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DMF-1220 Data Management Fundamentals Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The four main types of NoSQL databases are:

Options:

A.

Document

B.

Row-orientated

C.

Graph

D.

Strategic

E.

Key-value

F.

Column-orientated

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Questions 5

The neutral zone is one of the phases in the Bridges’ transition phases.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 6

Adoption of a Data Governance program is most likely to succeed:

Options:

A.

When the CDO is a charismatic leader

B.

In 1 or 2 months with a large consulting team

C.

When the entire enterprise is partaking at once

D.

When dictated by senior executives

E.

With an incremental rollout strategy

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Questions 7

Implementing a BI portfolio is about identifying the right tools for the right user communities within or across business units.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 8

Metadata is described using three sets od categories, including:

Options:

A.

Structural Metadata

B.

Descriptive Metadata

C.

Generic Metadata

D.

Administrative metadata

E.

Conceptual Metadata

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Questions 9

ECM is an abbreviation for:

Options:

A.

Enterprise compliance management

B.

Enterprise compliance manager

C.

Enterprise component management

D.

Enterprise content management

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Questions 10

The list of V’s include:

Options:

A.

Volatility

B.

Volume

C.

Veracity

D.

Viscosity

E.

Variety

F.

Validity

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Questions 11

Data warehousing describes the operational extract, cleaning, transformation, control and load processes that maintain the data in a data warehouse.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 12

A change management program supporting formal data governance should focus communication on:

Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

Options:

A.

Implementing data management training

B.

Monitoring the resistance

C.

Promoting the value of data assets

D.

Addressing all queries

E.

Implementing new metric and KPIs

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Questions 13

Elements that point to differences between warehouses and operational systems include:

Options:

A.

Historical

B.

Data security standards

C.

Subject-orientated

D.

Non-volatile

E.

Data quality

F.

Integrated

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Questions 14

The data in Data warehouses and marts differ. Data is organized by subject rather than function

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 15

Enterprise data architecture project-related activities include:

Options:

A.

Define maturity assessment

B.

Define scope

C.

Design

D.

Implement

E.

None of the above

F.

All of the above

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Questions 16

Lack of automated monitoring represents serious risks, including:

Options:

A.

Administrative and audit duties risk

B.

Risk of compliance

C.

Direction and recovery risk

D.

Risk of reliance on inadequate native

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Questions 17

Data modelling is most infrequently performed in the context of systems and maintenance efforts, known as SDLC.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 18

Database monitoring tools measure key database metrics, such as:

Options:

A.

Capacity, availability, backup instances, data quality

B.

Capacity, design, normalization, user access

C.

Create, read, update, delete

D.

Create, read, normalization, user access

E.

Capacity, availability, cache performance, user statistics

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Questions 19

Which of the following is NOT a stage of the Data Quality Management Cycle?

Options:

A.

Check

B.

Do

C.

Plan

D.

Act

E.

Intervene

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Questions 20

Data replication can be active or passive.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 21

Referential Integrity (RI) is often used to update tables without human intervention. Would this be a good idea for reference tables?

Options:

A.

Yes, since Standards Bodies typically supply reference data, the enterprise can automatically update when a new code or value is received

B.

No, updates should always be made directly via data entry or through a specific batch interface based on operator-entered information partly because of regulatory reporting and archiving

C.

Yes, you do not have to worry about archived data with reference data so tables can be updated automatically

D.

No, but an enterprise can use program logic to do updates as there is little potential for problems to occur with reference data

E.

Yes, older transactions do not have to be removed because with the Cloud there is unlimited database storage

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Questions 22

Please select the 3 visuals that depict DAMA’s Data Management Framework.

Options:

A.

The DAMA Octagon

B.

The Knowledge Area Context Diagram

C.

The Data Quality Function Context Diagram

D.

The DAMA Wheel

E.

The Environmental Factors hexagon

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Questions 23

What business function is best aligned to deliver oversight to data architecture ?

Options:

A.

Data Govemance

B.

Business Innovation

C.

Business Integration

D.

Chief Technology Office

E.

Enterprise Architecture

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Questions 24

ISO 8000 will describe the structure and organization of data quality management, including:

Options:

A.

Data Quality Assurance

B.

None of the above

C.

Data Quality Planning

D.

Data Quality Audit

E.

Data Quality Control

F.

Data Quality Improvement

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Questions 25

In data modelling practice, entities are linked by:

Options:

A.

Relationships

B.

Processes

C.

Cardinality

D.

Indexes

E.

Triggers

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Questions 26

Different storage volumes include:

Options:

A.

Gigabyte

B.

Petabyte

C.

Perabyte

D.

Exabyte

E.

Tetrabyte

F.

Terabyte

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Questions 27

Wat data architecture designs represent should be clearly documented. Examples include:

Options:

A.

Priority

B.

Retirement

C.

Preferred

D.

All of the above

E.

Current

F.

Emerging

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Questions 28

Access to data for Multidimensional databases use a variant of SQL called MDX or Multidimensional expression.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 29

In Data Modelling, the generalization of the concept of person and organization into a party enables:

Options:

A.

The implementation of relationships between persons and organizations

B.

Single person organizations to be managed consistently

C.

Faster implementation into packages that use the same vocabulary

D.

Them to act in roles in agreements, shared address usages, and common interaction processes

E.

Greater security as users are unaware if this party is a person or an organization

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Questions 30

A complexity in documenting data lineage is:

Options:

A.

Establishing data quality metrics

B.

Conflicting application requirements from data owners

C.

Choosing which content management software to use

D.

Identifying source databases

E.

Different data element names and formats

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Questions 31

Data models are critical to effective management of data. They:

Options:

A.

Provide a common vocabulary around data

B.

Capture and document explicit knowledge about an organization’s data and systems

C.

Serve as a primary communication tool during projects

D.

Provide the starting point for customizations, integration or even replacement of an application

E.

Provide the organisation with clear system of the architecture

F.

