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CPIM-8.0 Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

A stockout of dependent-demand item X occurred during the holiday season. To understand the root cause of the stockout, the planner should check if:

Options:

A.

There was high customer demand for X.

B.

There was a wrong seasonal index applied to X.

C.

There was an inventory inaccuracy for X.

D.

There was a low forecast for X.

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Questions 5

Which of the following BEST effective when protecting against insider threats?

Options:

A.

Implement Two-Factor Authentication (2FA).

B.

Segment data repositories by business rules.

C.

Develop recovery and restoration procedures.

D.

Address security in third-party agreements.

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Questions 6

Which of the following represents the level of confidence that software is free from intentional an accidental vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Due care

B.

Vulnerability management

C.

Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC)

D.

Software assurance

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Questions 7

Which of the following describes the 3 MAIN roles of the identity-delegation model?

Options:

A.

Application server, web server, and delegate

B.

Application server, proxy server, and delegate

C.

Delegator, delegate, and service provider

D.

Delegator, application server, and service provider

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Questions 8

Company A has acquired Company B. Company A has decided to start a project to convert Company B ' s enterprise resource planning (ERP) software to the same ERP software that Company A uses. What is a likely reason for this decision?

Options:

A.

The ERP system has business processes which both companies can adopt

B.

Company A wants to save on software licensing costs

C.

Each ERP package has unique and distinctive business processes

D.

Company A wishes to close Company B ' s data center

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Questions 9

An organization wants to ensure the security of communications across its environment. What is the BEST way to provide confidentiality of data from handheld wireless devices to the internal network?

Options:

A.

Transmission encryption

B.

Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

C.

Single Sign-On (SSO)

D.

Transmission authentication

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Questions 10

After a data loss event, an organization is reviewing its Identity and Access Management (IAM) governance process. The organization determines that the process is not operating effectively. What should be the FIRST step to effectively manage the IAM governance process?

Options:

A.

Complete an inventory of who has access to systems.

B.

Create a Role-Based Access Control (RBAC) process to determine what a specific group of users can access.

C.

Create an Attribute-Based Access Control (ABAC) process to assign access to users based on their account attributes and characteristics.

D.

Conduct an assessment and remove all inactive accounts.

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Questions 11

A recent email-based malware breakout caused a significant volume of traffic and password spam account lockouts for an organization. Which BEST identifies compromised devices?

Options:

A.

Security Information And Event Management (SIEM)

B.

Network Intrusion Detection System (NIDS)

C.

Vulnerability scan

D.

Penetration test

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Questions 12

Which of the following inventory management techniques is most responsive to changes in demand levels?

Options:

A.

Two-bin system

B.

Periodic review system

C.

Cycle counting

D.

ABC classification

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Questions 13

A manufacturer uses a low-cost strategy. It recently reviewed its components and realized it is using multiple versions of one screw. Reducing the variety of screws will contribute to its cost advantage by:

Options:

A.

Reducing the number of products offered

B.

Increasing economies of scale in purchasing

C.

Allowing outsourcing of value chain activities

D.

Allowing the production plant to operate at full capacity

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Questions 14

Which of the below represents the GREATEST cloud-specific policy and organizational risk?

Options:

A.

Supply chain failure

B.

Loss of business reputation due to co-tenant activities

C.

Loss of governance between the client and cloud provider

D.

Cloud service termination or failure

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Questions 15

An external audit is conducted on an organization ' s cloud Information Technology (IT) infrastructure. This organization has been using cloud IT services for several years, but its use is not regulated in any way by the organization and security audits have never been conducted in the past. Which task will be the MOST challenging to conduct an effective security audit?

Options:

A.

Resource forecast

B.

Asset inventory

C.

Access to logs

D.

Software license agreements

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Questions 16

After a recent cybersecurity incident, a manufacturing organization is interested in further hardening its Identity and Access Management (IAM) solution. Knowing that the organization limits the use of personal devices in the facility, which could BEST be implemented to enhance the manufacturing organization ' s IAM solution?

Options:

A.

Enhanced background checks

B.

Mobile Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) application

C.

Biometric system

D.

Personal Identification Number (PIN) code

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Questions 17

Which of the following design considerations would offer the BEST protection against unauthorized access to the facility?

Options:

A.

Allowing only one person to enter at a time

B.

Auditing access logs annually

C.

Limiting access to regular business hours only

D.

Establishing entry points from public areas only

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Questions 18

Which burden of proof has been applied when a workplace investigation has a 51 percent or greater certainty that allegations are true?

Options:

A.

Preponderance of evidence

B.

Beyond a reasonable doubt

C.

Some credible evidence

D.

Clear and convincing

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Questions 19

An organization starts to develop a drone inspection and defect detection system includes different subsystems running at different clouds from different service providers. During the architectural design phase, which security architecture principle should be the MOST important for the security engineer to apply?

Options:

A.

Security by design

B.

Default deny

C.

Security by default

D.

Security before design

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Questions 20

A security consultant is working with an organization to help evaluate a proposal received from a new managed security service provider. There are questions about the confidentiality and effectiveness of the provider ' s system over a period of time. Which of the following System And Organization Controls (SOC) report types should the consultant request from the provider?

Options:

A.

SOC 2 Type 1

B.

SOC 2 Type 2

C.

SOC 1 Type 1

D.

SOC 1 Type 2

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Questions 21

Components of an organization ' s Immediate industry and competitive environment Include:

Options:

A.

political factors.

B.

interest rates.

C.

substitute products.

D.

sociocultural forces.

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Questions 22

A security consultant is recommending the implementation of a security-focused Configuration Management (CM) process in an organization. What would be the BEST benefit the security consultant would include in the recommendation?

Options:

A.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with existing security requirements of the organization.

B.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with regulatory requirements placed on an organization.

C.

Security-focused CM surpasses existing security requirements of the organization.

D.

Security-focused CM integrates the general concepts of CM with best practices derived from industry frameworks.

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Questions 23

A newer automotive supplier has not fully developed its information technology (IT) systems. The supplier has Just received a contract from a large automotive manufacturer which requires the supplier to use electronic data interchange (EDI) transactions for receiving orders, sending advance ship notices (ASNs), and receiving invoice payments. What strategy can the supplier adopt to immediately meet the EDI requirements?

Options:

A.

Select, install, and implement EDI software.

B.

Use current third-party logistics provider (3PL) to handle the EDI transactions.

C.

Claim hardship and ask the automotive manufacturer for a waiver.

D.

Negotiate using email as an alternative with the customer.

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Questions 24

In a rapidly changing business environment, a primary advantage of an effective customer relationship management (CRM) program is:

Options:

A.

reduced forecast variability.

B.

fewer customer order changes.

C.

fewer customer defections.

D.

earlier Identification of shifts Incustomer preferences.

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Questions 25

An organization is running a cloud-based application to process the information obtained at point-of-sale devices. Which guideline should be applied to the application?

Options:

A.

Health Insurance Portability And Accountability Act (HIPAA)

B.

Application Security Verification Standard (ASVS)

C.

Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS)

D.

