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GRCP GRC Professional Certification Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

GRC Professionals, known as "Protectors," work to achieve a specific goal referred to as Principled Performance. Which of the following best describes Principled Performance®?

Options:

A.

To reliably achieve objectives, address uncertainty, and act with integrity – to produce and preserve value simultaneously.

B.

To maximize profits and minimize losses.

C.

To ensure compliance with all legal requirements.

D.

To eliminate all risks and uncertainties.

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Questions 5

Which of these would not trigger the reconsideration of internal factors within an organization?

Options:

A.

Fluctuations in the stock market and economic conditions.

B.

Ordinary seasonal fluctuations in purchases.

C.

The launch of a new product or service by a competitor.

D.

Changes in government regulations and industry standards.

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Questions 6

What does resilience measure in the context of the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Resilience measures the durability and longevity of the organization’s physical assets

B.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to recover from financial losses and setbacks

C.

Resilience measures the ability to withstand stress and the capability to align after stress

D.

Resilience measures the organization’s ability to maintain a positive reputation in the face of public scrutiny

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Questions 7

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to enhance stakeholder confidence and perform assessments?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Security & Continuity

C.

Governance & Oversight

D.

Strategy & Performance

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Questions 8

In the context of GRC, what is the importance of aligning objectives throughout the organization?

Options:

A.

It ensures that superior-level objectives cascade to subordinate units and that subordinate units contribute to the most important objectives and priorities of the organization.

B.

It enables the governing authority to only focus on the highest-level objectives that are tied to financial outcomes.

C.

It frees the organization to focus solely on short-term financial performance.

D.

It eliminates the need for excessive communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization.

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Questions 9

What is the purpose of analyzing the internal context within an organization?

Options:

A.

To consider internal strengths and weaknesses, strategic plans, operating plans, organizational structures, policies, people, processes, technology, resources, information, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

B.

To determine the organization’s financial performance and profitability with its current plans, structures, people, and other internal factors that define the organization’s operations.

C.

To evaluate the organization’s use of resources in relation to its established objectives.

D.

To assess how the organization operates given market conditions and competitive landscape.

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Questions 10

How do strategic goals differ from other objectives within an organization?

Options:

A.

Strategic goals are short-term objectives focused on the organization’s daily operations and activities

B.

Strategic goals are specific targets related to the organization’s sales and marketing efforts

C.

Strategic goals are long-term objectives typically set at higher levels of the organization and serve as guideposts for long-term strategic planning

D.

Strategic goals are quantitative measures of the organization’s financial performance and profitability

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Questions 11

In the IACM, what is the role of Promote/Enable Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To increase the likelihood of favorable events

B.

To establish clear lines of communication within the organization

C.

To set performance metrics for all actions and controls

D.

To establish and enable controls that mitigate potential security threats

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Questions 12

What are key compliance indicators (KCIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

Number of non-compliance events investigated

B.

The level of employee training and understanding of requirements

C.

The impact of environmental and social initiatives

D.

The degree to which obligations and requirementsare addressed

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Questions 13

What does it mean for an organization to "sense" its external context?

Options:

A.

To make sense of the changes that are tracked in the external context to determine impact on the organization

B.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s monitoring of the external environment

C.

To continually watch for and make sense of changes in the external context that may have a direct, indirect, or cumulative effect on the organization and to notify appropriate personnel and systems

D.

To use qualitative methods of monitoring the organization’s external context based on experience and intuition

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Questions 14

What is the purpose of proactively developing communication channels within an organization?

Options:

A.

To ensure that all communication is delivered in written form only.

B.

To ensure that the channels are available before they are needed.

C.

To formalize the process so that employees know that anything they communicate will be kept in records.

D.

To limit communication to a single channel for simplicity and cost savings.

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Questions 15

How do detective actions and controls contribute to managing performance?

Options:

A.

They provide investigative capabilities in every part of the organization.

B.

They detect and correct unfavorable events, which will lead to an increase in favorable events.

C.

They indicate progress toward objectives by detecting events that help or hinder performance.

D.

They focus on promoting favorable events, which will lead to the reduction of unfavorable events.

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Questions 16

What is the purpose of using the SMART model for results and indicators?

Options:

A.

To define results and indicators that are Stacked, Monitored, Achievable, Right, and Timely, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

B.

To assess the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats of the organization.

C.

To create a detailed budget and financial forecast for the organization.

D.

To define results and indicators that are Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant, and Time-Bound, especially for results and indicators that "run the organization."

