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CTFL_Syll2018 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which TWO of the following test tools would be classified as test execution tools? [K2]

a. Test data preparation tools

b. Test harness

c. Review tools

d. Test comparators

e. Configuration management tools

Options:

A.

a and b

B.

c and d

C.

c and e

D.

b and d

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Questions 5

ISTQBw Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018. English) provided by iSOl GmbH, international Software Quality Institute Question 25 of 40 | Level: K3 | Number of correct answers: 1 I Credits: 1 Given the following stale model of sales order software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage for the model (assuming you can start in any state)?

Options:

A.

PLACED --> CANCELLED ~> PLACED -> CANCELLED --> PLACED --> IN PRODUCTION --> CANCELLED

B.

PLACED --> IN PRODUCTION --> SHIPPED --> CANCELLED --> PLACED

C.

IN PRODUCTION -> SHIPPED -> INVOICED -> CANCELLED -> PLACED -> IN PRODUCTION

D.

IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED -> PLACED --> IN PRODUCTION -> CANCELLED --> PLACED

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Questions 6

A data driven approach to test automation design is best described as:

Options:

A.

Using action words to describe the actions to be taken, the test data.

B.

Scaling to support large numbers of users.

C.

Being based on Equivalence Partitioning testing techniques.

D.

Separating out the test data inputs and using a generic script that can read the test data and perform the same test steps with different data.

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Questions 7

Which of the following statements is most true about test conditions?

Options:

A.

An item or event of a component or system that can be verified by one or more test cases.

B.

The grouping of a composite set of test cases which, when tested as a whole, reveal a positive or negative result.

C.

A testable component derived from business requirements.

D.

Applies to software testing only.

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Questions 8

It is recommended to perform exhaustive tests for covering all combinations of inputs and preconditions.

Options:

A.

Yes, it’s strongly recommended.

B.

No, risk analysis and priorities should be used to focus testing efforts

C.

Yes, and it’s also necessary to include all the exit combinations

D.

Only the expert testers can make exhaustive tests.

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Questions 9

What factors should be considered to determine whether enough testing has been performed?

(i)The exit criteria.

(ii)The budget.

(iii)How big the test team is.

(iv)The product's risk profile.

(v)How good the testing tools are.

(vi)Sufficient details of the system status to allow decisions

Options:

A.

i and ii and iv and vi

B.

i and ii and iii and vi

C.

ii and iii and iv and v

D.

i and ii and v and vi

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Questions 10

Which of the following factors will MOST affect the testing effort required to test a software product? [K1]

Options:

A.

The number of staff available to execute tests

B.

The level of detail in the test plan

C.

The requirements for reliability and security in the product

D.

The test estimation method used

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Questions 11

What is the main reason for using a pilot project to introduce a testing tool into an organization? [K1]

Options:

A.

To identify the requirements for using a tool

B.

To make a selection between alternative tools

C.

To assess whether the tool will be cost- effective

D.

To ensure the tools fits existing processes without change

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Questions 12

The Cambrian Pullman Express has special ticketing requirements represented by the partial decision table below.

Refer to the exhibit

Carol has a student railcard and is travelling on a Flexible Standard Class ticket. James has a senior railcard and is travelling on a super saver ticket. Which of the options represents the correct actions for these two test cases? [K3]

Options:

A.

Carol is eligible to upgrade; James cannot use the service

B.

Carol is OK to travel; James is eligible for an upgrade

C.

Carol and James are both eligible to upgrade

D.

Carol is OK to travel; James cannot use the service

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Questions 13

Which of the following is a valid objective of testing? [K1]

Options:

A.

Correcting defects

B.

Locating defects in the code

C.

Preventing defects

D.

Ensuring no defects are present

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Questions 14

When an organization considers the use of testing tools, they should:

Options:

A.

Use a tool in order to help define a good test process because the tool will force process repeatability and therefore enforce good test process.

B.

Always start by bringing in automated test execution tools as these tools have the greatest return on investment and therefore should be introduced first.

C.

Perform analysis of the test process and then assess whether it can be supported through the introduction of tool support.

D.

Allow the developers to select the testing tools because tools are technical and developers have the appropriate skills to advise on test tool selection and configuration.