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA)

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Questions 26

Which of the following security features is utilized to validate both user credentials and the health of the client device on a network?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Internet Protocol Security (IPSec)

C.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

D.

Network Access Control (NAC)

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Questions 27

What is the MOST important security benefit of comprehensive asset management?

Options:

A.

Enforces information security policies

B.

Supports understanding of enterprise security posture

C.

Supports locating security components at end of life

D.

Enforces network security access controls

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Questions 28

Which of the following is a system architecture in a data protection strategy?

Options:

A.

Logical isolation

B.

Network segmentation

C.

Distributed network

D.

Access enforcement

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Questions 29

In which of the following circumstances is an organization MOST likely to report the accidental release of personal data to the European Union (EU) General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) supervisory authority and affected users?

Options:

A.

The release of personal data was made to a highly trusted third-party vendor and there was confirmation that the data was not accessed before it was returned.

B.

The personal data was stored in a highly encrypted format and there is confirmation that the encryption keys were not accessed or released.

C.

All the personal data from the accidental release was from individuals who are not living in the EU.

D.

The personal data released only contained the ages and names of children who may or may not be living in the EU.

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Questions 30

Once an organization has identified and properly classified their information and data assets, policies and procedures are created to establish requirements for the handling, protection, retention, and disposal of those assets. Which solution is the BEST method to enforce data usage policies, discover sensitive data, monitor the use of sensitive data, and ensure regulatory compliance and intellectual property protection?

Options:

A.

Application whitelisting

B.

Data governance

C.

Data loss prevention (DLP)

D.

Intrusion detection and prevention system (IDPS)

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Questions 31

A large organization is planning to lay off half of its staff. From an information security point of view, what is the BEST way of approaching affected staff?

Options:

A.

Discuss the Non-Disclosure Agreement (NDA) with the affected staff before revoking access.

B.

Revoke the user certificates and add them to the Certificate Revocation List (CRL).

C.

Revoke user access at the time of informing them.

D.

Ask human resources to conduct exit interviews before revoking access.

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Questions 32

A product manager wishes to store sensitive development data using a cloud storage vendor while maintaining exclusive control over passwords and encryption credentials. What is the BEST method for meeting these requirements?

Options:

A.

Local self-encryption with passwords managed by a local password manager

B.

Client-side encryption keys and passwords generated dynamically during cloud access sessions

C.

Zero-knowledge encryption keys provided by the cloud storage vendor

D.

Passwords generated by a local password manager during cloud access sessions and encrypted in transit

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Questions 33

Which role is MOST accountable for allocating security function resources in order to initiate the information security governance and risk management policy?

Options:

A.

Project management office

B.

Chief Financial Officer (CFO)

C.

Board of Directors

D.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO)

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Questions 34

Which of the following BEST defines whether an organization can consider an alternate location during a contingency?

Options:

A.

Verify the availability of an office location for the given size of the team

B.

Verify that there is a contractual obligation for location-providing services

C.

Verify the availability of cheap resources in the new location

D.

Verify that a memorandum of understanding (MOU) is in place for office equipment

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Questions 35

What MUST be completed before developing physical security controls?

Options:

A.

Develop a comprehensive security policy

B.

Provide the annual security awareness training

C.

Contract for licensed and bonded security force

D.

Perform a physical security audit

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Questions 36

Which of the following protocols BEST provides for the secure transfer of voice, data, and video over a network?

Options:

A.

Transmission Control Protocol (TCP)

B.

Voice Over Internet Protocol (VoIP)

C.

User Datagram Protocol (UDP)

D.

HyperText Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS)

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Questions 37

Plans are being made to move an organization’s software systems to the cloud in order to utilize the flexibility and scalability of the cloud. Some of these software systems process highly sensitive data. The organization must follow strict legal requirements regarding the location of the highly sensitive data processed by the software systems. Which cloud model will BEST fit the organization’s requirements?

Options:

A.

Private cloud

B.

Multicloud

C.

Public cloud

D.

Hybrid cloud

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Questions 38

A regular remote user executed an application that allowed the execution of commands with elevated permissions. It was allowed to create new users, start and stop services, and view critical log files. Which exploit type did the application use in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Privilege escalation

D.

Buffer overflow

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Questions 39

Which of the following planes directs the flow of data within a Software-Defined Networking (SDN) architecture?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Data

C.

Application

D.

Control

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Questions 40

A bill of resources typically contains information about a product’s:

Options:

A.

Complete list of components

B.

Production schedule

C.

Inventory balances

D.

Key work centers

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Questions 41

Which of the following is the MOST effective approach to reduce the threat of rogue devices being introduced to the internal network?

Options:

A.

Authorize connecting devices

B.

Authenticate connecting devices

C.

Disable unauthorized devices

D.

Scan connecting devices

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Questions 42

Which of the following sampling techniques is BEST suited for comprehensive risk assessments?

Options:

A.

Convenience sampling

B.

Snowball sampling

C.

Judgement sampling

D.

Systematic sampling

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Questions 43

What can help a security professional assess and mitigate vulnerabilities of an embedded device?

Options:

A.

Conduct black-box testing.

B.

Conduct red-box testing.

C.

Conduct yellow-box testing.

D.

Conduct green-box testing.

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Questions 44

A manufacturer has a forecasted annual demand of 1,000,000 units for a new product. They have to choose 1 of 4 new pieces of equipment to produce this product. Assume that revenue will be $10 per unit for all 4 options.

Which machine will maximize their profit if the manufacturer anticipates market demand will be steady for 3 years and there is no residual value for any of the equipment choices?

MachineFixed CostVariable Cost per UnitAnnual Capacity

AS100.000$6 00800,000 units

B$200,000$5 501.000,000 units

C$250,000$5 001,200,000 units

D$1 000.000$4 501 400.000 units

Options:

A.

Machine A

B.

Machine B

C.

Machine C

D.

Machine D

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Questions 45

What is the following is the MAIN reason why hot-spot usually adopt open security mode in wireless networks?

Options:

A.

Ease of use

B.

Limitation of Infrastructure

C.

Adapter compatibility concerns

D.

Cost concerns

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Questions 46

What is the BEST way to plan for power disruptions when implementing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

Options:

A.

Empty jugs which can easily be filled up with water.

B.

Stock up on generator fuel and execute a generator test.

C.

Request bids for inexpensive generators.

D.

Purchase a contract with a secondary power provider.

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Questions 47

A company has a demand for 30 units of A, 40 units of B, and 50 units of C. These products are scheduled to run daily in batches of 10 as follows: ABC, ABC, ABC, CBC. What is this scheduling

technique called?

Options:

A.

Mixed-model

B.

Matrix

C.

Synchronized

D.

Line balancing

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Questions 48

A cybersecurity analyst is reviewing a recent incident in which the adversaries were able to move vertically within the network. Which attack phase MOST clearly represents this scenario?

Options:

A.

System browsing

B.

Escalating privileges

C.

Gaining access

D.

Installing additional tools

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Questions 49

A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live.

What is the organization ' s BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.

B.

Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

C.

Gain assurance on the vendor’s security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.