Make the integration between data management and data analytics possible

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Questions 32

The biggest business driver for developing organizational capabilities around Big Data and Data Science is the desire to find and act on business opportunities that may be discovered through data sets generated through a diversified range of processes.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 33

Deliverables in the document and content management context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Metadata and reference data

B.

Policy and procedure

C.

Data governance

D.

Content and records management strategy

E.

Audit trail and log

F.

Data storage and operations

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Questions 34

How can the Data Governance process best support Regulatory reporting requirements?

Options:

A.

By providing a look up service for definitions

B.

By ensuring that data is properly owned, understood, defined, documented and controlled

C.

By performing a data audit

D.

By creating a map of the enterprise data stores where copies of information may be found

E.

By highlighting challenges of multiple definitions within the enterprise

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Questions 35

Different types of metadata include:

Options:

A.

Business, Technical and Operational

B.

Business. Quality, and Introspective

C.

Business, Application and Processing

D.

Business, Information, Application and Technology

E.

Fluid, static and viscous

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Questions 36

MPP is an abbreviation for Major Parallel Processing.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 37

While the focus of data quality improvement efforts is often on the prevention of errors, data quality can also be improved through some forms of data processing.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 38

Record management starts with a vague definition of what constitutes a record.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 39

Content management includes the systems for organizing information resources so that they can specially be stored.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 40

SOA stand for Service Orchestrated Architecture

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 41

Business metadata focuses largely on the content and condition of the data and includes details related to data governance.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 42

ISO 8000 will describe the structure and the organization of data quality management, including:

Options:

A.

Data Quality Availability

B.

Data Quality Planning

C.

Data Quality Control

D.

Data Quality Assurance

E.

Data Quality Improvement

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Questions 43

Which of the following is a Data Quality principle?

Options:

A.

Prevention

B.

Governance

C.

Criticality

D.

Standards Driven

E.

All of these

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Questions 44

Value is the difference between the cost of a thing and the benefit derived from that thing.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 45

Accomplish repository scanning in two distinct approaches, including:

Options:

A.

Semi- proprietary integration

B.

Proprietary interface

C.

Semi-proprietary interface

D.

Proprietary integration

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Questions 46

Critical success factors throughout the BI/DW lifecycle include:

Options:

A.

Business readiness

B.

A clear and consistent focus

C.

Vision alignment

D.

Business sponsorship

E.

Linear symmetry

F.

A consistent line across display methods

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Questions 47

Misleading visualisations could be an example where a base level of truthfulness and transparency are not adhered to.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 48

Which of the following activities is most likely to maintain bias in data analysis?

Options:

A.

Re-baselining the data set after each period of analysis to remove assumptions

B.

Working with external stakeholders to assess data quality

C.

Using more data sets with same data

D.

Remove sources of likely bias from data sets before analysis

E.

Using more data sets with diverse data sources

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Questions 49

Business Intelligence tool types include:

Options:

A.

Technology reporting

B.

Operational reporting

C.

Descriptive, self-service analytics

D.

Operations performance management (OPM)

E.

Business performance management (BPM)

F.

Predictive, self-service analytics

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Questions 50

Do experts feel a Data Lake needs data management?

Options:

A.

No, metadata might keep sensitive data out of the data lake, and analysts need all the data

B.

Yes, metadata in a data lake prevents synchronization issues by providing both current state and history

C.

Yes, metadata creates an inventory of the data as it is ingested into the data lake

D.

No, a data lake should contain all the data whether it is inconsistent or not, otherwise data scientists don’t have full insight into the data

E.

No, a data lake should ingest streaming data without any restrictions

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Questions 51

Data security internal audits ensure data security and regulatory compliance policies are followed should be conducted regularly and consistently.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 52

Which of the following is a core principle of any Data Governance program?

Options:

A.

All metadata should be held in a central Metadata repository acquired for that purpose

B.

Data should be formally owned by the IT Department, who is tasked with leading Data Governance across the organization

C.

All information and data stored by the company should be subject to formal Data Governance

D.

All important company data should be subject to formal business ownership and stewardship and be systematically measured and improved where necessary

E.

Governance of corporate data held on Cloud provider platforms is the sole responsibility of the Cloud provider

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Questions 53

Temporal aspects usually include:

Options:

A.

Valid time

B.

Transmitting time

C.

Transaction time

D.

Value time

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Questions 54

Data architects facilitate alignment between [1] and [2]

Options:

A.

[1] Business and [2] IT

B.

[1] Technology and [2] Data

C.

[1] Governance and [2] Management

D.

[1] Strategy and [2] Execution

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Questions 55

ETL is the basic process which is central to all areas in Data Integration and Interoperability. It is an abbreviation for extract, transition and load.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 56

CMDB provide the capability to manage and maintain Metdata specifically related to the IT assets, the relationships among them, and contractual details of the assets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 57

Examples of the ‘Who’ entity category include: employee; patient; player; and suspect.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 58

Which of the following is a type of data steward?

Options:

A.

Divisional

B.

Tactical

C.

Enterprise

D.

Operating

E.

Profiling Analyst

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Questions 59

Domains can be identified in different ways including: data type; data format; list; range; and rule-based.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 60

Architecture is the fundamental organization of a system, embodied in its components, their relationships to each other and the environment and the principles governing its design and evolution.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 61

Emergency contact phone number would be found in which master data

management program?

Options:

A.

Location

B.

Asset

C.

Service

D.

Employee

E.

Product

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Questions 62

An authoritative system where data is created/captured, and/or maintained through

a defined set of rules and expectations is called:

Options:

A.

A System of Systems

B.

A System of Retirement

C.

A System of Record

D.

A System of Reference

E.

A System of Referential Integrity

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Questions 63

Common OLAP operations include:

Options:

A.

Drill down/up

B.

Roll-up

C.

Slice

D.

Dice

E.

All of the above

F.

Cut

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Questions 64

To understand and evaluate ethical use of data within the organization what principles should we base our decisions on?

Options:

A.