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Questions 15

Test objectives for systems testing of a safety critical system include completion of all outstanding defect correction. Regression testing is required following defect correction at all test levels. Which TWO of the following metrics would be MOST suitable for determining whether the test objective has been met? [K2]

a. Regression tests run and passed in systems testing

b. Incidents closed in systems testing

c. Planned tests run and passed in system testing

d. Planned tests run and passed at all levels of testing

e. Incidents raised and closed at all levels of testing

Options:

A.

a and e

B.

b and c

C.

d and e

D.

a and b

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Questions 16

Which of the following risks represents the highest level of risk to the project?

Options:

A.

Likelihood of failure = 1%, potential cost of impact = $1m.

B.

Likelihood of failure = 10%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

C.

Likelihood of failure = 20%, potential cost of impact = $150,000.

D.

Likelihood of failure = 5%, potential cost of impact = $500,000.

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Questions 17

Which of the following metrics could be used to monitor progress along with test preparation and execution? [K1]

Options:

A.

The total number of tests planned

B.

The total number of requirements to be tested

C.

The failure rate in testing already completed

D.

The number of testers used for test execution so far

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Questions 18

Test script TransVal 3.1 tests transaction validation via screen TRN 003B. According to the specification (PID ver 1.3 10b iv) the validation screen should not accept future dated transactions. Test script TransVal 3.1 passes. Test script eod 1.4 tests end of day processing and is run after the execution of TransVal 3.1 using data entered during that test

Which of the following is the BEST detail on an incident report? [K3]

Options:

A.

Title. End of Day failure.. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached.

B.

Title. Transaction input screen validation..Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1..4 fails . Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entryon screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

C.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date.. Reproducible. No. Description. When a future dated transaction is processed by the end of day process, a failure can occur. This does not always happen. Screen shot of the failure attached.

D.

Title. Screen TRN-003B validation of transaction date. Reproducible. Yes. Description. Script eod 1.4 fails when the first transaction of the day is a future dated transaction. Screen shot of the failure attached. Validation of transaction entry on screen TRN-003B should not allow future dated transactions – see PID ver 1.3 para 10b iv.

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Questions 19

What is decision table testing?

Options:

A.

It’s a testing design technique based in the internal software structure.

B.

It’s a static test design technique.

C.

It’s a testing design technique to verify decisions.

D.

It’s a testing design technique based in the system requirements.

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Questions 20

What content would be in an incident report if that incident report was based on the IEEE 829 Standard for SoftwareTest Documentation?

(i)Identification of configuration items of the software or system.

(ii)Software or system lifecycle process in which the incident was observed.

(iii)Description of the anomaly to enable reproduction of the incident.

(iv)Number of occurrences of the incident.

(v)Classification of the cause of the incident for metrics and for reporting purposes.

Number of correct answers: 1

Options:

A.

i, ii, iii

B.

ii, iii

C.

i, iii, iv

D.

i, ii, iii, v

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Questions 21

Which of the following test case design techniques is white box (structure-based)? [K1]

Options:

A.

Use case testing

B.

State transition testing

C.

Decision testing

D.

Equivalence partitioning

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Questions 22

The flow graph below shows the logic of a program for which 100% statement coverage and 100% decision coverage is required on exit from component testing. [K4]

The following test cases have been run:

Test Case 1 covering path P,Q,R,U

Test Case 2 covering path P,Q,S,V

Test Case 3 covering path P,Q,S,W,X

Test case 4 covering path P,Q,S,W,Y

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is 100%

B.

Statement coverage is less than 100%; decision coverage is 100%.

C.

Statement coverage is 100%; decision coverage is less than 100%

D.

Statement coverage and decision coverage are both less than 100%

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Questions 23

You are performing a review of your colleague’s test cases based on the following test basis document:

The Test Cases are as follows:

TC1. Success – valid ‘User Name’ and ‘Password’; Customer Menu displayed

TC2. Failure – ‘User Name’ field has blank entry; Error Number 12 displayed

TC3. Failure – ‘User Id’ entered does not exist on database (i.e. unregistered user); Error Number 23 displayed

TC4. Failure – ‘Password’ entered does not match user’s password on database; Error Number 24 displayed

You are guided by the following checklist in your review:

C1. There must be one test case to cover success

C2. There must be one test case for each error path (e.g. validation failure)

C3. Each test case must use terminology consistent with the test basis document (field names, error numbering, etc.)

Record a separate defect for each missing test case (checklist items C1 and C2) and for each test case that does not meet checklist item C3.

How many defects should you record?

Options:

A.

1.

B.

2.

C.

3.

D.

4.

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Questions 24

The four test levels defined for a common V-model testing approach are:

Options:

A.