D.

Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.

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Questions 50

What activity is a useful element in the change process?

Options:

A.

Creating short-term wins

B.

Calculating a break-even point

C.

Performing a SWOT analysis

D.

Developing key performance indicators (KPIs)

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Questions 51

A security engineer is reviewing Incident Response (IR) roles and responsibilities. Several roles have static elevated privileges in case an incident occurs. Instead of static access, what is the BEST access method to manage elevated privileges?

Options:

A.

Just-in-time

B.

Delegated

C.

Break-glass

D.

Automated

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Questions 52

Network Access Control (NAC) is used to perform what function for computers joining the network?

Options:

A.

Ensure all networking components communicate with each other.

B.

Ensure that all approved devices can join the network.

C.

Restrict access to the network based on Media Access Control (MAC) address or Internet Protocol (IP) address.

D.

Restrict the time and date that computers are allowed to connect to the organization’s network.

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Questions 53

After a recent threat modeling workshop, the organization has requested that the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) implement zero trust (ZT) policies. What was the MOST likely threat identified in the workshop?

Options:

A.

Natural threats

B.

Elevation of privilege

C.

Repudiation

D.

Information disclosure

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Questions 54

A security assessor has been engaged to perform a penetration test on control system components located on a shipping vessel. The individuals on the ship do not have any knowledge of how the component is configured or its internal workings. Which of the following test types does this scenario call for?

Options:

A.

Tandem testing

B.

Blind testing

C.

Double-gray testing

D.

Double-blind testing

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Questions 55

An example of a cradle-to-cradle sustainability model would be:

Options:

A.

a laundry service collects dirty baby clothes from families; cleans the clothes in large, efficient batches; and then sorts and delivers the clothes back to each family.

B.

a coffee shop collects paper waste in its restaurants, has a selected supplier collect the paper waste to be recycled, and then purchases paper products from that supplier.

C.

a company uses wood that has been gathered from multiple sources to construct items, such as beds and toys for babies and young children.

D.

a bank offers the lowest interest rates on loans to firms that are committed to using recycled materials and implementing zero-waste initiatives in their processes.

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Questions 56

An organization’s security assessment recommended expanding its secure software development framework to include testing Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) products before deploying those products in production. What is the MOST likely reason for this recommendation?

Options:

A.

To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment

B.

To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the user acceptance testing

C.

To identify any residual vulnerabilities prior to the end of the trial run of the software

D.

To identify and remediate any residual vulnerabilities prior to release in the production environment

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Questions 57

A logistics manager Is faced with delivering an order via rail or truck. Shipping via rail costs S300 and takes 14 days. Shipping via truck costs $600 and takes 3 days. If the holding cost is $40 per day, what is the cost to deliver the order?

Options:

A.

$340for rail,$600 for truck

B.

$340for rail.$720 for truck

C.

$860for rail,$720 for truck

D.

$860for rail.$600 for truck

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Questions 58

Which of the physiological biometric scanning methods is considered the MOST invasive?

Options:

A.

Retina

B.

Facial recognition

C.

Iris

D.

Hand geometry

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Questions 59

Which of the following is the BEST activity to mitigate risk from ransomware on mobile devices and removable media in a corporate environment?

Options:

A.

Use compliant encryption algorithms and tools.

B.

Use a secure password management tool to store sensitive information.

C.

Implement Mobile Device Management (MDM).

D.

Develop and test an appropriate data backup and recovery plan.

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Questions 60

What is a strategic process that is aimed at considering possible attack scenarios and vulnerabilities within a proposed or existing application environment for the purpose of clearly identifying risk and impact levels?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Asset management

C.

Risk management

D.

Asset modeling

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Questions 61

In restoring the entire corporate email system after a major outage and data loss, an email administrator reads a few email message exchanges between the human resources manager and a candidate for an open position. Which of the following BEST describes the behavior of the email administrator, and why?

Options:

A.

The behavior is ethical, because the email administrator was not deliberately looking for the email and only accidentally read the emails.

B.

The behavior is ethical, because the email administrator read the emails to confirm that the email system was properly restored.

C.

The behavior is not ethical, because the email administrator exceeded his or her privilege and trust in reading the email messages.

D.

The behavior is not ethical, because the email administrator should have informed the manager about the restoration in advance.

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Questions 62

What is most likely to be the effect of developing a current-state value stream map?

Options:

A.

Identification of non-value-added activities

B.

Reduction in manufacturing lead time

C.

Increased component standardization

D.

Elimination of waste

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Questions 63

A security practitioner has been asked to investigate the presence of customer Personally Identifiable Information (PII) on a social media website. Where does the practitioner begin?

Options:

A.

Initiate the organization’s Incident Response Plan (IRP).

B.

Review the organizational social media policy.

C.

Review logs of all user’s social media activity.

D.

Determine a list of information assets that contain PII.

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Questions 64

After reviewing the output of a threat modelling workshop, the development manager decides not to implement the application features where issues were identified. What is the BEST description of how the threats from the workshop are being addressed?

Options:

A.

Eliminated

B.

Mitigated

C.

Transferred

D.

Accepted

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Questions 65

Which of the following ports needs to be open for Kerberos Key Distribution Center (KDC) to function properly?

Options:

A.

88

B.

389

C.

443

D.

3268

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Questions 66

A new organization building is being designed and the security manager has been asked for input on needed security requirements. Which of the following controls are MOST applicable to this scenario?

Options:

A.

Deterrent controls, such as signs announcing video cameras and alarms, are installed.

B.

Preventative controls, such as Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and security guards, are used.

C.

Preventative controls, such as Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) and mechanical locks, are used.

D.

Deterrent controls, such as signs announcing video cameras and alarms, are installed.

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Questions 67

The question below is based on the following information:

Beginning inventory = 43Week 1Week 2Week 3

Forecast202020

Customer orders221710

Projected on-hand

Master production schedule (MPS)80

Available-to-promise (ATP)

What is the largest customer order that could be accepted for delivery at the end of week 3 without making changes to the master production schedule (MPS)?

Options:

A.

74

B.

63

C.

61

D.

31

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Questions 68

Which of the following should be performed FIRST in the course of a digital forensics investigation?

Options:

A.

Undelete files and investigate their content.

B.

Search through unallocated space.

C.

Shut down the system.

D.

Identify any data that needs to be obtained.

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Questions 69

A software development vendor wants to test the Application Programming Interface (API). The testers use and manipulate data to identify the various states of the application behavior. What is the kind of testing that is being used?

Options:

A.

Quality Assurance (QA) testing

B.

Integration technique

C.

User Acceptance Testing

D.

Fuzzing technique

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Questions 70

Price negotiation is most appropriate when purchasing which of the following product categories?

Options:

A.

Commodities

B.

Standard products

C.

Items of small value

D.

Made-to-order (MTO) items

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Questions 71

Cloud computing introduces the concept of the shared responsibility model. This model can MOST accurately be described as defining shared responsibility between which of the following?

Options:

A.

Hosts and guest environments

B.

Operating Systems (OS) and applications

C.

Networks and virtual environments

D.