Principles focused on ideas such as fairness, respect, responsibility, integrity, quality, reliability, transparency and trust

B.

Data Security and Privacy Principles

C.

Data Management principles that have been agreed by the organization

D.

There are several ethical theories that need to be understood and will provide the principles we have to apply: 1. Virtue-based ethics. 2. Deontological ethics. 3. Consequentialist ethics

E.

Generally Accepted Information Principles defined by GAAP

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Questions 65

Layers of data governance are often part of the solution. This means determining where accountability should reside for stewardship activities and who the owners of the data are.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 66

The Belmont principles that may be adapted for Information Management disciplines, include:

Options:

A.

Respect for Persons

B.

Respect for Machines

C.

Beneficence

D.

Criminality

E.

Justice

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Questions 67

All data is of equal importance. Data quality management efforts should be spread between all the data in the organization.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 68

Data Storage and Operations: The design, implementation and support of stored data to maximize its value.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 69

Malware refers to any infectious software created to damage, change or improperly access a computer or network.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 70

Data access control can be organized at an individual level or group level, depending on the need.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 71

Use business rules to support Data Integration and Interoperability at various points, to:

Options:

A.

Direct the flow of data in the organization

B.

Monitor the organization’s operational data

C.

Software alerts when events are triggered

D.

Direct when to automatically trigger events and alerts

E.

Consistency in allocation event resources

F.

None of the above

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Questions 72

Data modelling tools are software that automate many of the tasks the data modeller performs.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 73

The process of identifying how different records may relate to a single entity is called:

Options:

A.

Meshing

B.

Munging

C.

Mirroring

D.

Matching

E.

Mangling

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Questions 74

What is the best reason for capturing synonyms in a data repository?

Options:

A.

Synonyms are good for indexing or for uncontrolled vocabularies

B.

You should capture all synonyms in one place so that Data Governance can decide on the best name for an element

C.

Synonyms are useful in discovering relationships between data elements

D.

Not all parts of an organization may name a field exactly the same, and the synonym will aid in data searches

E.

Without synonyms, you may not realize that two fields are the same

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Questions 75

The purpose for adding redundancy to a data model (denormalisation) is to:

Options:

A.

Make it easier for developers to join tables

B.

Avoid the loss of data by storing key values more than once

C.

Improve aggregate database performance across read requests

D.

Fully utilize all the indexes

E.

Ensure surrogate keys are retaining their unique values in all satellite tables

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Questions 76

Metrics tied to Reference and Master Data Quality include:

Options:

A.

Addressing all queries

B.

Data steward coverage

C.

Implementing data management training

D.

Data sharing volume and usage

E.

Data ingestion and consumption

F.

Service level agreements

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Questions 77

In the Abate Information Triangle the past moves through the following echelons befor it comes insight:

Options:

A.

Data

B.

Information

C.

Transactions

D.

Knowledge

E.

Big data

F.

Time

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Questions 78

All metadata management solutions include architectural layers including:

Options:

A.

Metadata Quality Assurance Testing

B.

Metadata integration

C.

Metadata usage

D.

Metadata delivery

E.

Metadata control and management

F.

None of the above

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Questions 79

The business glossary application is structured to meet the functional requirements of the three core audiences:

Options:

A.

Data users

B.

Application users

C.

Innovation users

D.

Business users

E.

Data stewards

F.

Technical users

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Questions 80

What are the three characteristics of effective Data Governance communication?

Options:

A.

It must be clear, unambiguous, and consistent

B.

It must be clear, structured, repetitive

C.

It must be viral, vital, and have volume

D.

It must be colorful, engaging, using multi-media

E.

It must be consistent, unambiguous, engaging

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Questions 81

The CAP theorem asserts that the distributed system cannot comply with all the parts of the ACID. A distributed system must instead trade-off between the following properties:

Options:

A.

Consistency

B.

Utilization

C.

Availability

D.

System development

E.

Partition tolerance

F.

All of the above

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Questions 82

CIF stands for:

Options:

A.

Company Information Factory

B.

Corporate Information Floor

C.

Corporate Information Factories

D.

Corporate Information Factory

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Questions 83

The IT security policy provides categories for individual application, database roles, user groups and information sensitivity.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 84

A general principle for managing metadata includes Responsibility.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 85

Issues caused by data entry processes include:

Options:

A.

Training issues

B.

List entry replacement

C.

Software issues

D.

Soft state issues

E.

Change to business processes

F.

Inconsistent business process execution

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Questions 86

Data Management Professionals only work with the technical aspects related to data.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 87

When we consider the DMBoK2 definition of Data Governance, and the various practitioner definitions that exist in the literature, what are some of the key elements of Data Governance?

Options:

A.

Agreed models for data design and definition, decision rights regarding standards and controls, delegation of accountability

B.

Agreed models for decision making and decision rights, defined authority and escalation paths, structures for assigning accountability and delegating responsibility, alignment with business objectives

C.

Agreed architectures, transparent policies, shared language, effective tools, delegated authority, stewardship

D.

Exercise of authority, formalization of reporting lines, implementation of supporting technology, definition of common glossaries

E.

Alignment of Business and Technology strategies, definition of data standards, implementation of supporting metadata and process tools, management of responsibility

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Questions 88

Logical abstraction entities become separate objects in the physical database design using one of two methods.

Options:

A.

The DAMA Wheel

B.

Supertype partition

C.

Subtype partition

D.

Subtype absorption

E.

Supertype absorption

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Questions 89

Please select the transition phases in Bridges’ Transition process:

Options:

A.

The neutral zone

B.

The new beginning

C.

The ending

D.

The transition

E.

The translation

F.

The game

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Questions 90

Operational Metadata describes details of the processing and accessing of data. Which one is not an example:

Options:

A.

Error logs

B.

Schedule anomalies

C.

Purge criteria

D.

Failure logs

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Questions 91

An effective Data Governance communication program should include the following:

Options:

A.

All of these

B.

A Data Governance Portal

C.