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Questions 17

What is the end result of the alignment process in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

The end result of alignment is a detailed budget and financial forecast

B.

The end result of alignment is a comprehensive risk assessment report

C.

The end result of alignment is an integrated plan of action

D.

The end result of alignment is a detailed organizational chart with lines of reporting

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Questions 18

What is the difference between a hazard and an obstacle in the context of uncertainty?

Options:

A.

A hazard is a measure of the negative impact on the organization, while an obstacle is a state of conditions that create a hazard.

B.

A hazard affects the likelihood of an event, while an obstacle is a hazard with significant impact on objectives.

C.

A hazard is a cause that has the potential to eventually result in harm, while an obstacle is an event that may have a negative effect on objectives.

D.

A hazard is a type of obstacle, while an obstacle is an overarching category of threat.

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Questions 19

How are Key Performance Indicators (KPIs), Key Risk Indicators (KRIs), and Key Compliance Indicators (KCIs) used?

Options:

A.

KPIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about performance related to an objective; KRIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about risk related to an objective; KCIs help govern, manage, and provide assurance about compliance related to an objective

B.

KPIs are financial metrics, KRIs are operational metrics, and KCIs are customer-related metrics, all of which are used to determine executive bonuses

C.

KPIs are long-term goals, KRIs are short-term goals, and KCIs are intermediate goals, all of which are used to determine what decision-making criteria is required

D.

KPIs are used to measure the efficiency of business processes; KRIs are used to assess the risk assessment processes; and KCIs are used to evaluate the impact of changes, regulations and other obligations

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Questions 20

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization’s decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost

B.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries

C.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations

D.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed

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Questions 21

Who has ultimate accountability (plenary accountability) for the governance, management, and assurance of performance, risk, and compliance in the Lines of Accountability Model?

Options:

A.

The Fifth Line, or the Governing Authority (Board).

B.

The Second Line, or the individuals and teams that establish performance, risk, and compliance programs.

C.

The First Line, or the individuals and teams involved in operational activities.

D.

The Third Line, or the individuals and teams that provide assurance.

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Questions 22

A self-legitimizing person, group, or other entity with a direct or indirect invested interest in an organization’s actions because of the perceived or actual impact is referred to as?

Options:

A.

Shareholder

B.

Stakeholder

C.

Executive Team

D.

Customer

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Questions 23

How do GRC Professionals apply the concept of ‘maturity’ in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

GRC Professionals apply maturity only to the highest level of the GRC Capability Model.

B.

GRC Professionals apply maturity at all levels of the GRC Capability Model to assess preparedness to perform practices and support continuous improvement.

C.

GRC Professionals use maturity to evaluate the performance of individual employees.

D.

GRC Professionals use maturity to determine the budget allocation for GRC programs.

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Questions 24

How does Benchmarking contribute to the improvement of a capability?

Options:

A.

By identifying potential legal and regulatory issues.

B.

By comparing the capability's performance to industry standards or best practices.

C.

By assessing the impact of organizational culture.

D.

By evaluating the effectiveness of risk management campaigns.

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Questions 25

How can the Code of Conduct serve as a guidepost for organizations of all sizes and in all industries?

Options:

A.

It is a starting point for policies and procedures in large organizations or those in highly regulated industries, while in small organizations that are less regulated it is the only guidance needed.

B.

It is a legally mandated document that must be established and followed by all organizations.

C.

It sets out the principles, values, standards, or rules of behavior that guide the organization's decisions, procedures, and systems, serving as an effective guidepost.

D.

It is only applicable to large organizations in specific industries.

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Questions 26

In the context of Total Performance, how is responsiveness measured in the assessment of an education program?

Options:

A.

The number of new courses added to the education program each year.

B.

The number of positive reviews received for the education program.

C.

The percentage of employees who pass the final assessment.

D.

Time taken to educate a department, time to achieve 100% coverage, and time to detect and correct errors.

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Questions 27

What does agility in the context of the PERFORM component refer to?

Options:

A.

The proficiency in building and maintaining relationships with partners and suppliers who must implement Perform actions and controls

B.

The ability to quickly change direction in Perform actions and controls when things change

C.

The capacity to innovate and develop new ways to implement Perform actions and controls

D.

The capability to manage and resolve conflicts and disputes regarding Perform actions and controls

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Questions 28

What are some examples of environmental factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Climate and natural resources

B.

Organizational procurement, vendor selection, and contract negotiation for hazardous waste disposal

C.