Customers and providers

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Questions 72

A third-party vendor is procured to conduct a non-financial audit. Which report evaluates the effectiveness of the controls?

Options:

A.

Statement of Auditing Standards (SAS) 70

B.

System ad Organization Controls (SOC) 1

C.

System ad Organization Controls (SOC) 2

D.

System ad Organization Controls (SOC) 3

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Questions 73

Which of the following systems would be the most cost-efficient for inventory management of a low value item?

Options:

A.

Order point

B.

Material requirements planning (MRP)

C.

Periodic review

D.

Economic order quantity(EOQ)

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Questions 74

An organization is working to secure its Supervisory Control And Data Acquisition (SCADA) system, Which monitors water supply to the city. What type of security should the organization ensure FIRST?

Options:

A.

Endpoint security

B.

Network security

C.

Cyber physical security

D.

Cloud security

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Questions 75

Which of the following Secure Shell (SSH) remote access practices is MOST suited for scripted functions?

Options:

A.

Requiring Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA)

B.

Using public key-based authentication method

C.

Restricting authentication by Internet Protocol (IP) address

D.

Implementing access credentials management tools

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Questions 76

An information security professional has been tasked with remediating vulnerabilities identified during a recent penetration test. Which of the following sections of the penetration results report would be MOST preferable to remediate hosts one at a time?

Options:

A.

Findings by host, with associated vulnerabilities

B.

Findings by vulnerabilities, with associated hosts

C.

Appendix of definitions

D.

Executive summary

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Questions 77

Which of the following incorporates design techniques promoted by Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design (CPTED)?

Options:

A.

Capacity of residents to act individually should be increased.

B.

Landscape design features should be used to create the impression of a fortress.

C.

Multiple entrances and exits should be used to keep traffic flowing smoothly through the facility.

D.

Communal areas with amenities should be created to encourage activity and use.

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Questions 78

A security practitioner notices that workforce members retain access to information systems after transferring to new roles within the organization, which could lead to unauthorized changes to the information systems.

This is a direct violation of which common security model?

Options:

A.

Clark-Wilson

B.

Bell-LaPadula

C.

Graham-Denning

D.

Take-Grant

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Questions 79

An organization implemented a threat modeling program focusing on key assets. However, after a short time it became clear that the organization was having difficulty executing the threat modeling program.

Which approach will MOST likely have been easier to execute?

Options:

A.

System-centric approach

B.

Attacker-centric approach

C.

Asset-centric approach

D.

Developer-centric approach

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Questions 80

An organization has deployed an Identity And Access Management (IAM) tool and is expanding their information governance program. Which of the following would BEST be included in the governance for IAM?

Options:

A.

Employ password masking, obfuscation, and tokenization and automate account updates based on human resources reporting.

B.

Implementing Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA) and account lookout controls.

C.

Create and enforce a strong password policy and implementing security awareness training for all users.

D.

Control physical access to the IAM system and implementing Data Loss Prevention (DPL) for credentials.

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Questions 81

An information security professional is enhancing the organization ' s existing information security awareness program through educational posters. Which of the following is the MOST effective location for poster placement?

Options:

A.

In a secure room inside the office

B.

Beside the copy machine

C.

Outside the office

D.

In the human resources area

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Questions 82

As the organization requires user friendly access to a new web-based application, a software developer decides to implement Single Sign-On (SSO). The developer uses the de-facto standard for web-based applications and the implementation includes the use of a JavaScript Object Notation (JSON) web token. With this information, which is the BEST way for the software developer to establish SSO capability?

Options:

A.

The developer Inputs the user ' s account, the user ' s password, and a token.

B.

The developer uses the user ' s credentials stored within the web-based application.

C.

The developer uses Transport Layer Security (TLS) certificates and Open ID Connect (OIDC).

D.

The developer uses Open ID Connect (OIDC) and Open Authorization (OAuth).

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Questions 83

When conducting a vulnerability test using a scanner tool, which unintended consequence can occur?

Options:

A.

Opening of previously closed ports

B.

Adding administrator rights on servers

C.

Performing a Cross-Site Scripting (XSS) attack

D.

Creating a Denial-Of-Service (DoS) condition

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Questions 84

Forecast error typically triggers forecast revision when it is:

Options:

A.

used in computing the tracking signal.

B.

associated with the Introduction stage of the product life cycle.

C.

continually increasing.

D.

caused by random variation.

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Questions 85

A vendor has been awarded a contract to supply key business software. The vendor has declined all requests to have its security controls audited by customers. The organization insists the product must go live within 30 days. However, the security team is reluctant to allow the project to go live. What is the organization ' s BEST next step?

Options:

A.

Shift the negative impact of the risk to a cyber insurance provider, i.e., risk transference.

B.

Document a risk acceptance, in accordance with internal risk management procedures, that will allow the product to go-live.

C.

Gain assurance on the vendor ' s security controls by examining independent audit reports and any relevant certifications the vendor can provide.

D.

Evaluate available open source threat intelligence pertaining to the vendor and their product.

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Questions 86

A web developer was recently asked to create an organization portal that allows users to retrieve contacts from a popular social media platform using Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure (HTTPS). Which of the following is BEST suited for authorizing the resource owner to the social media platform?

Options:

A.

Open Authorization (OAuth) 2.0

B.

OpenID Connect (OIDC)

C.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

D.

Secure Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

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Questions 87

Small, independent demands for components and subassemblies typically arise from which of the following sources?

Options:

A.

Warehouse orders

B.

Repair and service requirements

C.

Original equipment manufacturers

D.

Scrap allowance

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Questions 88

If a work center is already loaded to full capacity, which of the following actions would be best to take before releasing a new order?

Options:

A.

Changing the date of the order

B.

Adjusting the master schedule

C.

Choosing a feasible alternate routing

D.

Releasing the order and trying to produce on time

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Questions 89

An advertising agency is working on a campaign for a prospective client. Competitors are working on a similar campaign and are interested in knowing what the firm has designed. What should the advertising agency do to BEST ensure intellectual property does not leave the organization?

Options:

A.

Protect the information by installing a Data Loss Prevention (DLP) system

B.

Block all organizational email communication with the competitor

C.

Install an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

D.

Encrypt the data on the servers and distribute private-key information to authorized users

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Questions 90

Privacy requirements across national boundaries MOST often require protection of which data types?

Options:

A.

Contact information for elected officials and local and national government web content

B.

Contact information related to minors, medical records, and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

C.

Contact information for board members, proprietary trade secrets, and income statements

D.

Contact information related to medical doctors, Protected Health Information (PHI), and Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

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Questions 91

Given the information below, reducing which measure by 10% would contribute most to shortening the cash-to-cash cycle time?

Options:

A.

Accounts receivable

B.

Inventory value

C.

Accounts payable

D.

Cost of capital

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Questions 92

An example of an assignable cause of variation in process performance is:

Options:

A.

power fluctuation during machine operation.

B.

machine vibration during operation.

C.

incorrect setup of a machine by the operator.

D.

changes in temperature in the machine shop.