Unit, integration, system and maintenance.

B.

Functional, glass box, incremental and maintenance.

C.

Component, integration, system and acceptance.

D.

Unit, component, functional and alpha/beta.

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Questions 25

What are metrics NOT used for?

Options:

A.

To identify the percentage of work done in test environment preparation.

B.

To identify the percentage of work done in test case preparation.

C.

To apply to the RAD development model.

D.

To measure whether dates of test milestones were met.

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Questions 26

Which of the following would typically be identified using static analysis by tools? [K1]

Options:

A.

Spelling mistake on an error message

B.

A potential infinite loop

C.

Memory leakage

D.

A variable set to the wrong value

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Questions 27

Testing should provide sufficient information to stakeholders to make informed decisions about the release of the software or system being tested. At which of the following fundamental test process activity the sufficiency of the testing and the resulting information are assessed?

Options:

A.

Implementation and execution

B.

Requirements specification

C.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.

D.

Analysis and design

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Questions 28

Where and by whom is Beta testing normally performed?

Options:

A.

By customers or potential customers at their own locations

B.

By an independent test team at the developing organization's location

C.

At the developing organization's site, but not by the developing team

D.

By customers or potential customers at the developing organization's site

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Questions 29

The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application

What would you suggest as the most important report improvement?

Defect detected date: 15.8.2010

Defect detected by. Joe Smith

Test level System test

Test case Area 5/TC 98

Build version: 2011-16.2

Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1,1 click ENTER to continue to screen 2. Nothing happens, no system response at all.

Options:

A.

Add an impact analysis

B.

Add information about which developer should fix the bug

C.

Add the time stamp when the incident happened

D.

Add information about which web browser was used

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Questions 30

An organization is working on updating test cases for a particular module of their software.

Sam updated a set of test cases yesterday and saved the new version on his PC.

Unfortunately, the hard disk of his PC crashed, and his work was lost.

The IT department of the organization restored the contents of his hard disk with the last available back-up - from the previous morning However the changes made by him yesterday were lost forever

Which of the following tools, had it been used, would have prevented the loss of Sam's updates?

Options:

A.

Incident Management Tool

B.

Configuration Management Tool

C.

Test Execution tool

D.

Backup tool

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Questions 31

Consider the following excerpt from a defect report:

To recreate the failure we used test file TST_01_TC_16.dat which is available in the common shared folder''.

Which incident report objective does this excerpt satisfy?

Options:

A.

Provides developers with information to isolate the failure

B.

Provides ideas for test process improvement

C.

Does not belong in an incident report.

D.

Provides test leaders with information to report test progress

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Questions 32

Which of the following statements about decision tables are TRUE?

I. Generally, decision tables are generated for low risk test items

II. Test cases derived from decision tables can be used for component tests.

III. Several test cases can be selected for each column of the decision table.

IV. The conditions in the decision table represent negative tests generally.

Options:

A.

I, Ill

B.

II, Ill

C.

II, IV

D.

I, IV

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Questions 33

A software company decided to buy a commercial application for its accounting operations. As part of the evaluation process, the company decided to assemble a team to test a number of candidate applications.

Which team would be the most suitable for this goal?

Options:

A.

A team from an outsourcing company which specializes in testing accounting software

B.

A team with a mix of software testers and experts from the accounting department

C.

A team of users from the accounting department that will need to use the application on dairy basis

D.

A team from the company's testing team, due to their experience in testing software

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Questions 34

A Software was re-deployed because the backend database was changed from one vendor to another The Test Manager decided to perform some functional tests on the redeployed system. This is an example of test of which test type?

Options:

A.

Regression tests

B.

Non-functional tests

C.

Structural tests

D.

Unit tests

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Questions 35

Which of the following is NOT an example of a typical risk-based testing activity?

Options:

A.

The evaluation of a risk-management tools to decide which tool to use for future projects

B.

The focus of testing is shifted to an area in the system where tests find with more defects than expected

C.

Brainstorming sessions are held with a wide variety of stakeholders to identify possible failures in the system

D.

Tests are prioritized to ensure that those associated with critical parts of the system are executed earlier

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Questions 36

Which of the following errors CANNOT be found with structure-based testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Memory is leaking

B.

Features are only partially implemented

C.

Data structures that are used before initialization

D.

Division by zero

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Questions 37

When testing a mission critical system a high coverage should be achieved. Which of the following techniques should be implemented as a structural based coverage technique in order to achieve highest coverage?