Events that encourage informal networking

D.

A custom training program

E.

Regular newsletters

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Questions 92

Practitioners identify development of staff capability to be a primary concern of Data Governance. Why would this be a main concern?

Options:

A.

Because we need to develop the next generation of Chief Data Officers

B.

Because it is important to have senior people, in order to dictate that the policy will be followed

C.

Because organizations expect quick results

D.

Because it is important to train staff to ensure application of appropriate methods

E.

Because it is a recognized benchmark standard

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Questions 93

When constructing models and diagrams during formalisation of data architecture there are certain characteristics that minimise distractions and maximize useful information. Characteristics include:

Options:

A.

Linear symmetry

B.

A match between all diagram objects and the legend

C.

A clear and consistent legend

D.

A consistent line across display methods

E.

Consistent object attributes

F.

A clear and consistent line direction

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Questions 94

Data integrity is the state of being partitioned – protected from being whole.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 95

What is the most critical task for a new Data Governance team?

Options:

A.

To begin developing the Business Data Glossary

B.

To identify metrics for data quality issues in the organisation

C.

To define the requirements for technologies to support DG activities

D.

To collate an Information Risk Register

E.

To establish its purpose, process, and measures of team progress

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Questions 96

Data profiling is a form of data analysis used to inspect data and assess quality.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 97

The steps followed in managing data issues include:

Options:

A.

Standardization, Allocation, Assignment, and Correction

B.

Standardization, Explanation, Ownership, and Completion

C.

Read, Guess, Code, Release

D.

Standardization, Assignment, Escalation, and Completion

E.

Escalation, Review, Allocation and Completion

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Questions 98

The main difference between a System of Record and a System of Reference is:

Options:

A.

A system of reference is the source of transaction data; the system of record is the source of master data

B.

The data does not originate in the system of reference

C.

A system of record is the source of master data; a system of reference is the source of reference data

D.

They are the same thing

E.

The data does not originate in the system of record

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Questions 99

Advantages if a centralized metadata repository include:

Options:

A.

Quick metadata retrieval

B.

None of the above

C.

Combining data from multiple other tables in advance to avoid costly run-time joins

D.

All of the above

E.

High availability

F.

Low latency, since it is independent of the source systems

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Questions 100

What is one of the most important things about collecting data?

Options:

A.

To share the data across the organization

B.

To keep data away from the public

C.

To resolve many-to-many relationships

D.

To collect as much data as possible into the data repository

E.

To keep data for each department separate because no one needs all the data

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Questions 101

Data modeller: responsible for fata model version control an change control

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 102

SOR Stands for:

Options:

A.

Service of Record

B.

System of Record

C.

System on Record

D.

Service over Record

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Questions 103

Corrective actions are implemented after a problem has occurred and been detected.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 104

Which of the following is NOT an objective of a business (data) glossary?

Options:

A.

Provide standard definitions for data and metadata

B.

Maximize search capability and enable access to documented institutional knowledge

C.

Improve the linkage between physical data assets and the business

D.

Reduce data misuse risk due to inconsistent management of a business concept

E.

Define business units, software, and other important glossary items

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Questions 105

XML provides a language for representing both structures and unstructured data and information.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 106

A controlled vocabulary is a defined list of explicitly allowed terms used to index, categorize, tag, sort and retrieve content through browsing and searching.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 107

What ISO standard defines characteristics that can be tested by any organisation in the data supply chain to objectively determine conformance of the data to this ISO standard.

Options:

A.

ISO 9000

B.

ISO 7000

C.

ISO 8000

D.

ISO 9001

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Questions 108

The loading of country codes into a CRM is a classic:

Options:

A.

Reference data integration

B.

Fact data integration

C.

Master data integration

D.

Analytics data integration

E.

Transaction data integration

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Questions 109

The acronym ETL most commonly stands for:

Options:

A.

Extract Transpose Leverage

B.

Export Transform Log

C.

Extend Trim Load

D.

Extract Transform Load

E.

Efficient Trace Logging

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Questions 110

Creating the CDM involves the following steps:

Options:

A.

Select Scheme

B.

Obtain Sign-off

C.

Complete Initial CDM

D.

Select Notation

E.

Incorporate Enterprise Technology

F.

All of the above

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Questions 111

The disclosure of sensitive addresses may occur through:

Options:

A.

Inappropriate use of photocopier toner

B.

Cloud-based databases

C.

Software ignoring privacy tags on the data

D.

Ineffective implementation of data architecture

E.

Stored procedures being called directly

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Questions 112

Who should write the main content for a security policy for an organisation?

Options:

A.

A security knowledge area specialist

B.

A data governance knowledge area specialist

C.

The data warehouse developer

D.

The database administrator

E.

The data steward associated with the data

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Questions 113

What changes in data processing when a gas utility checks the condition of its assets using a drone rather than a team of people driving alongside the pipeline?

Options:

A.

Previously, they received condition data, now they receive observation data that needs to be analyzed to extract the condition

B.

Previously, they received reference data, now they receive incident data to find the work order

C.

Video data is much easier to read than structured data from the teams

D.

Previously, they received master data, now they receive reference data to find the incidents

E.

Previously, they received metadata, now they receive transactional data that needs to be analyzed to extract the data

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Questions 114

Normalisation is the process of applying rules in order to organise business complexity into stable data structures.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 115

Organizations conduct capability maturity assessments for a number of reasons, including:

Options:

A.

Organizational change

B.

Data management issues

C.

Regulation

D.

Data governance

E.

Data modeling

F.

New technology

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Questions 116

There are numerous methods of implementing databases on the cloud. The most common are:

Options:

A.

Virtual machine image

B.

Distributed machine image

C.

DAAS

D.

Managed database hosting on the cloud

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Questions 117

Corporate Information Factory (CIF) components include:

Options:

A.

Data marts

B.

Objectives

C.

Operational Reports

D.

Reduction of risk

E.

Staging Area

F.

