted by Distributed Denial of Service (DDoS) attacks?

Options:

A.

Non-repudiation

B.

Integrity

C.

Availability

D.

Confidentiality

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Questions 18

What is the purpose of the CIA triad?

Options:

A.

Make security understandable

B.

Describe security concepts

C.

Define the purpose of security

D.

All

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Questions 19

A newly enforced BYOD policy represents which control type?

Options:

A.

Physical control

B.

Logical control

C.

Administrative control

D.

Technical control

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Questions 20

Embedded systems and network-enabled devices that communicate with the Internet are:

Options:

A.

Endpoints

B.

Nodes

C.

IoT

D.

Routers

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Questions 21

Who must follow HIPAA compliance?

Options:

A.

Energy sector

B.

Health care

C.

Finance sector

D.

All

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Questions 22

A common network device used to filter traffic?

Options:

A.

Server

B.

Endpoint

C.

Ethernet

D.

Firewall

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Questions 23

Scans networks to determine connected devices and services:

Options:

A.

Burp Suite

B.

Wireshark

C.

Fiddler

D.

Zenmap

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Questions 24

A hacker intercepts network traffic to steal login credentials. Which OSI layer is being attacked?

Options:

A.

Data Link layer

B.

Physical layer

C.

Network layer

D.

Application layer

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Questions 25

A system architecture where one instance serves multiple user groups:

Options:

A.

Multithreading

B.

Multiprocessing

C.

Multitenancy

D.

Multi-cloud

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Questions 26

The magnitude of harm expected from unauthorized disclosure, modification, destruction, or loss of information is known as:

Options:

A.

Threat

B.

Vulnerability

C.

Impact

D.

Likelihood

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Questions 27

Which technology should be implemented to increase the work effort required for buffer overflow attacks?

Options:

A.

Address Space Layout Randomization

B.

Memory induction application

C.

Input memory isolation

D.

Read-only memory integrity checks

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Questions 28

Type 1 authentication poses which risks?

Options:

A.

Users may share their credentials with others

B.

Users may forget their passwords

C.

Passwords may be intercepted and stolen

D.

All

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Questions 29

Removing the design belief that the network has any trusted space. Security is managed at each possible level, representing the most granular asset. Microsegmentation of workloads is a tool of the model.

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

DMZ

C.

VLAN

D.

Microsegmentation

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Questions 30

A weighted factor based on the probability that a threat will exploit a vulnerability is called:

Options:

A.

Likelihood of occurrence

B.

Threat vector

C.

Risk

D.

Impact

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Questions 31

Which provides integrity services that allow a recipient to verify that a message has not been altered?

Options:

A.

Hashing

B.

Encryption

C.

Decryption

D.

Encoding

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Questions 32

An employee launched a privilege escalation attack to gain root access on one of the organization’s database servers. The employee has an authorized user account on the server. What log file would MOST likely contain relevant information?

Options:

A.

Database application log

B.

Firewall log

C.

Operating system log

D.

IDS log

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Questions 33

In Mandatory Access Control (MAC), which statement is true?

Options:

A.

Users access data based on need-to-know

B.

Access controls cannot be changed except by administrators

C.

Data owners modify access

D.

Users control permissions

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Questions 34

Finance Server and Transaction Server have restored their original facility after a disaster. What should be moved in FIRST?

Options:

A.

Management

B.

Most critical systems

C.

Most critical functions

D.

Least critical functions

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Questions 35

What is the focus of disaster recovery planning after a data center outage?

Options:

A.

Maintaining business functions

B.

Fixing hardware

C.

Restoring IT and communications

D.

Emergency response guidance

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Questions 36

How does IPSec protect against replay attacks?

Options:

A.

By using sequence numbers

B.

By limiting network access

C.

By using digital signatures

D.

By encrypting all traffic

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Questions 37

What is a security token used to authenticate a user to a web application, typically after they log in?

Options:

A.

CAPTCHA

B.

API key

C.

CSRF token

D.

Session token

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Questions 38

The common term for systems that control temperature and humidity in a data center is:

Options:

A.

VLAN

B.

STAT

C.

TAWC

D.

HVAC

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Questions 39

_______ are virtual separations within a switch used mainly to limit broadcast traffic.

Options:

A.

LAN

B.

WAN

C.

VLAN

D.

MAN

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Questions 40

Port forwarding is also known as:

Options:

A.

Port mapping

B.

Tunneling

C.

Punch-through

D.

All

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Questions 41

Which plan provides immediate response procedures and management guidance?

Options:

A.

BCP

B.

IRP

C.

DRP

D.

All

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Questions 42

What is the primary factor in the reliability of information and systems?

Options:

A.

Authenticity

B.