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Questions 93

Zombieload, Meltdown, Spectre, and Fallout are all names of bugs that utilized which of the following types of attack?

Options:

A.

Side-channel

B.

Fault injection

C.

Man-In-The-Middle (MITM)

D.

Frequency analysis

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Questions 94

What is the BEST protection method to ensure that an unauthorized entry attempt would fail when securing highly sensitive areas?

Options:

A.

Employee badge with a picture and video surveillance

B.

Keyed locks and Closed-Circuit Television (CCTV) at entrances

C.

Combination lock and a gate that prevents piggybacking

D.

Proximity badge requiring a Personal Identification Number (PIN) entry at entrances

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Questions 95

The project manager has updated the project steering committee that a security vulnerability was found after applying the system security baseline, and remediation has been completed to close the vulnerability. What is the BEST next step for the project?

Options:

A.

Update the security baseline and continue with the next project task.

B.

Proceed with the next project task to meet the project deadlines.

C.

Obtain approval from the project steering, committee to revise the system security baseline.

D.

Create a change request for the system baseline revision.

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Questions 96

The project manager for a new application development is building a test framework. It has been agreed that the framework will Include penetration testing; however, the project manager is keen to identify any flaws prior to the code being ready for execution. Which of the following techniques BEST supports this requirement?

Options:

A.

System vulnerability scans

B.

Database injection tests

C.

System reliability tests

D.

Static source code analysis

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Questions 97

The development team wants new commercial software to Integrate into the current systems. What steps can the security office take to ensure the software has no vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Request a copy of the most recent System and Organization Controls (SOC) report and/or most recent security audit reports and any vulnerability scans of the software code from the vendor.

B.

Purchase the software, deploy it in a test environment, and perform Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST) on the software.

C.

Request a software demo with permission to have a third-party penetration test completed on it.

D.

Ask the development team to reevaluate the current program and have a toolset developed securely within the organization.

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Questions 98

A hot Disaster Recovery (DR) data center is the victim of a data breach. The hackers are able to access and copy 10GB of clear text confidential information. Which of the following could have decreased the amount of exposure from this data breach?

Options:

A.

Encryption in transit

B.

Layer 7 filtering

C.

Encryption at rest

D.

Password hashing

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Questions 99

Return on investment (ROI) is decreased by which of the following activities?

Options:

A.

Increasing prices

B.

Increasing sales volume

C.

Increasing cost of sales

D.

Reducing inventory levels

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Questions 100

Which of the following is the MOST effective practice for tracking organizational assets when removed from the premises?

Options:

A.

Removal is authorized directly by executive management.

B.

Removal is authorized using a formal sign-out process.

C.

Removal is authorized when remote use is required for business.

D.

Removal is authorized if the asset has been disposed of.

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Questions 101

The security department was notified about vulnerabilities regarding users ' identity verification in a web application. Which of the following vulnerabilities is the security professional MOST likely to test?

Options:

A.

Exposure of sensitive information

B.

Use of hard-coded passwords

C.

Trust boundary violation

D.

Improper authentication

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Questions 102

The primary consideration In maintenance, repair, and operating (MRO) supply systems typically is:

Options:

A.

order quantity.

B.

stockout costs.

C.

carrying costs.

D.

shelf life.

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Questions 103

In order for an organization to mature their data governance processes to ensure compliance, they have created a data classification matrix.

What are the next BEST activities to build on this completed work?

Options:

A.

Ensure the data owners agree with the classification of their data and then socialize the matrix with employees handling data.

B.

Ensure the internal legal team approves the data classification matrix then perform a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) to understand the impact of applying the classifications.

C.

Complete a Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) and use the results to identify improvements to the data classification matrix.

D.

Document the handling procedures for each classification of data in the matrix and schedule data handling educational sessions with employees.

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Questions 104

Which protocol is the BEST option to provide authentication, confidentiality, and data integrity between two applications?

Options:

A.

File Transfer Protocol (FTP)

B.

Security Assertion Markup Language (SAML)

C.

Peer-To-Peer (P2P) communication

D.

Transport Layer Security (TLS)

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Questions 105

An organization uses an external Identity Provider (IdP) to secure internal, external, or third-party applications. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk to the organization?

Options:

A.

Unavailability of access logs

B.

Integrity of authentication mechanism

C.

Compromise of service

D.

Deletion of federated tokens

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Questions 106

The Chief Security Officer (CSO) of an organization would like to have a network security assessment done by the security team. Which of the following is the FIRST step in the security testing methodology?

Options:

A.

Investigation

B.

Reconnaissance

C.

Fingerprinting

D.

Exploitation

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Questions 107

What FIRST step should a newly appointed Data Protection Officer (DPO) take to develop an organization ' s regulatory compliance policy?

Options:

A.

Draft an organizational policy on retention for approval.

B.

Ensure that periodic data governance compliance meetings occur.

C.

Understand applicable laws, regulations, and policies with regard to the data.

D.

Determine the classification of each data type.

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Questions 108

An increase in work-in-process (WIP) inventory levels results in:

Options:

A.

Shorter setup time

B.

Smaller batch sizes

C.

Longer throughput time

D.

More accurate due dates

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Questions 109

While doing a penetration test, auditors found an old credential hash for a privileged user. To prevent a privileged user ' s hash from being cached, what is the MOST appropriate policy to mandate?

Options:

A.

Add privileged user to the domain admin group.

B.

Add privileged users to the protected users group.

C.

Enable security options for each privileged user.

D.

Place each privileged user in a separate Kerberos policy.

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Questions 110

An organization has recently been hacked. To prevent future breaches, the Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) hires a third-party vendor to perform penetration testing on the network. Once complete, the vendor provides to the CISO a final report generated by a high-quality vulnerability scanner. The CISO rejects the report as incomplete.

Why is the vendor ' s penetration test considered incomplete?

Options:

A.

The vendor should have attempted to exploit the identified vulnerabilities.

B.

The vendor should also provide a guide to remediate the identified vulnerabilities.

C.

The vendor should have provided a risk report of vulnerabilities found.

D.

The vendor should have worked closely with network engineers to understand the network infrastructure better.

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Questions 111

Pitfalls of a differentiation strategy include:

Options:

A.

Not recognizing opportunities for proprietary advantage

B.

Becoming too focused on cost reduction

C.

Overly aggressive cost cutting resulting in lower margins

D.

Failing to identify gaps in quality or service compared to rivals

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Questions 112

Which of the following activities is an example of collaboration between suppliers and operations which would give more lead time visibility?

Options:

A.

Conducting a facility tour for a supplier

B.

Sharing of demand data with a supplier

C.

Sending the supplier an annual forecast for materials

D.

Conducting a qualification meeting with the supplier of a new material

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Questions 113

An effective approach to projecting requirements for materials with long lead times Includes which of the following options?

Options:

A.

Initiate a multilevel master schedule.

B.

Use phantom bills of materials (BOMs).

C.

Increase the level of safety stock.

D.

Decrease the planning horizon.

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Questions 114

A company has the following production conditions:

    Batch size: 1,000 items

    Processing time: 4 minutes per item

    Setup time: 2 hours

    Utilization: 80%

    Efficiency: 80%

Which of the following actions would result in the work being done in the least amount of time?