Contributions to business objectives

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Questions 118

A database that is growing at 100% per annum compound will be:

Options:

A.

4 times its original size at the end of year 2

B.

6 times its original size at the end of year 3

C.

2 times its original size at the end of year 5

D.

3 times its original size at the end of year 2

E.

Half its original size at the end of year 2

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Questions 119

The language used in file-based solutions is called MapReduce. This language has three main steps:

Options:

A.

Map

B.

Shuffle

C.

Free

D.

Terminate

E.

Integrate

F.

Reduce

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Questions 120

The best DW/BI architects will design a mechanism to connect back to transactional level and operational level reports in an atomic DW.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 121

You are a reporting Data Analyst. A new Management Report has been requested. What is the most effective way to ensure you receive the appropriate data at the correct level of accuracy to meet the business need?

Options:

A.

Hold a meeting to understand the timelines of when data will be provided

B.

Supply a detailed definition document which includes timelines, data requirements, calculation details, etc

C.

Supply a detailed definition template document and request completion by relevant managers

D.

Send a general email to the manager of the department(s)

E.

Write a general definitions statement describing conceptually what is required

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Questions 122

Within projects, conceptual data modelling and logical data modelling are part of requirements planning and analysis activities, while physical data modelling is a design activity.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 123

The independent updating of data into a system of reference is likely to cause:

Options:

A.

Reference data inconsistencies

B.

Duplicate data

C.

Deadlocks in the database

D.

Master data inconsistencies

E.

Transaction data inconsistencies

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Questions 124

Data handling ethics are concerned with how to procure, store, manage, use and dispose of data in ways that are aligned with ethical principles.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 125

What are some of the business drivers for the ethical handling of data that Data Governance should satisfy?

Options:

A.

Develop Employee Awareness of the organizational risks on unethical data handling

B.

All of these

C.

Define what ethical handling of data means to the organization

D.

Achieve the preferred culture and actions in handling data

E.

Monitor, Measure and adjust the organizations approach to data ethics

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Questions 126

An effective team is based on two simple foundations: trust and a common goal.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 127

Assessment criteria are broken into levels, and most capability maturity models use five (5) levels. This is important since:

Options:

A.

It is not important how many levels there are; vendors do this to show they have a complex model

B.

Each capability level will have specific criteria associated with its completion. To move to the next higher level, all the capabilities of the current level must be satisfied

C.

Each capability is separate, so each level represents a separate stage in development

D.

Assessments are difficult and breaking them into levels makes them more difficult to perform

E.

The organization must be able to manage each criterion, and breaking them into levels is the only way to do that

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Questions 128

Achieving security risk reduction in an organisation begins with developing what?

Options:

A.

A change management model, prioritising security changes and then updatingthe active directory

B.

An enterprise data model, rolling out data flow diagrams and enbedding securityinto the database

C.

A security model, classifying each organisational role and putting the physicaldata behind a firewall

D.

A classification model, classifying each data concept and locating the physicaldata

E.

A metadata model, locating the data and moving it into the metadata repository

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Questions 129

Drivers for data governance most often focus on reducing risk or improving processes. Please select the elements that relate to the improvement of processes:

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance

B.

Data quality improvements

C.

Metadata management

D.

Efficiency in development projects

E.

Vendor management

F.

All of the above

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Questions 130

The accuracy dimension has to do with the precision of data values.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 131

Basic profiling of data involves analysis of:

Options:

A.

Data sources, data visualisations, data latency and ownership

B.

Data clusters, data clouds, data repositories and metadata libraries

C.

Data lakes, data warehouses and operational data stores

D.

Data formats, data values, patterns and relationships

E.

Data criteria, data acquisition, data policy and procedures inside dataGovernance

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Questions 132

A business driver for Master Data Management program is managing data quality.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 133

Data governance program must contribute to the organization by identifying and delivering on specific benefits.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 134

Data governance requires control mechanisms and procedures for, but not limited to, identifying, capturing, logging and updating actions.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 135

Data flows map and document relationships between data and locations where global differences occur.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 136

In matching, false positives are three references that do not represent the same entity are linked with a single identifier.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 137

Data modelling tools and model repositories are necessary for managing the enterprise data model in all levels.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 138

What position is responsible for the quality and use of their organization's data

assets?

Options:

A.

Data Architect

B.

Data Steward

C.

Data Scientist

D.

Chief Information Officer

E.

Data Modeler

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Questions 139

What techniques should be used and taught to produce the required ethical data handling deliverables?

Options:

A.

Change, Communication and training techniques need to be established

B.

A privacy impact assessment (PIA) is critical to ensuring that we are adhering to ethical data management

C.

Do an ethical impact assessment framework for all projects and activities involved in data management

D.

Due to fact that ethics are constantly changing we need to constantly affirm the organizations ethic statements on an annual basis

E.

Data Governance should define the set of ethical practices that are good for the organization

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Questions 140

Which of the following is NOT a responsibility of a Data Steward?

Options:

A.

Data Standards

B.

Operational Data Activities

C.

Data Quality

D.

Performance Tuning

E.

Metadata Management

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Questions 141

Following the rollout of a data issue process, there have been no issues recorded in the first month. The reason for this might be:

Options:

A.

A lack of credibility in the Data Governance process to really affect changes

B.

The automatic deletion of all issues in the database

C.

Staff staying back late to enter the issues into the system

D.

The denial of overtime requests

E.

There are no data issues in the enterprise

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Questions 142

When measuring the value of data architecture one should be most concerned about

Options:

A.

Improved coding efficiency

B.

Project speed

C.

Number of Projects reviewed

D.

Added business value

E.

Cost savings

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Questions 143

Managing business party Master Data poses these unique challenges:

Options:

A.

Difficulties in unique dimensions

B.

Difficulties in unique identification

C.

Reference data anomaly detection

D.

The number of data sources and the differences between them

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Questions 144

The goal of data architecture is to:

Options:

A.

Serve as a platform to enable data governance and management

B.

Bridge between business strategy and technology execution

C.