Organizational performance metrics, goal setting, and progress tracking regarding climate-related projects

D.

Organizational response to new carbon emission regulations

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Questions 29

What are some considerations that should be taken into account when examining an organization’s internal context?

Options:

A.

Regulatory compliance, legal disputes, and contractual obligations on a unit-by-unit or division-by-division basis

B.

How any changes to the internal context might affect supplier relationships, distribution channels, and pricing strategies

C.

Mission and vision, values, value propositions and operating models, organizational charts and operating model mapping, key department scope and purpose, and potential perverse incentives

D.

Market share, employee and customer satisfaction, and brand reputation

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Questions 30

In the context of assurance activities, what is meant by the term "subject matter"?

Options:

A.

Financial statements and accounting records

B.

Identifiable statements, conditions, events, or activities for which there is evidence

C.

Policies, procedures, and guidelines

D.

Training programs, workshops, and seminars

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Questions 31

What is the term used to describe a cause that has the potential to result in harm?

Options:

A.

Hazard

B.

Prospect

C.

Opportunity

D.

Obstacle

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Questions 32

How can inquiry be conceptualized in terms of information-gathering mechanisms?

Options:

A.

As a "pushing" mechanism where individuals push information to external sources.

B.

As a "pulling" mechanism where individuals pull information from people and systems for follow-up and action.

C.

As a mechanism that relies solely on technology-based tools.

D.

As a centralized process managed by a single department.

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Questions 33

Which Critical Discipline of the Protector Skillset includes skills to constrain activities and set direction?

Options:

A.

Audit & Assurance

B.

Governance & Oversight

C.

Risk & Decisions

D.

Compliance & Ethics

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Questions 34

In the IACM, what is the role of Assurance Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assist assurance personnel in providing assurance services

B.

To assess new products and services for the market

C.

To analyze financial statements and prepare budgets

D.

To create a positive organizational culture and work environment

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Questions 35

Which statement is FALSE?

Options:

A.

The organization should have an education plan for each target population indicating what they should know about the GRC capability and their responsibilities for GRC activities.

B.

Regardless of role, everyone in the organization should receive the same curriculum and the same education activities to ensure consistent understanding.

C.

The organization should conduct a needs assessment to determine the training that will address high-risk situations and develop a training plan for each job or job family.

D.

The organization should identify legally mandated education, including who must be educated, the content required, the time required, and methods that may be used for each required course.

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Questions 36

What is the significance of ensuring the visibility of objectives across different levels of the organization?

Options:

A.

It showcases the achievements of the organization's leadership team

B.

It creates a competitive environment among different units within the organization

C.

It identifies underperforming employees and takes corrective action

D.

It allows for the coordination of activities

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Questions 37

In the IACM, what is the role of Correct/Recover Actions & Controls?

Options:

A.

To assess any damage done to the company from non-compliance

B.

To slow down or decrease the impact of unfavorable events and return the organization to its original, stable, or superior state after harm has occurred

C.

To ensure that all employees adhere to the company's code of conduct

D.

To ensure that unfavorable events do not affect the profitability of the organization

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Questions 38

What is the purpose of implementing incentives in an organization?

Options:

A.

To reduce the overall cost of employee compensation and benefits.

B.

To reduce the need for performance reviews and evaluations.

C.

To discourage employees from seeking employment opportunities elsewhere.

D.

To encourage the right proactive, detective, and responsive conduct in the workforce and extended enterprise.

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Questions 39

What is a potential limitation of using qualitative analysis techniques in the context of risk, reward, and compliance?

Options:

A.

Qualitative analysis techniques always lead to incorrect conclusions about risk, reward, and compliance.

B.

Qualitative analysis techniques are not applicable to the analysis of risk and reward.

C.

Qualitative analysis techniques rely on descriptive data and subjective judgments, which may result in less precise estimations compared to quantitative analysis.

D.

Qualitative analysis techniques are only useful for analyzing compliance-related risks.

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Questions 40

How can "assurance competence" contribute to the level of assurance provided?

Options:

A.

It is solely based on the assurance provider's credentials and ensures the highest level of assurance

B.

It is determined by the number of years the assurance provider has been in the industry and ensures high levels of assurance

C.

A greater degree of it allows the assurance provider to use sophisticated, professional, and structured techniques to evaluate the subject matter, resulting in a higher level of assurance

D.

It is only relevant for external audits and does not apply to internal assurance activities and level of assurance

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Questions 41

What is the role of identification criteria?

Options:

A.