Options:

A.

Reduce the processing time for each item to 3.5 minutes.

B.

Increase either utilization or efficiency to 100%.

C.

Increase both utilization and efficiency to 90%.

D.

Eliminate the need for a setup to process the batch.

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Questions 115

Which of the following are steps involved in the identity and access provisioning lifecycle?

Options:

A.

Dissemination, review, revocation

B.

Dissemination, rotation, revocation

C.

Provisioning, review, revocation

D.

Provisioning, Dissemination, revocation

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Questions 116

An information system security manager is tasked with properly applying risk management principle to their cloud information system as outlined by the National Institute of Standards and Technology (NIST).

Which of the following is the INITIAL step?

Options:

A.

Categorize

B.

Select

C.

Assess

D.

Prepare

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Questions 117

An organization has implemented a control that requires users to change their passwords every 30 days. Which setting of the password policy will prevent users from reusing passwords?

Options:

A.

ReuseAllow

B.

History

C.

Iteration

D.

ReuseDeny

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Questions 118

Which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer is concerned with Denial-Of-Service (DoS) SYN flood attacks?

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Physical

C.

Network

D.

Transport

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Questions 119

An organization has integrated its enterprise resource planning system into its centralized Identity and Access Management (IAM) system to automate provisioning of access. A security audit revealed that privileged access granted within the ERP system is not visible in the IAM system. Which of the following controls BEST mitigates this risk?

Options:

A.

Implement step-up authentication for privileged functions within the ERP system.

B.

Implement a periodic review of privileged access within the ERP system.

C.

Implement an automated reconciliation process between ERP and IAM systems.

D.

Implement a periodic review of all ERP access within the IAM system.

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Questions 120

An order winner during the growth stage of a product ' s life cycle is:

Options:

A.

variety.

B.

availability.

C.

dependability.

D.

price.

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Questions 121

A United States (US)-based online gaming provider, which operates in Germany, collects and uses a large amount of user behavioral data. A customer from Germany requests a copy of all their personal data.

What is the MOST appropriate course of action for the organization to take?

Options:

A.

Provide all the requested data in an organization’s proprietary encrypted format and deliver a viewing application.

B.

Gather all the data about all the users and provide it to the customer in Extensible Markup Language (XML) format.

C.

Gather and provide all the requested data in Extensible Markup Language (XML) format.

D.

Provide a time convenient to the customer to visit the organization’s premises and provide an overview of all the processed data by an organization’s privacy officer.

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Questions 122

A security officer has been tasked with performing security assessments on the organization’s in the current calendar year. While collecting data, the officer realizes that more than one business until will be engaged in the assessment. What activity MUST be included in the data collection phase?

Options:

A.

Conduct a detailed data analysis on the security impacts using historical data.

B.

Prioritize assessment activities and strategically asses each application

C.

Identify a sponsor from within the organization to prioritize the activities

D.

Perform a risk analysis and determine which applications must be assessed

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Questions 123

How much data an organization can afford to lose is determined by the:

Options:

A.

Service-Level Agreement (SLA)

B.

Business Continuity Plan (BCP)

C.

Recovery Time Objective (RTO)

D.

Recovery Point Objective (RPO)

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Questions 124

Which of the following is a threat modeling methodology used for accessing threats against applications and Operating Systems (OS)?

Options:

A.

Basically Available, Soft-State, Eventual-Consistency (BASE)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technology (COBIT)

D.

Security, Trust, Assurance And Risk (STAR)

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Questions 125

Broadcast traffic is causing network performance degradation of sensitive equipment.

Which of the following methods is used to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting availability?

Options:

A.

Place the sensitive equipment behind a firewall to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

B.

Implement Quality of Service (QoS) on network switches to throttle the sensitive equipment traffic.

C.

Move the sensitive equipment to a different switch port to prevent the broadcast traffic from impacting the equipment.

D.

Use Network Access Control (NAC) to prevent the broadcast traffic from broadcasting.

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Questions 126

A distribution requirements planning (DRP) system has which of the following characteristics?

Options:

A.

It treats items in distribution centers (DCs) as dependent demand.

B.

It facilitates the use of pull systems.

C.

It uses standard material requirements planning (MRP) logic.

D.

It uses statistical order point techniques to plan inventory replenishment.

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Questions 127

Which of the following is an information security management framework?

Options:

A.

Control Objectives For Information And Related Technologies (COBIT)

B.

Information Technology Infrastructure Library (ITIL)

C.

International Organization For Standardization (ISO) 27001

D.

Cloud Security Alliance (CSA) Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM)

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Questions 128

An organization ' s security policy requires sensitive information to be protected when being transmitted to external sources via would be the BEST security solution to choose?

Options:

A.

Use spam filters and anti-virus software to send emails externally.

B.

Configure digital signatures to send emails externally.

C.

Configure the system to utilize to send encrypted emails externally.

D.

Use e-mail security gateway to send emails externally.

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Questions 129

An organization currently has a network with 55,000 unique Internet Protocol (IP) addresses in their private Internet Protocol version 4 (IPv4) network range and has acquired another organization and must integrate their 25,000 endpoints with the existing, flat network topology. If subnetting is not implemented, which network class is implied for the organization ' s resulting private network segment?

Options:

A.

A

B.

B

C.

C

D.

E

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Questions 130

Asymmetric cryptography uses which type of key to encrypt data?

Options:

A.

Private key

B.

Permanent key

C.

Parent key

D.

Public key

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Questions 131

Which of the following mechanisms are PRIMARILY designed to thwart side channel attacks?

Options:

A.

Honeypots

B.

Adding listening devices

C.

Adding noise

D.

Acoustic cryptanalysis

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Questions 132

Endpoint security needs to be established after an organization procured 1,000 industrial Internet Of Things (IoT) sensors. Which of the following challenges are the security engineers MOST likely to face?

Options:

A.

Identity And Access Management (IAM)

B.

Power and physical security

C.

Configuration Management (CM) and deployment

D.

Installation and connection

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Questions 133

The master schedule is an Important tool in the sales and operations planning (S & OP) process because it:

Options:

A.

represents the forecast before changes are made in S & OP.

B.

represents the forecast with less detail.

C.

balances supply and demand at the product mix level.

D.

balances supply and demand at the sales volume level.

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Questions 134

A company with stable demand that uses exponential smoothing to forecast demand would typically use a:

Options:

A.

low alpha value.

B.

low beta value.

C.

high beta value.

D.

high alpha value.

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Questions 135

The primary outcome of frequent replenishments in a distribution requirements planning (DRP) system is that:

Options:

A.

lead times to customers decrease.

B.

transportation costs decrease.

C.

the level of required safety stock is reduced.

D.

more efficient load consolidation occurs.

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Questions 136

The Business Continuity Plan (BCP) has multiple components. The information security plan portion must prioritize its efforts. Which 3 aspects of information security MUST be prioritized?

Options:

A.

Confidentiality, integrity, availability

B.