Provide the organisation with clear system of the architecture

D.

Make the integration between data management and data analytics possible

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Questions 145

Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:

Options:

A.

Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

B.

Stewardship

C.

Monitoring the resistance

D.

Ownership

E.

Addressing all queries

F.

Controlled change

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Questions 146

Please select the option that correctly orders the models in decreasing level of detail:

Options:

A.

None of the above

B.

Conceptual model, Subject Area model, Logical model, Logical & Physical models for a project.

C.

Logical model, Conceptual model, Subject Area model, Logical & Physical models for a project.

D.

Conceptual model, Logical model, Subject Area model, Logical & Physical models for a project.

E.

Subject Area model, Conceptual model, Logical model, Logical & Physical models for a project.

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Questions 147

Which of the following is NOT a type of Data Steward?

Options:

A.

Coordinating

B.

Enterprise

C.

Operational

D.

Business

E.

Executive

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Questions 148

The placement of Data Governance is most effective when:

Options:

A.

It is defined by Compliance because most of what is governed is driven by regulatory and compliance issues

B.

The Database Administrators incorporate Data Governance in their database design

C.

It has a Data Governance manager and some data stewards

D.

Defined at the department level at which is most important

E.

When it is at the enterprise level so it can support all other data management initiatives that cross functional boundaries

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Questions 149

Measuring the effects of change management on in five key areas including: Awareness of the need to change; Desire to participate and support the change; Knowledge about how to change; Ability to implement new skills and behaviors; and Reinforcement to keep the change in place.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 150

A staff member has been detected inappropriately accessing client records from

usage logs. The security mechanism being used is an:

Options:

A.

Access

B.

Audit

C.

Entitlement

D.

Authorisation

E.

Authentication

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Questions 151

What is the final step in the development of a business-data-driven roadmap?

Options:

A.

Describe the Data Value Chain that supports the Business Capabilities

B.

Finalize the Data flow between business capabilities

C.

Establish the sequence of projects that will be used to establish the data value chain

D.

Resequencing of some of the business capabilities to resolve data dependencies

E.

Resolve Data Dependency challenges

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Questions 152

Data science depends on:

Options:

A.

Information alignment and analysis

B.

Presentation of findings and data insights

C.

Rich data sources

D.

Information delivery

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Questions 153

Which of the following is NOT a goal of data management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring the quality of data and information

B.

Preventing unauthorized or inappropriate access, manipulation, or use of data and information

C.

Ensuring the privacy and confidentiality of stakeholder data

D.

Ensuring staff are effectively trained on business operational procedures

E.

Ensuring data can be used effectively to add value to the enterprise

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Questions 154

Product Master data can only focus on an organization’s internal product and services.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 155

Which of the following is NOT a valid Data Governance programme Key Performance Indicator (KPI)?

Options:

A.

Number of duplicated customer records

B.

Number of data stewards actually in post

C.

Number of incomplete product records

D.

Number of data definitions completed and signed off

E.

Number of customer complaints received

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Questions 156

In defining a Data Security Policy, what role should Data Governance play?

Options:

A.

Write the Data Security Policy

B.

Send all Data Security questions to the legal department

C.

Have no role in the Data Security Policy

D.

Review and approve the Data Security Policy

E.

Own and maintain the Data Security Policy

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Questions 157

A communication plan includes an engagement model for stakeholders, the type of information to be shared, and the schedule for sharing information.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 158

SBA is an abbreviation for service-based architecture.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 159

Deliverables in the data management maturity assessment context diagram include:

Options:

A.

Maturity baseline

B.

Roadmap

C.

Executive briefings

D.

Recommendations

E.

Risk assessment

F.

Ratings and ranks

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Questions 160

What position should be responsible for leading the Data Governance Council (DGC)?

Options:

A.

Chief Data Steward or Chief Data Officer

B.

Chief Information Officer or Chief Technology Officer

C.

DGC Chair should rotate among executive positions

D.

Chief Data Architect or Chief Data Modeler

E.

Any executive can chair the DGC

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Questions 161

Subtype absorption: The subtype entity attributes are included as nullable columns into a table representing the supertype entity

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 162

The better an organization understands the lifecycle and lineage of its data, the better able it will be to manage its data. Please select correct implication of the focus of data management on the data lifecycle.

Options:

A.

Data Quality must be managed throughout the data lifecycle

B.

Data Security must only be managed at the start of the data lifecycle

C.

Metadata Quality is the most important part of the management process

D.

Data Management efforts should focus on the most critical data last

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Questions 163

A data architecture team is best described as:

Options:

A.

A group of strong database administrators

B.

A strategic planning and compliance team

C.

An operational data provisioning group

D.

The authors of reference data

E.

A well-managed project of architectural development

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Questions 164

Sample value metrics for a data governance program include:

Options:

A.

Reduction of risk

B.

Improved efficiency in operations

C.

Effectiveness of education

D.

Achievements of goals and objectives

E.

Contributions to business objectives

F.

Effectiveness of communication

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Questions 165

The disclosure of sensitive addresses may occur through:

Options:

A.

Inappropriate use of photocopier toner

B.

Ineffective implementation of data architecture

C.

Cloud-based databases

D.

Stored procedures being called directly

E.

Software ignoring privacy tags on the data.

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Questions 166

SOA stands for:

Options:

A.

Service orchestrated architecture

B.

Service orientated access

C.

Service orientated architecture

D.

Service overall architecture

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Questions 167

The load step of the ETL is physically storing or presenting the results of the transformation into the source system.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 168

Which of these is NOT likely in the scope of Data Governance and Stewardship?

Options:

A.

Data asset valuation in order to allocate priority to data quality management

B.

Ensure the privacy needs of stakeholders are enforced and audited

C.

To train staff on data governance principles, embedding them in everyday decision making

D.

To adjust the definitions of items in the chart of accounts to improve financial management

E.

Monitor compliance to record management policies

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Questions 169

What is the best way to ensure you have high quality data?