Options:

A.

multiple condition coverage

B.

decision table

C.

use case testing

D.

statement coverage

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Questions 38

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

Pair programming is done with developer and tester pairing together

B.

Pair programming is an alternative term for code inspection.

C.

Pair programming is used usually in waterfall model

D.

Pair programming is, among other things, an informal review method.

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Questions 39

Once a bug is fixed, it should be retested. What is the term used to define this type of testing?

Options:

A.

Reliability Testing

B.

Confirmation Testing

C.

Maintainability Testing

D.

Regression Testing

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Questions 40

What does the term Pesticide paradox' refer to?

Options:

A.

The phenomena where a piece of code that has a lot of bugs is likely to have more hidden, yet unfound

B.

The decreasing efficiency of debugging when done in code that has many bugs

C.

Reduced effectiveness of test cases that are repeated and focused on the same scenarios

D.

The redundancy of testing the same objects in both black and white box techniques

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Questions 41

A money order system is designed to calculate the charge for a transfer

- Amounts from 1 to 1999 are charged EUR 10.

- Amounts from 2000 to 5000 are charged EUR 15

- Amounts below EUR 1 or above EUR 5000 are not accepted. Assume that only integer values can occur. Which of these sets of amounts covers all equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

0-1999-2000-5000

B.

1-2000-5001-10000

C.

0-100-2000-6000

D.

99-1- 2000- 4999,99

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Questions 42

The following program part is given:

IF (condition A)

then DO B

END IF

How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% statement coverage?

Options:

A.

1

B.

2

C.

4

D.

a very high number

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Questions 43

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

Incident management tools are used by testers only

B.

A configuration management tool has nothing to do with testing

C.

Test management tools are used by managers only

D.

A requirements management tool may be considered as test support tool

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Questions 44

Which of the following is an appropriate reason for maintenance testing?

Options:

A.

Bugs found in the field after upgrading the operation system

B.

Bugs found during system testing

C.

Bugs found during unit testing

D.

Bugs found during integration testing

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Questions 45

A software company adopts the V-model as their development life cycle. Which of the following contains roles of a tester in this company?

Options:

A.

Decide what should be automated, to what degree, and how.

B.

Review test plans and set up test environments.

C.

Coordinate the test strategy with the project managers

D.

Introduce suitable metrics to measure the testing progress

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Questions 46

Which of the following is a correct set of boundary values to test the "Group Size" parameter, as defined by the following statement;

"In a reservation system for groups visiting a small museum, the graphical user interface presents a field asking the number of group members. Group size can be anywhere from 2 to 20 visitors"

Options:

A.

0,1,8,21,22

B.

0,1,2,3,10,19,20,21,22

C.

2,3,19,20

D.

1,2,20,21

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Questions 47

Which ONE of the following statements does NOT describe how testing contributes to higher quality?

Options:

A.

Performing a review of the requirement specifications before implementing the system can enhance quality

B.

The testing of software demonstrates the absence of defects

C.

Properly designed tests that pass reduce the level of risk in a system

D.

Software testing identifies defects, which can be used to improve development activities.

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Questions 48

Which of the following test types is a part of the V-Model?

Options:

A.

Black-box testing

B.

White-box testing

C.

Experience-based testing

D.

Component testing

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Questions 49

Which of the following tool types is the most useful one for a test manager?

Options:

A.

Modeling tool

B.

Static analysis tool

C.

Coverage measurement tool

D.

Defect tracking tool

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Questions 50

Which of the following is a task of the Test Analysis and Design activity of the test process?

Options:

A.

Measuring the percentage of prepared test cases with what was actually prepared

B.

Identifying necessary test data to support the test conditions and test cases

C.

Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly

D.

Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning

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Questions 51

What is the difference between system integration testing and acceptance testing?

Options:

A.

System integration testing is testing non-functional requirements Acceptance testing concentrates on the functionality of the system

B.

System integration testing is executed by the developers. Acceptance testing is done by the customer

C.

System integration testing verifies that a system interfaces correctly with other systems. Acceptance testing verifies compliance to requirements

D.

System integration testing verifies compliance to requirements Acceptance testing verifies correct interaction with other systems existing in the user's environment

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Questions 52

The following test cases for a Library Management System are available to test changes made to the functions and data structures associated with borrowers

1. Add a new borrower to the system

2. Update a borrower's data

3. Remove a borrower from the system

4. Loan a book to a borrower

5. Return a book from a borrower

6. Reserve a book for a borrower

7. Send "reservation ready" message to a borrower

Which of the following test sequences represents a possible use case? (a test sequence always start with test #1)

Options:

A.