Confidentiality

C.

Integrity

D.

Availability

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Questions 43

Which term describes a communication tunnel that provides point-to-point transmission of authentication and data traffic over an untrusted network?

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

DMZ

C.

VPN

D.

None of the above

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Questions 44

Configuration settings or parameters stored as data and managed through a GUI are examples of:

Options:

A.

Logical access control

B.

Physical access control

C.

Administrative access control

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Questions 45

An agreement between a cloud service provider and a customer based on cloud-specific terms is called:

Options:

A.

Memorandum of Understanding

B.

Memorandum of Agreement

C.

Service Level Agreement (SLA)

D.

All

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Questions 46

John is concerned about a possible conflict of interest from a consulting side job. Which source should he consult?

Options:

A.

ISC2 Code of Ethics

B.

Organizational Code of Ethics

C.

Country Code of Ethics

D.

Organizational Security Policy

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Questions 47

A CISO documents a policy establishing acceptable cloud use for all staff. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Technical control

B.

Physical control

C.

Cloud control

D.

Management / Administrative control

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Questions 48

The right of an individual to control the distribution of information about themselves is:

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Integrity

C.

Privacy

D.

Availability

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Questions 49

The prevention of authorized access to resources or delaying time-critical operations is known as:

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

Authorization

C.

Authentication

D.

Availability

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Questions 50

Which type of database combines related records and fields into a logical tree structure?

Options:

A.

Relational

B.

Hierarchical

C.

Object-oriented

D.

Network

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Questions 51

A way to prevent unwanted devices from connecting to a network is:

Options:

A.

DMZ

B.

VPN

C.

VLAN

D.

NAC

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Questions 52

Which zero-trust component breaks LANs into very small, localized security zones?

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

DMZ

C.

VPN

D.

Microsegmentation

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Questions 53

Ignoring a risk and continuing business operations is known as:

Options:

A.

Risk acceptance

B.

Risk mitigation

C.

Risk avoidance

D.

Risk transfer

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Questions 54

Which type of software testing focuses on examining the source code for vulnerabilities and security issues?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Functional testing

D.

User acceptance testing

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Questions 55

Limiting access based on data sensitivity and user authorization is known as:

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

MAC

C.

RuBAC

D.

RBAC

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Questions 56

Which of the following is a characteristic of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Broad network access

B.

Rapid elasticity

C.

Measured service

D.

All

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Questions 57

An unknown person obtains unauthorized access to the company file system. This is an example of:

Options:

A.

Intrusion

B.

Breach

C.

Exploit

D.

Incident

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Questions 58

What does the termbusinessin business continuity planning refer to?

Options:

A.

The financial performance of the organization

B.

The technical systems of the organization

C.

The operational aspects of the organization

D.

The physical infrastructure of the organization

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Questions 59

A LAN-based attack involving malicious packets sent to the default gateway:

Options:

A.

ARP poisoning

B.

SYN flood

C.

Ping of death

D.

Trojan

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Questions 60

Which of the following is NOT one of the three main components of an SQL database?

Options:

A.

Views

B.

Schemas

C.

Tables

D.

Object-oriented interfaces

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Questions 61

Incident management is also known as:

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

Business continuity management

C.

Incident management

D.

Crisis management

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Questions 62

Example of Type 1 authentication:

Options:

A.

Password

B.

Smart card

C.

Fingerprint

D.

RSA token

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Questions 63

Which principle states that users should have access only to the specific data and resources needed to perform required tasks?

Options:

A.

Zero Trust

B.

Defense in Depth

C.

Least Privilege

D.

All

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Questions 64

A set of rules that everyone must comply with and that usually carry monetary penalties for noncompliance are:

Options:

A.

Standards

B.

Policies

C.

Procedures

D.

Laws or regulations

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Questions 65

During an ISC2 CC exam, you observe another candidate cheating. What should you do?

Options:

A.

Yell at them

B.

Do nothing

C.

Report the candidate to ISC2

D.

Call law enforcement

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Questions 66

Which plan is activated when Incident Response and BCP fail?

Options:

A.

Risk management

B.

BIA

C.

DRP

D.

None

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Questions 67

Who should participate in creating a Business Continuity Plan?

Options:

A.

Management only

B.

IT only

C.

Finance only

D.

Members across the organization

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Questions 68

Which element of the security policy framework includes recommendations that are NOT binding?

Options:

A.

Procedures

B.

Guidelines

C.

Standards

D.

Policies

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Questions 69

A security event in which an intruder gains or attempts unauthorized access to a system is called:

Options:

A.

Intrusion

B.

Exploit

C.

Threat

D.

Attack

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Questions 70

What is the importance of non-repudiation in today’s world of e-commerce?