Options:

A.

Do corrective action after a problem has occurred because data only needs to be 'fit for use'

B.

Inspect all data that is in production and get the business areas to certify that the data is correct

C.

Implement Data Governance and Stewardship

D.

Create drop-down menus for data entry to prevent all invalid data

E.

Instruct users of data in downstream systems flag data errors and put them in a error log

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Questions 170

ANSI standard 859 has three levels of control of data, based on the criticality of the data and the perceived harm that would occur if data were corrupt or otherwise unavailable, including:

Options:

A.

Basic

B.

Formal

C.

Informal

D.

Custody

E.

Revision

F.

None of the above

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Questions 171

A goal of reference and master data management is for data to ensure shared data is:

Options:

A.

Continuous, consistent, current and private

B.

Complete, consistent, current and authoritative

C.

Secure, auditable, publicly available and free

D.

Complete, consistent, content and relevant

E.

Secure, auditable. complete and relevant

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Questions 172

As an often-overlooked aspects of basic data movement architecture, Process controls include:

Options:

A.

Consistency logging

B.

Exception logs

C.

Database activity logs

D.

Alerts

E.

Exception logs

F.

All of the above

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Questions 173

During the initial scoping of a project, a data model can be used to:

Options:

A.

Determine the impact of business processes and customer lifecycles

B.

Identify detailed impact on all the tables in a database that must be changed

C.

Plan structure of the metadata repository

D.

Provide a clear definition of affected and non-affected data entities

E.

Determine the security requirements for accessing the data

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Questions 174

Which DMBok knowledge area is most likely responsible for a high percentage of

returned mail?

Options:

A.

Data Quality

B.

Reference and Master Data

C.

Data Warchousing and Business Intelligence

D.

Data Integration and Interoperability

E.

Metadata Management

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Questions 175

Which of these best describes the purpose of a Communications Plan in Data Governance?

Options:

A.

A Communications plan is required to schedule the email updates to stakeholders

B.

Implementing Data Governance requires you to know who to communicate issues and incidents via social media

C.

Implementing Data Governance requires you to engage with external suppliers to tell them what standards have changed

D.

Implementing Data Governance is a change management activity, and planned communications are essential for successful change

E.

Implementing Data Governance is a great brand development opportunity for your organization, so you need to engage media in a planned way

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Questions 176

A ‘Golden Record’ means that it is always a 100% complete and accurate representation of all entities within the organization.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 177

There are several methods for masking data:

Options:

A.

Substitution

B.

Temporal variance

C.

Temporal stagnation

D.

Value stagnation

E.

Value variance

F.

All of the above

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Questions 178

The library of Alexandria was one of the largest collection of books in the ancient

world. Which DMBoK knowledge area is most aligned with managing the collection?

Options:

A.

Data Integration and Interoperability

B.

Reference and Master Data

C.

Data Security

D.

Document and Content Management

E.

Data Govemance

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Questions 179

Integration of ETL data flows will usually be developed within tools specialised to manage those flows in a proprietary way.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 180

Tools required to manage and communicate changes in data governance programs include

Options:

A.

Ongoing business case for data governance

B.

Obtaining buy-in from all stakeholders

C.

Data governance roadmap

D.

Monitoring the resistance

E.

Business/Data Governance strategy map

F.

Data governance metrics

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Questions 181

Latency can be:

Options:

A.

Batch

B.

Event-driven

C.

Distributed

D.

Real-time synchronous

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Questions 182

Some ways to measure value of data include:

Options:

A.

Replacement cost

B.

Market value

C.

Selling Data

D.

Risk cost

E.

Identified opportunities

F.

All of the above

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Questions 183

Data Stewards are most likely to be responsible for:

Options:

A.

Data Modelling and Data Security

B.

Data Integration and Interoperability

C.

Data Storage and Operations

D.

Content and Document Management

E.

Data Governance and Data Quality

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Questions 184

What are the primary drivers of data security activities?

Options:

A.

Risk reduction

B.

Risk alleviation

C.

Business growth

D.

Business compliance

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Questions 185

Reference and Master Data Management follow these guiding principles:

Options:

A.

Quality

B.

Stewardship

C.

Authority

D.

Ownership

E.

Exclusivity

F.

Inclusivity

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Questions 186

Obfuscating or redacting data is the practice of making information anonymous ot removing sensitive information. Risks are present in the following instances:

Options:

A.

Data storage

B.

Data marketing

C.

Data aggregation

D.

Data marking

E.

Data masking

F.

Data integration

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Questions 187

Why is the GDPR called the most important change in data and data privacy regulation in 20 years?

Options:

A.

Because most Europeans say they want the same data protection rights across the EU and regardless of where their data is processed

B.

Because most Europeans don’t want their data used by any country but the one in which they live

C.

Because most Europeans don’t care if EU companies have their data but they don’t want it shared with non-EU companies

D.

Because most Europeans are on social media because they don’t want their data exposed

E.

Because most Europeans believe other countries are stealing their data

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Questions 188

Architects seek to design in a way that brings value to an organisation. To reach these goals, data architects define and maintain specifications that:

Options:

A.

Align data architecture with enterprise strategy and business architecture

B.

Provide a standard business vocabulary for data and components

C.

Outline high-level integrated designs to meet these requirements.

D.

Integrate with overall enterprise architecture roadmap

E.

Define the current state of data in the organization.

F.

Express strategic data requirements

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Questions 189

A limitation of the centralized approach include: Maintenance of a decentralized repository is costly.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 190

Data Fabric is:

Options:

A.

A way of sewing together different data concepts into a single data warehouse

B.

A metadata repository

C.

A form of data lake that automates data acquisition and initial data quality processing

D.

A superior star schema strategy

E.

Just another data warehouse with no distinguishing features

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Questions 191

In Resource Description Framework (RDF) terminology, a triple store is composed of a subject that denotes a resource, the predicate that expresses a relationship between the subject and the object, and the object itself.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 192

Industry is struggling to distinguish the accountabilities of CDO and CIO. The definition of their responsibilities may specify parts of:

Options:

A.