1-4-2-7-5-6-3

B.

1-6-2-5-7-4-3

C.

1-6-4-7-5-3-2

D.

1-2-6-7-4-5-3

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Questions 53

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the data flow.

B.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow

C.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

D.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users

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Questions 54

Out of the following, what is not needed to specify in defect report?

Options:

A.

How to fix the defect

B.

Severity and priority

C.

Test environment details

D.

How to reproduce the defect

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Questions 55

In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing, Which of the following sentences describes one of these basic principles?

Options:

A.

Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools

B.

For a software system, it is not possible under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.

C.

A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free

D.

With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than with manual testing.

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Questions 56

Which of the following is NOT a factor on which test estimation is dependent upon?

Options:

A.

Defect debugging and resolution

B.

The outcome of testing of previous test cycle

C.

Characteristics of the development process

D.

Characteristics of the product

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Questions 57

"Statement Testing" is part of;

Options:

A.

Experience based testing

B.

Decision Testing

C.

Specification Based testing

D.

Structured based testing

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Questions 58

Given the following requirement:

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?

Options:

A.

7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.

B.

Thursday is a valid input boundary value

C.

A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age

D.

$3.01 is a valid output boundary value

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Questions 59

Which of the following is an example of black-box dynamic testing?

Options:

A.

Code inspection

B.

Checking memory leaks for a program by executing it

C.

Functional Testing

D.

Coverage analysis

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Questions 60

The following sentences refer to the Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829). Which sentence is correct?

Options:

A.

The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard

B.

Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development

C.

This test plan outline is relevant for military projects For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items

D.

Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization

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Questions 61

The following diagram lists various types of operating systems, databases and application servers supported by the application under test. For complete coverage of all combinations, how many combinations of the above are to be tested?

Options:

A.

11

B.

5

C.

45

D.

3

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Questions 62

Which of the following is NOT an objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects

B.

Providing information for decision-making

C.

Analyzing and removing the cause of failures

D.

Gaining confidence about the level of quality of the software

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Questions 63

For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests required for statement and branch coverage respectively?

Options:

A.

Statement Coverage = 2 Branch Coverage = 4

B.

Statement Coverage = 1 Branch Coverage = 3

C.

Statement Coverage = 2 Branch Coverage = 2

D.

Statement Coverage = 1 Branch Coverage = 2

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Questions 64

Can "cost" be regarded as Exit criteria'?

Options:

A.

No The financial value of product quality cannot be estimated so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criteria

B.

Yes. Spending too much money on testing will result in an unprofitable product, and having cost as an exit criteria helps avoid this

C.

Yes Going by cost as an exit criteria constrains the testing project which will help achieve the desired quality level defined for the project

D.

No The cost of testing cannot be measured effectively, so it is incorrect to use cost as an exit criteria

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Questions 65

Which of the following is a key difference between black box and white box test design techniques?

Options:

A.

Black box techniques use software code to derive test cases, white box techniques do not.

B.

White box techniques use functional design specifications to derive test cases, black box techniques do not.

C.

White box techniques can measure the extent of code coverage, black box techniques can not.

D.

White box techniques derive test cases from models of the software, black box techniques do not.

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Questions 66

Which of the following Is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

Options:

A.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

B.

The project manager's preference

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Questions 67

Which of the following statements correctly describes traceability?

Options:

A.

The capability of the software product to enable modified software to be tested.

B.

An approach to integration testing where the component at the top of the component hierarchy is tested first.

C.

The degree to which a requirement is stated in terms that permit establishment of test design.

D.

The ability to identify related items in documentation, such as requirements vs. software design

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Questions 68

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

B.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

C.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

D.

More subjective assessment

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Questions 69

Which one of the following statements about testing techniques is TRUE?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing can replace black box techniques when testing time is very limited

B.

Test execution scheduling should give priority to experienced based testing

C.

Specification based techniques can be used as a substitute for a poorly defined test basis

D.

Experienced based techniques are systematic and produce detailed test documentation

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Questions 70

While reporting a defect, which of the following indicates the level of business importance assigned to the defect?

Options:

A.

Urgency

B.

Priority

C.

Difficulty

D.

Severity

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Questions 71

Your agile project has scheduled a final sprint before release to fix and re-test all open defects with a priority level of 3 or above.