Options:

A.

Ensures people are not held responsible for transactions they did not conduct

B.

Ensures people are held responsible for transactions they conducted

C.

Ensures transactions are not conducted online

D.

Ensures transactions are conducted online

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Questions 71

What is the highest priority during incident response?

Options:

A.

Protect mission

B.

Reduce impact

C.

Protect life, health, and safety

D.

Resume operations

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Questions 72

Firewalls operate at which OSI layers?

Options:

A.

Layer 3

B.

Layer 4

C.

Layer 7

D.

All

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Questions 73

A DLP solution should be deployed so it can inspect all forms of data leaving the organization, including:

Options:

A.

Posting to websites

B.

Applications and APIs

C.

Copying to portable media

D.

All

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Questions 74

Common network device used to connect networks?

Options:

A.

Server

B.

Endpoint

C.

Router

D.

Switch

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Questions 75

Which protocol is used for secure email?

Options:

A.

POP3S

B.

IMAPS

C.

SMTPS

D.

All

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Questions 76

Which is the most efficient and effective way to test a business continuity plan?

Options:

A.

Simulations

B.

Discussions

C.

Walkthroughs

D.

Reviews

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Questions 77

A curated knowledge base modeling adversary behavior across attack phases is:

Options:

A.

MITRE ATTandCK

B.

CVE

C.

RMF

D.

Security Management

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Questions 78

Which of the following best describes a zero-day vulnerability?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability that has been identified and patched

B.

A vulnerability that has not yet been discovered or publicly disclosed

C.

A vulnerability exploitable only by experts

D.

A vulnerability that affects only legacy systems

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Questions 79

A ________ creates an encrypted tunnel to protect your personal data and communications.

Options:

A.

HTTPS

B.

VPN

C.

Anti-virus

D.

IDS

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Questions 80

After an earthquake disrupts business operations, which document contains the reactive procedures required to return business to normal operations?

Options:

A.

Business Impact Analysis

B.

Business Continuity Plan

C.

Disaster Recovery Plan

D.

Business Impact Plan

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Questions 81

Which protocol would be most suitable to fulfill the secure communication requirements between clients and the server for a company deploying a new application?

Options:

A.

FTP

B.

HTTP

C.

HTTPS

D.

SMTP

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Questions 82

XenServer, LVM, Hyper-V, and ESXi are:

Options:

A.

Type 2 hypervisors

B.

Type 1 hypervisors

C.

Both

D.

None

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Questions 83

A hacker launches a specific attack to exploit a known vulnerability. This is called:

Options:

A.

Breach

B.

Event

C.

Exploit

D.

Intrusion

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Questions 84

An employee unintentionally shares confidential information with an unauthorized party. What term best describes this?

Options:

A.

Event

B.

Exploit

C.

Intrusion

D.

Breach

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Questions 85

The DevOps team has updated the application source code. Tom discovered that many unauthorized changes have been made. What is the BEST control Tom can implement to prevent a recurrence of this problem?

Options:

A.

Backup

B.

File labels

C.

Security audit

D.

Hashing

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Questions 86

Which principle requires that all instances of data be identical?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality

B.

Availability

C.

Consistency

D.

All

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Questions 87

The harmonization of automated computing tasks into reusable workflows is called:

Options:

A.

Cloud orchestration

B.

Cloud manager

C.

Cloud broker

D.

Cloud controller

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Questions 88

What is an IP address?

Options:

A.

A physical address

B.

A vendor identifier

C.

A logical address associated with a network interface

D.

A hardware address

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Questions 89

When the ISC2 mail server sends mail to other mail servers, it becomes a —?

Options:

A.

SMTP Server

B.

SMTP Peer

C.

SMTP Master

D.

SMTP Client

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Questions 90

Which control identifies that an attack has occurred or is occurring?

Options:

A.

Preventive control

B.

Detective control

C.

Corrective control

D.

Recovery control

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Questions 91

A security event does not affect confidentiality, integrity, or availability. What is it?

Options:

A.

Exploit

B.

Breach

C.

Incident

D.

Event

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Questions 92

The prevention of authorized access to resources or the delaying of time-critical operations is known as:

Options:

A.

ARP poisoning

B.

SYN flood

C.

Denial-of-Service (DoS)

D.

All

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Questions 93

Which approach involves a continuous cycle of identifying, assessing, prioritizing, and mitigating cybersecurity risks?

Options:

A.

Security assessment

B.

Incident response

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Risk management

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Questions 94

Ensuring a process cannot be completed by a single person is known as:

Options:

A.

Segregation of duties

B.

Least privilege

C.

Privileged account

D.

Rule-based access control

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Questions 95

Example of dynamic authorization:

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

RBAC

C.