Physical security, access control, asset protection

C.

Intent, capability, opportunity

D.

Threat level, network security, information disposal

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Questions 137

An organization suffered a loss to an asset at a frequency that was different than the initially estimated Annualized Rate of Occurrence (ARO). What is the appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

Do nothing; the loss validates the ARO.

B.

DO nothing; the loss validates the exposure factor.

C.

Recalculate the value of the safeguard.

D.

Recalculate the cost of the countermeasure.

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Questions 138

In pyramid forecasting, the " roll up " process begins with:

Options:

A.

combining individual product item forecasts into forecasts for product families.

B.

combining forecasts for product families into a total business forecast.

C.

allocating total business forecast changes to product families.

D.

allocating product family forecast changes to individual products.

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Questions 139

A web application is found to have SQL injection (SQLI) vulnerabilities. What is the BEST option to remediate?

Options:

A.

Use prepared statements with parameterized queries

B.

Do allow or use Structured Query Language (SQL) within GET methods.

C.

Use substitution variables for all Structure Query Language (SQL) statements.

D.

Do not allow quote characters to be entered.

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Questions 140

The demand for an item has increasing forecast error, whereas all other factors remain constant. Which of the following remains constant while maintaining the same customer service level?

Options:

A.

Reorder point(ROP)

B.

Safety stock

C.

Inventory investment

D.

Safety factor

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Questions 141

Which of the following should recommendations from a Plan Of Action And Milestones (POA & M) be based on?

Options:

A.

Continuous monitoring

B.

Change Control Board (CCB) coordination

C.

Risk acceptance

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 142

An organization received a notification from a Commercial Off-The-Shelf (COTS) provider that one of its products will no longer be supported. Using obsolescence progression stages, which of the following risk trigger points was activated in this case?

Options:

A.

End of Life (EOL)

B.

End of Maintenance

C.

End of Service Life (EOSL)

D.

End of Repair

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Questions 143

A Managed Service Provider (MSP) provides hardware and software support for system maintenance and upgrades to a client organization. Who is MOST responsible for auditing security controls related to the hardware and software?

Options:

A.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of the MSP

B.

Information Technology (IT) director of the client

C.

Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) of the client organization

D.

Information Technology (IT) director of the MSP

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Questions 144

Which of the following data elements is required for a manufacturing routing?

Options:

A.

Queue time

B.

Work center

C.

Order quantity

D.

Efficiency factor

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Questions 145

A house of quality (HOQ) chart aligns which pair of functions?

Options:

A.

Customer requirements with costing

B.

Engineering with operations

C.

Customer purchasing with supplier shipping

D.

Competitive analysis with product design

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Questions 146

A security team leader needs to communicate the value of the security program. As the security team leader determines the return on security investments, what is the MOST important aspect to incorporate?

Options:

A.

Annualized loss reduction measured over time

B.

Assessment of magnitude based on risk analyses

C.

Added economic value

D.

Total cost of ownership

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Questions 147

An organization has network services in a data center that are provisioned only for internal use, and staff at offices and staff working from home both use the services to store sensitive customer data. The organization does not want the Internet Protocol (IP) address of the service to receive traffic from users not related to the organization. Which technology is MOST useful to the organization in protecting this network?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS)

B.

Domain Name System (DNS)

C.

Network Address Translation (NAT)

D.

Virtual Private Network (VPN)

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Questions 148

During an investigation, a forensic analyst executed a task to allow for the authentication of all documents, data, and objects collected, if required. Which of the options below BEST describes this task?

Options:

A.

Electronically stored information was collected through a forensic tool.

B.

Metadata was collected from files and objects were listed in a notebook.

C.

A chain of custody form was filled with all items quantity and descriptions.

D.

Archive tagging was applied to all digital data and physical papers were stamped.

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Questions 149

An organization has decided to give decommissioned computers to a school in a developing country. The company data handling policy prohibits the storage of confidential and sensitive data. What would be the BEST technique to use to avoid data remanence, and to minimize the operational burden for the inheriting school?

Options:

A.

Overwriting the hard disk drive of the computers

B.

Encrypting the hard disk drive of the computers

C.

Removing and physically destroying the hard disk drive of the computers

D.

Degaussing the hard disk drive of the computers

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Questions 150

When performing threat modeling using Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE), which of the following is an example of a repudiation threat?

Options:

A.

Using someone else ' s account

B.

Distributed Denial-Of-Service (DDoS)

C.

SQL Injection (SQLi)

D.

Modifying a file

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Questions 151

Which threat modeling methodology is focused on assessing risks from organizational assets?

Options:

A.

Process For Attack Simulation And Threat Analysis (PASTA)

B.

Operationally Critical Threat, Asset, And Vulnerability Evaluation (OCTAVE)

C.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial Of Service, And Elevation Of Privilege (STRIDE)

D.

Damage, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

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Questions 152

An example of a flexibility metric for an organization Is:

Options:

A.

average batch size.

B.

scrap rate.

C.

percentageof orders delivered late.

D.

cycle time.

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Questions 153

Which of the following environments is most suitable for the use of kanban systems?

Options:

A.

Short product life cycles

B.

High levels of customization

C.

Intermittent production

D.

Stable and predictable demand

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Questions 154

What BEST describes the end goal of a Disaster Recovery (DR) program?

Options:

A.

Review the status of mission-critical applications.

B.

Prevent business interruption.

C.

Continue business operations during a contingency.

D.

Restore normal business operations.

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Questions 155

Which of the following states of data becomes MOST important to protect as organizations continue to transition toward Application Programming Interface (API)-based solutions?

Options:

A.

Data at rest

B.

Data in use

C.

Data in transit

D.

Data on the client machine

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Questions 156

An information security professional is tasked with configuring full disk encryption on new hardware equipped with a Trusted Platform Module (TPM). How does TPM further enhance the security posture of full disk encryption if configured properly?

Options:

A.

TPM will use the Operating System (OS) for full disk encryption key protection.

B.

TPM will protect the full disk encryption keys.

C.

TPM will handle the allocation of the hardware storage drives for full disk encryption.

D.

TPM will provide full disk encryption automatically.

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Questions 157

At which Open Systems Interconnection (OSI) layer does User Datagram Protocol (UDP) function?

Options:

A.

Layer 1

B.

Layer 2

C.

Layer 4

D.

Layer 3

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Questions 158

An infrastructure team is setting up a wireless network for employees at a new location of the organization that is located near a very busy city transport hub. Which should be the MOST important antenna consideration with regard to securing the wireless network for the infrastructure team?

Options:

A.

Network ' s Service Set Identifier (SSID) visibility and vulnerabilities are not cast out too far.

B.

Parabolic antenna is used for signal convergence.

C.

Network efficiently allows maximum channel separation.

D.

Implement Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP) encryption.

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Questions 159

A manufacturer has a primary assembly line supported by output from several subassembly lines. Which of the following scenarios would be the best argument for a multilevel master scheduling process?

Options:

A.

Low variation in aggregate subassembly demand

B.

High variation in aggregate subassembly demand

C.

Low variation in subassembly demand mix

D.