The following defect report shows the defect fields that are currently being captured on the system.

Title: Unable to add excursions to pre-paid cruises

Date raised: 21/05/18

Author: Emma Rigby

Status: Fixed

What occurred: I went to book an excursion for a pre-paid cruise but received an error message saying, ‘Facility not available’. I can book excursions on cruises that have not yet been fully paid.

What should have occurred: Requirement 3.12 says clearly that customers can add excursions after cruises have been fully paid so the facility should have been available (when an additional amount may now need to be paid).

Priority: 2

Software build: 2.1

Test level: System test

Environment details: System test 3

Which of ONE of the following additional defect report fields would be MOST beneficial for the sprint team to add?

Options:

A.

Severity.

B.

Test Script Id.

C.

Actual results.

D.

Expected results.

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Questions 72

Which of the following type of defect would NOT be typically found by using a static analysis tool?

Options:

A.

A variable is defined but is then not used

B.

A variable is used in a calculation before it is defined

C.

A variable has the wrong numeric value passed into it

D.

A variable is used but not declared

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Questions 73

You have been asked to improve the way test automation tools are being used in your company.

Which one of the following is the BEST approach?

Options:

A.

Selecting and automating scripts that test new functionality to find the most defects

B.

Using a keyword-driven testing approach to separate the actions and data from the tool's script

C.

Ensuring that all data, inputs and actions are stored in the tool's script for ease of maintenance

D.

Keeping expected results separate from the automation tool to allow the testers to check the results

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Questions 74

A car insurance policy has 3 rates of insurance depending on the age of the driver. For drivers aged between 17 and 25 inclusive they are charged at rate A, drivers aged between 26 and 50 inclusive are charged at rate B and those drivers aged over 50 are charged at rate C.

You are designing test cases, which of the following three ages would test all valid equivalence partitions and therefore test rate A, B and C?

Options:

A.

26, 45, 50.

B.

10, 21, 55.

C.

20, 35, 65.

D.

17, 25, 50.

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Questions 75

What is the ideal number of regression test cycles?

Options:

A.

As many as time and budget allow

B.

2

C.

1

D.

Until the quality requirements are met

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Questions 76

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

Options:

A.

Metrics analysis

B.

Kick-off meeting

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Low cost

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Questions 77

Which of the following is a defect that is more likely to be found by a static analysis tool than by other testing techniques?

Options:

A.

Omission of a major requirement

B.

Inadequate decision coverage

C.

Component memory leakage

D.

Variables that are not used improperly declared

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Questions 78

Which of the following is NOT a test control activity?

Options:

A.

Re-prioritize tests because of time pressure

B.

Change the test schedule due to viability of a test environment

C.

Writing test suspension and resumption criteria in the test plan

D.

Set an entry criterion requiring fixes to be retested by a developer before accepting them into a build

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Questions 79

Which of the following Is NOT a benefit of traceability between the test basis and test work products?

Options:

A.

It helps evaluate the extent of test coverage

B.

It obscures the impact of changes

C.

It allows testing to be auditable

D.

It meets the criteria for IT governance

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Questions 80

A system sets new users' password to a temporary password

The temporary password is a random number based on the first sft: characters of the username.

If the username is shorter than 6 characters, the system displays an error message.

Which of the following is a possible representation of equivalence classes for the username string?

Options:

A.

{Random number}

{Error message}

B.

{Error message displayed}

{Error message not displayed}

C.

{Username shorter than 6 characters}

{Username equal to or longer than 6 characters}

D.

{Username with a permanent password}

{Username with a temporary password}

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Questions 81

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program.

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process.

C.

Checking that all decisions are based on a numeric value.

D.

Checking that at least 100% decision coverage has been achieved, as this guarantees 100% statement coverage.

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Questions 82

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

  • Component (unit) testing
  • 2 Integration testing
  • 3. System testing
  • 4 Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model.

Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level and can be dispensed with

B.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

C.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on which test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

D.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring it means definite poor product quality

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Questions 83

At what stage of the Fundamental Test Process do testers write the steps of the test procedures?

Options:

A.

Test implementation and execution

B.

Evaluating exit criteria and reporting

C.

Test closure activities

D.

Test planning and control

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Questions 84

You need to test a vending machine for light drinks The machine has a button for each of the drinks it contains

Pressing a button before inserting coins, will display the cost of the drink

Pressing the same button after inserting enough coins will dispense the drink and provide change if needed)

If the machine is out of the specific drink, and the button for this drink is pressed, the machine displays "Sold Out" (regardless if coins were inserted or not).