MAC

D.

ABAC

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Questions 96

Which principle aims primarily at fraud detection?

Options:

A.

Defense in depth

B.

Least privilege

C.

Separation of duties

D.

Privileged account

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Questions 97

What is the difference between BCP and DRP?

Options:

A.

BCP restores IT; DRP maintains business functions

B.

DRP restores IT; BCP maintains business functions

C.

They are the same

D.

BCP is only before disasters

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Questions 98

Governments can impose financial penalties as a consequence of breaking a:

Options:

A.

Standard

B.

Regulation

C.

Policy

D.

Procedure

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Questions 99

Which is NOT a possible model for an Incident Response Team (IRT)?

Options:

A.

Leveraged

B.

Dedicated

C.

Hybrid

D.

Outsourced

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Questions 100

A tool used to inspect outbound traffic to reduce threats:

Options:

A.

Anti-malware

B.

NIDS

C.

DLP

D.

Firewall

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Questions 101

Modern solutions that detect rootkits, ransomware, and spyware are:

Options:

A.

Antivirus

B.

IDS

C.

IPS

D.

Anti-malware

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Questions 102

Four main components of Incident Response are:

Options:

A.

Preparation, Detection and Analysis, Containment, Eradication and Recovery

B.

Preparation, Detection, Analysis and Containment

C.

Detection, Analysis, Containment, Eradication and Recovery

D.

All

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Questions 103

Which OSI layer associates MAC addresses with network devices?

Options:

A.

Physical layer

B.

Network layer

C.

Data Link layer

D.

Transport layer

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Questions 104

Which one of the following controls is NOT particularly effective against the insider threat?

Options:

A.

Least privilege

B.

Background checks

C.

Firewalls

D.

Separation of duties

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Questions 105

An attack in which a user authenticated to a server unknowingly invokes unwanted actions after visiting a malicious website is known as:

Options:

A.

XSS

B.

CSRF

C.

Spoofing

D.

ALL

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Questions 106

A one-way spinning door or barrier that allows only one person at a time to enter a building or area.

Options:

A.

Turnstile

B.

Mantrap

C.

Bollard

D.

Gate

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Questions 107

Exhibit.

How many keys would be required to support 50 users in an asymmetric cryptography system?

Options:

A.

100

B.

200

C.

50

D.

1225

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Questions 108

The last phase in the data security lifecycle is:

Options:

A.

Encryption

B.

Destruction

C.

Archival

D.

Backup

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Questions 109

Which can be considered a fingerprint of a file or message?

Options:

A.

Hashing

B.

Encryption

C.

Decryption

D.

Encoding

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Questions 110

What is the BEST defense against dumpster diving attacks?

Options:

A.

Anti-malware software

B.

Clean desk policy

C.

Data loss prevention tools

D.

Shredding

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Questions 111

Which layer provides services directly to the user?

Options:

A.

Application Layer

B.

Session Layer

C.

Presentation Layer

D.

Physical Layer

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Questions 112

Which OSI layer does a VPN primarily operate at?

Options:

A.

Layer 5

B.

Layer 6

C.

Layer 1

D.

Layer 3

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Questions 113

What is knowledge-based authentication?

Options:

A.

Authentication based on a passphrase or secret code

B.

Authentication based on a token or smart card

C.

Authentication based on biometrics

D.

Authentication based on behavior

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Questions 114

Which uses encrypted, machine-generated codes to verify a user's identity?

Options:

A.

Basic authentication

B.

Form-based authentication

C.

Token-based authentication

D.

All

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Questions 115

Malware that disguises itself as legitimate software is called:

Options:

A.

Worm

B.

Trojan

C.

Virus

D.

Ransomware

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Questions 116

Granting a user access to services or a system is known as:

Options:

A.

Authentication

B.

Identification

C.

Authorization

D.

Confidentiality

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Questions 117

Which access control method uses attributes and rules evaluated by a central Policy Decision Point (PDP)?

Options:

A.

DAC

B.

RBAC

C.

MAC

D.

ABAC

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Questions 118

A popular way of implementing the principle of least privilege is:

Options:

A.

MAC

B.

DAC

C.

RBAC

D.

ABAC

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Questions 119

What is the potential impact of an IPSec replay attack?

Options:

A.

Modification of network traffic

B.

Disruption of network communication

C.

Unauthorized access to network resources

D.

All

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Questions 120

What is the main objective of DRP after a breach shuts down systems?

Options:

A.

Relocation

B.

Employee safety

C.

Prosecution

D.

Restore systems

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Exam Code: CC
Exam Name: CC - Certified in Cybersecurity
Last Update: Feb 20, 2026
Questions: 403
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