High variation in subassembly demand mix

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Questions 160

The Data Loss Prevention (DLP) team in a major financial institution discovered network traffic that involved movement of sensitive material to a Cloud Service Provider (CSP). What action should be taken FIRST in this situation?

Options:

A.

Contact the CSP to validate data access controls in the cloud.

B.

Contact the network security team to block the traffic.

C.

Contact the Identity And Access Management (IAM) team to remove the user from the network.

D.

Contact the data owner to confirm the transfer was authorized.

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Questions 161

The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) for an international organization with offices operating globally has been tasked with developing a new data encryption policy that can be applied to all areas of the business. What is the MOST important factor that must be considered?

Options:

A.

Organization ' s security policy and standards

B.

How data will be stored and accessed

C.

Regulatory and compliance requirements

D.

Where data will be stored and accessed

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Questions 162

Which of the following MUST be in place for security to be effective in an organization?

Options:

A.

Security objectives are documented and in line with the organization’s mission and goals.

B.

Security policies are in line with international standards.

C.

Technology strategy decisions have the involvement and approval of the security organization.

D.

Risk assessments on business plans include security issues as part of the analysis.

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Questions 163

A lengthy power outage led to unavailability of time critical services resulting in considerable losses. It was determined that a backup electrical generator did not work as intended at the time of the incident due to lack of fuel. What should the security consultant FIRST Investigate?

Options:

A.

Maintenance procedures

B.

Supplier contracts

C.

Failover designs

D.

Product catalogs

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Questions 164

Which of the following tools shows process changes and random variation over time?

Options:

A.

Check sheet

B.

Control chart

C.

Histogram

D.

Pareto analysis

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Questions 165

Which of the following is the benefit of using Security Content Automation Protocol (SCAP) version 2 on endpoint devices?

Options:

A.

Apply patches to endpoints across the enterprise.

B.

Use software configuration management for endpoints.

C.

Monitor endpoints by collecting software inventory and configuration settings.

D.

Enforce Two-Factor Authentication (2FA) on endpoints across the enterprise.

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Questions 166

Management should support investments in new process technologies that:

Options:

A.

require minimal changes in existing systems, procedures, and skills.

B.

have been recommended by technical experts and equipment suppliers.

C.

provide significant cost-reduction opportunities for the company ' s current products.

D.

provide long-term competitive advantage with acceptable financial risk.

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Questions 167

A cybersecurity analyst has recently been assigned to work with a product development team. The team has usually needed to perform a lot of rework late in the development cycle on past projects due to application security concerns. They would like to minimize the amount of rework necessary. Which would be the BEST option to enable secure code review early in the product development?

Options:

A.

Implement dynamic code analysis

B.

Perform manual code reviews

C.

Implement static code analysis

D.

Perform fuzz testing

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Questions 168

Which of the following is a methodology for threat modeling in application?

Options:

A.

Disaster, Reproducibility, Exploitability, Affected Users, And Discoverability (DREAD)

B.

Spoofing, Tampering, Repudiation, Information Disclosure, Denial of Service, Elevation of Privilege (STRIDE)

C.

Pretend, Allow, Crash, Modify, Ascertain, Name

D.

Confidentiality, Authentication, Integrity, Nonrepudiation, Availability

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Questions 169

Which of the following BEST describes the responsibility of an information System Security Officer?

Options:

A.

Establish the baseline, architecture, and management direction and ensure compliance

B.

Ensure adherence to physical security policies and procedures

C.

Direct, coordinate, plan, and organize information security activities

D.

Ensure the availability of the systems and their contents

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Questions 170

The planned channels of Inventory disbursement from one or more sources to field warehouses are known as:

Options:

A.

a supply chain community.

B.

interplant demand.

C.

a bill of distribution.

D.

logistics data interchange (LDI).

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Questions 171

Long lead-time items with stable demand would best be supported by a supply chain:

Options:

A.

using a pull system.

B.

linked through an enterprise resources planning (ERP) system.

C.

designed to be responsive.

D.

positioning inventory close to the consumer.

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Questions 172

An organization is transitioning from a traditional server-centric infrastructure to a cloud-based Infrastructure. Shortly after the transition, a major breach occurs to the organization ' s databases. In an Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS) model, who would be held responsible for the breach?

Options:

A.

The database vendor

B.

The third-party auditor

C.

The organization

D.

The Cloud Service Provider (CSP)

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Questions 173

Which of the following MUST be checked during the validation of software verification capabilities?

Options:

A.

Security

B.

Completeness

C.

Vulnerabilities

D.

Logic

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Questions 174

In which cloud computing model is Identify And Access Management (IAM) the responsibility of a service provider?

Options:

A.

Software As A Service (SaaS).

B.

Platform As A Service (PaaS).

C.

Desktop As A Service (DaaS).

D.

Infrastructure As A Service (IaaS).

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Questions 175

A Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) tunnel moves data across a third-party Internet Protocol (IP) network. What is the risk of using GRE tunnels?

Options:

A.

They are proprietary and incompatible between vendors.

B.

They can be complex to configure.

C.

They do not provide any authentication or encryption protection.

D.

They are unreliable due to high protocol overhead.

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Questions 176

What is the main negative effect of changing the due dates of open orders?

Options:

A.

The schedule information becomes inaccurate.

B.

The customer service level decreases.

C.

It leads to " nervousness " in the schedule.

D.

The schedule does not support demand.

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Questions 177

An organization has hired a new auditor to review its critical systems infrastructure for vulnerabilities. Which of the following BEST describes the methodology the auditor will use?

Options:

A.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to production servers related to critical systems within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

B.

Select an appropriate sample size of recently deployed servers and review their configuration files against the organization ' s policies and standards.

C.

Select all production servers related to critical systems and review their configuration files against the organization ' s policies and standards.

D.

Select an appropriate sample size of changes to recently deployed servers within the audit period and ensure they adhere to documented policies and standards.

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Questions 178

While conducting an information asset audit, it was determined that several devices were running unpatched Operating Systems (0S). Further review Indicated the OS was no longer supported by the vendor. Which of the following BEST indicates the appropriate asset lifecycle stage of the devices?

Options:

A.

Maintain

B.

Modify

C.

Procure

D.

Dispose

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Questions 179

What is the FIRST element that must be evaluated in a security governance program?

Options:

A.

An organization’s business objectives and strategy

B.

Review of Information Technology (IT) and technical controls

C.

Review of organization’s Information Technology (IT) security policies

D.

An organization’s utilization of resources

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Questions 180

An organization’s computer incident response team PRIMARILY responds to which type of control?

Options:

A.

Detective

B.

Administrative

C.

Preventative

D.

Corrective

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Questions 181

Which of the following statements about demonstrated capacity Is true?

Options:

A.

It reflects the future load.

B.

It should be higher than rated capacity.

C.

It considers utilization and efficiency factors.

D.

It is determined from actual results.

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CPIM |

Exam Code: CPIM-8.0
Exam Name: Certified in Planning and Inventory Management (CPIM 8.0)
Last Update: May 25, 2026
Questions: 585
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