Which test technique is most suitable for this situation?

Options:

A.

State transition testing

B.

Equivalence class testing

C.

Boundary value testing

D.

Use-case testing

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Questions 85

What is static analysis?

Options:

A.

The decision between using white or black box test techniques.

B.

Executing software to validate the most common path through the code.

C.

A technique to find defects in software source code and software models, performed without executing code.

D.

It is a testing technique used during system testing.

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Questions 86

Which of the following is NOT an example of a common test metric?

Options:

A.

Percentage of work done in test environment creation

B.

Average number of expected defects per requirement

C.

Number of test cases run

D.

Deviation from test milestone dates

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Questions 87

Which of the following DOES NOT describe "component testing'?

Options:

A.

Component testing tests interfaces between modules and interactions of different parts of a system.

B.

Component testing occurs with access to the code being tested and with the support of a development environment, such as a unit test framework or debugging tool

C.

Component testing verifies the functioning of. software modules, programs, objects, classes, etc. that are separately testable.

D.

In component testing stubs, drivers and simulators may be usefully utilized to facilitate tester activity

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Questions 88

Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be true of non-functional testing?

Options:

A.

It covers the evaluation of the interaction of various specified components.

B.

It tests "how’’ the system works.

C.

It may include testing the ease of modification of systems.

D.

It may be performed at unit, integration system and acceptance test levels.

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Questions 89

Which of the following is NOT a valid use of decision coverage?

Options:

A.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a single program

B.

Checking that all decisions have been exercised in a business process

C.

Checking that all calls from one program module to another have been made correctly

D.

Checking that at least 50% of decisions have been exercised by a test case suite

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Questions 90

Which of the following statements is true?

Options:

A.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage.

B.

100% statement coverage means 100% branch coverage.

C.

100% branch coverage means 100% statement coverage and vice-versa.

D.

It is impossible to achieve 100% statement coverage

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Questions 91

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester Is Interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

D.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

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Questions 92

The ISTQB fundamental test process consists of 5 main activities To which of these belongs the task "Identifying necessary test data"?

Options:

A.

Evaluating test criteria and reporting

B.

Test implementation and execution

C.

Test planning and control

D.

Test analysis and design

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Questions 93

Which of the following is NOT a typical task for a test leader?

Options:

A.

Select the test approach

B.

Coordinate the test strategy

C.

Prepare and acquire test data

D.

Estimate the cost of testing

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Questions 94

Which of the following describes a task performed as part of the Test Implementation and Execution' activity?

Options:

A.

Logging the outcome of test execution and reporting bugs

B.

Evaluating the testability of the test basis and test objects

C.

Assessing if the specified exit criteria should be changed

D.

Selecting metrics for monitoring test execution and defect resolution

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Questions 95

Which of the following BEST describes error guessing?

Options:

A.

Error guessing involves designing tests based on experience, defect data, or common knowledge about why software fails

B.

Error guessing involves building test cases based on the various experiences of developers, architects, users, and other stakeholders on project teams

C.

Error guessing is a suitable test technique and can be used effectively in place of more formal techniques

D.

Error guessing is a valid and useful white-box lest technique due to Its high degree ol statement coverage

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Questions 96

Which of the following defects-can NOT be found by static analysis tools?

Options:

A.

Infinite loops

B.

Wrong business rules

C.

Syntax errors of the code

D.

Undefined variables

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Questions 97

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches a tester's ability to communicate about defects, test results, and other test Information well?

Options:

A.

Emphasizing the benefits of testing

B.

Taking a command-and-control approach with the project learn

C.

Being firm and assertive with test findings and information

D.

Writing subjective defect reports and review findings

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Questions 98

Which of the following Is an example of tasks most associated with the test design activity?

Options:

A.

Test data, derived from production data, is developed for use during testing

B.

The project manager updates the project schedule as key test tasks are completed

C.

The Identification of test execution and test automation tools

D.

Every day, the tester notes the status of his/her test cases in preparation for daily reports

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Questions 99

Which from the following list are typically found to enable the review process to be successful? [K2]

a. Each review has clear defined objectives

b. The lower the number of defects, the better the review process

c. The right people for the review objective are involved

d. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement

e. Management are not involved in the process at all

f. Checklists should not be used, as these slow down the process

g. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively

Options:

A.

a, f and g.