Financial management functions

B.

Metadata functions

C.

Data security functions

D.

Data architecture functions

E.

Business intelligence functions

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Questions 193

In designing and building the database, the DBA should keep the following design principles in mind:

Options:

A.

Assessments

B.

Maintainability

C.

Reusability

D.

Performance and ease of use

E.

Security

F.

Integrity

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Questions 194

Content needs to be modular, structured, reusable and device and platform independent.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 195

When data is classified as either security data or regulatory data, the result will be:

Options:

A.

Business employees are restricted from viewing the data but technical employees can store the data in databases

B.

Employees will never see classified data for any reason

C.

Employees know they have to aggregate the data

D.

Employees, both business & technical know the sensitivity of the data

E.

Employees know they cannot use the data because it has been classified

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Questions 196

All organizations have the same Master Data Management Drivers and obstacles.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 197

How can the Data Governance process in an organisation best support the requirements of various Regulatory reporting needs?

Options:

A.

By creating a map of where the enterprise data is located in IT systems.

B.

By providing a Business Glossary based look up facility for data definitions.

C.

By ensuring that data is properly categorized, owned, understood, defined, documented and controlled

D.

By highlighting the challenges of multiple data definitions within the enterprise

E.

By performing an as-is data audit

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Questions 198

Data management professionals who understand formal change management will be more successful in bringing about changes that will help their organizations get more value from their data. To do so, it is important to understand:

Options:

A.

The triggers for effective change

B.

Data architecture

C.

How people experience changes

D.

Data security

E.

The barriers to change

F.

Why change fails

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Questions 199

There are three recovery types that provide guidelines for how quickly recovery takes place and what it focuses on.

Options:

A.

Immediate recovery

B.

Intermittent recovery

C.

Critical recovery

D.

Translucent recovery

E.

BMT recovery

F.

Non-critical recovery

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Questions 200

Field overloading: Unnecessary data duplication is often a result of poor data management.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 201

Types of metadata include:

Options:

A.

Strategic

B.

Business

C.

Column-orientated

D.

Operational

E.

Graph

F.

Technical

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Questions 202

To build models, data modellers heavily rely on previous analysis and modelling work.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 203

In data integration, the goal of data discovery is toc

Options:

A.

Identify potential sources and assure data recovery processes are compliant

B.

Identify key users and perform high level assessment of data quality

C.

Assign data glossary terms and data formats

D.

Identify potential sources and perform high-level assessment of data quality

E.

Assien data plossary terms and canonical models

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Questions 204

A key feature of the Bill Inmon's approach to data warehousing is:

Options:

A.

A preference for supporting operational reporting

B.

An exclusive focus on star schemas and cubes

C.

A normalized relational model to store and manage data

D.

A tight management of data dimensions

E.

Its ability to operate on open source platforms

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Questions 205

A Global ID is the MDM solution-assigned and maintained unique identifier attached to reconciled records.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 206

Which statement best describes the relationship between documents and records?

Options:

A.

Documents and records are the same thing

B.

Documents are written and records are audio

C.

Documents and records are not related

D.

Records are a sub-set of documents

E.

Documents are a sub-set of records

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Questions 207

A sandbox environment can either be a sub-set of the production system, walled off from production processing or a completely separate environment.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 208

Please select the correct general cost and benefit categories that can be applied consistently within an organization.

Options:

A.

Cost of erasing data from servers

B.

Cost of improving data

C.

What the data could be sold for

D.

Benefit of higher quality data

E.

Cost of replacing data if it were lost

F.

What competitors would pay for data

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Questions 209

Examples of transformation in the ETL process onclude:

Options:

A.

De-duping

B.

Structure changes

C.

Hierarchical changes

D.

Re-ordering

E.

Semantic conversions

F.

None of the above

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Questions 210

Type of Reference Data Changes include:

Options:

A.

Row level changes to internal Reference Data sets

B.

Row level changes to external Reference Data sets

C.

Creation of new Reference Data sets

D.

Business model changes on column level

E.

Structural changes to external Reference Data sets

F.

None of the above

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Questions 211

Please select the correct General Accepted Information Principles:

Options:

A.

Asset Principle

B.

Audit Principle

C.

Due Diligence Principle

D.

Going Concern Principle

E.

Ethical Principle

F.

All of the above

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Questions 212

A dimensional physical data model is usually a star schema, meaning there is one structure for each dimension.

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 213

A database uses foreign keys from code tables for column values. This is a way of implementing:

Options:

A.

Master data

B.

Event data

C.

Reference data

D.

Star schema data

E.

Temporal data

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Questions 214

The flow of data in a data integration solution does not have to be designed and documented.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 215

Data security includes the planning, development and execution of security policies and procedures to provide authentication, authorisation, access and auditing of data and information assets.

Options:

A.

TRUE

B.

FALSE

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Questions 216

What is a steward?

Options:

A.

A sponsor

B.

A stakeholder

C.

A person whose job it is to manage the property of another person

D.

A person responsible to follow trends

E.

An employer

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Questions 217

Regulations including the Sarbanes-Oxley Act require evidence of data lineage and accuracy. How can Data Governance aid organisations in achieving this goal?

Options:

A.

Capture and document all metrics and store in a central repository

B.

Undertake an audit of current process and produce a report

C.

Create a new data store for regulator required metrics

D.

Perform an 'as-is' review of data quality

E.

Provide the framework and guidance to enable a business led ongoing Data Governance process

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Questions 218

In the context of big data the Three V’s refer to: Volume, Velocity and Validity

Options:

A.

FALSE

B.

TRUE

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Questions 219

Please select the answer that does not represent a machine learning algorithm:

Options:

A.

Reinforcement learning

B.

Supervised learning

C.

Artificial learning

D.

Unsupervised learning

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Exam Code: DMF-1220
Exam Name: Data Management Fundamentals
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
Questions: 725
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