B.

b, c and f.

C.

a, c and d.

D.

d, e and g.

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Questions 100

What other details should be included in the following incident report when it is first submitted?

Date of Issue: 23/11/05

Severity: P1

Build: Version15.6

Details: Expected field to be limited to 15 chars, able to enter 27

Options:

A.

Suggested solution, priority and number of defects assigned to this developer.

B.

Status of the incident, degree of impact, Test Case Number.

C.

History, related defects and expected fix time.

D.

Line of code, number of defects found, time of day.

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Questions 101

Refer to the exhibit

The following test cases need to be run, but time is limited, and it is possible that not all will be completed before the end of the test window

The first activity is to run any re-tests, followed by the regression test script. Users have supplied their priority order to tests.

Which of the following gives an appropriate test execution schedule, taking account of the prioritisation and other constraints? [K3]

Options:

A.

b, c, g, d, e, i, a, f, h

B.

a, c, d, b, g, e, i, f, h

C.

c, a, d, b, e, g, i, h, f

D.

d, c, a, e, b, g, i, f, h

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Questions 102

Which of the following is a role of a formal review? [K1]

Options:

A.

Adjudicator

B.

Moderator

C.

Governor

D.

Corrector

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Questions 103

A bank is developing a new service that will be delivered via the web. The user interactions are defined as a set of use cases and the service is designed to be available continuously 24/7. In view of the challenging characteristics of the service the test manager has decided that the code should be thoroughly tested at component level.

Which of the following test types will be required during the development? [K2]

Options:

A.

Functional testing to test security at the system level, load testing at the system level to ensure the system availability is acceptable, regression testing at all levels, structure based testing at the component level only

B.

Functional testing to test the use cases at component level, reliability testing to test availability at the integration level, regression testing at the system testing level only, structure based testing at all levels

C.

Functional testing of the use cases at system level, load testing at component level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the system and acceptance levels only, and structure based testing at the integration level only

D.

Functional testing to test security at the acceptance level, load testing at the acceptance test level to ensure availability is acceptable, regression testing at the acceptance level only to ensure late changes are made correctly, and structure based testing at the component level

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Questions 104

Which statement correctly describes debugging? [K2]

Options:

A.

Testers identify defects, developers locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

B.

Developers identify defects, testers locate defects, developers correct and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

C.

Testers identify and locate defects, developers correct defects and confirm the correction has cleared the original defect

D.

Developers identify, locate and correct defects, testers confirm the correction

has cleared the original defect

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Questions 105

Which of the following test cases will ensure that the statement ‘Print ‘Hold’’ is exercised? [K3]

Refer to the exhibit

Options:

A.

X=2, Y=2, Z=2

B.

X=2, Y=3, Z=4

C.

X=2, Y=4, Z=3

D.

X=4, Y=3, Z=2

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Questions 106

Which of the following are 'Exit Criteria?'

Options:

A.

Acceptance criteria, completion criteria, pass/fail criteria.

B.

Coverage of code, schedule, estimates of defect density.

C.

The last executable statement within a component.

D.

Cost overruns.

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Questions 107

“Experience based" test design techniques, typically...

Options:

A.

Use decision tables to generate the Boolean test conditions to be executed.

B.

Identify the structure of the system or software at the component, integration or system level.

C.

Use the skill, intuition and experience of the tester to derive the test cases, using error guessing and exploratory testing.

D.

Establish traceability from test conditions back to the specifications and requirements.

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Questions 108

A system calculates the amount of customs duty to be paid:

_ No duty is paid on goods value up to, and including, $2,000.

_ The next $8,000 is taxed at 10%.

_ The next $20,000 after that is taxed at 12%.

_ Any further amount after that is taxed at 17%.

To the nearest $, which of these groups of numbers fall into three DIFFERENT equivalence classes?

Options:

A.

$20,000 $20,001 $30,001

B.

$2,000 $2,001 $10,000

C.

$2,000 $8,000 $20,000

D.

$1,500 $2,000 $10,000

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Questions 109

What is a test condition?

Options:

A.

A statement of test objectives and test ideas on how to test.

B.

An item or event that could be verified by one or more test cases.

C.

The process of identifying differences between the actual results and the expected results for a test.

D.

All documents from which the requirements of a component or system can be inferred.

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Exam Code: CTFL_Syll2018
Exam Name: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (Syllabus 2018)
Last Update: May 14, 2024
Questions: 365
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