Identification criteria are used to determine the order in which units undertake identification activities.

B.

Identification criteria are used to calculate the total budget for the organization based on priority objectives and the number of related obstacles and obligations.

C.

Identification criteria are used to focus on priority objectives and results.

D.

Identification criteria are used to establish the communication channels within the organization regarding opportunities, obstacles, and obligations.

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Questions 42

What does it mean for an organization to "reliably achieve objectives" as part of Principled Performance?

Options:

A.

It means achieving short-term goals regardless of the impact on long-term success.

B.

It means having measurable outcomes.

C.

It means achieving mission, vision, and balanced objectives thoughtfully, consistently, dependably, and transparently.

D.

It means always achieving profitability targets and maximizing shareholder value.

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Questions 43

What is the benefit of recognizing, compounding, and accelerating the impact of favorable events?

Options:

A.

To preserve records and other evidence for investigation

B.

To ensure confidentiality of the information and determine privilege

C.

To apply consistent discipline to individuals at fault

D.

To maximize benefit and promote future occurrence of favorable events

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Questions 44

What is the significance of assurance controls in the PERFORM component?

Options:

A.

To promote transparency and accountability in the organization's decision-making processes.

B.

To ensure that the organization's financial statements are accurate and reliable.

C.

To provide sufficient information to assurance providers when management and governance actions and controls are not enough.

D.

To establish a clear chain of command and reporting structure within the organization.

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Questions 45

How is the efficiency of the LEARN component measured in terms of the use of capital?

Options:

A.

By measuring changes in the organization's market share and competitive position.

B.

By evaluating the return on investment from undertaking LEARN activities.

C.

By assessing the efficiency of using financial, physical, human, and information capital to learn.

D.

By analyzing the organization's budget allocation and resource utilization.

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Questions 46

What is the role of key risk indicators (KRIs)?

Options:

A.

KRIs are subjective measures that are not based on any specific risk assessments or data so they only provide a high-level assessment of threats

B.

KRIs are indicators that help govern, manage, and provide assurance about risk related to an objective

C.

KRIs are used to evaluate the performance of the risk management and compliance departments

D.

KRIs are only relevant for governmental entities and have no role in commercial enterprises

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Questions 47

What type of activities are typically included in post-assessments?

Options:

A.

Financial audits and budget reviews.

B.

Employee performance evaluations and appraisals.

C.

Market research and customer surveys.

D.

Lessons learned, root-cause analysis, after-action reviews, and other evaluative activities.

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Questions 48

What does "Effectiveness" refer to when assessing Total Performance in the GRC Capability Model?

Options:

A.

The ability of a program to ensure compliance with laws and regulations and avoid issues or incidents of noncompliance

B.

The speed at which a program is implemented and executed with a good design that can be implemented in every department

C.

The soundness and logical design of a program, its alignment with best practices, coverage of topical areas, and impact on intended business objectives

D.

The cost savings achieved by implementing a GRC program

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Questions 49

What are some examples of economic factors that may influence an organization's external context?

Options:

A.

Growth, exchange, inflation, and interest rates

B.

Profitability of each line of business

C.

Supply chain management, inventory control, and distribution logistics

D.

Employee retention, job satisfaction, and career development

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Questions 50

How can integrity be conceptualized as a ratio?

Options:

A.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of regulations that are applicable to enforcement actions against the company

B.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of successful projects to failed projects

C.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of Promises Kept divided by Promises Made, with the goal of achieving a ratio close to 1 or 100%

D.

Integrity can be conceptualized as the ratio of total revenue to total expenses

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Questions 51

When should anonymity be afforded to stakeholders who raise issues through notification pathways?

Options:

A.

Anonymity should never be afforded, as it encourages false reporting.

B.

Anonymity should be afforded where legally permitted or required.

C.

Anonymity should only be afforded to stakeholders who are not employees of the organization.

D.

Anonymity should be afforded only when the issue raised is of minor importance.

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Questions 52

What is the importance of mapping objectives to one another within an organization?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units shows how they impact one another and how resources may be best allocated

B.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for determining the compensation and bonuses of employees based on their contributions to achieving objectives

C.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for creating a visual representation of the organization’s hierarchy and reporting structure

D.

Mapping objectives not only at the enterprise level but also across all units is important for identifying redundant objectives and eliminating them from the organization’s strategic plan

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Questions 53

Why is it essential to ensure that every issue or incident is addressed?

Options:

A.

To provide incentives to employees for favorable conduct.

B.

To compound and accelerate the impact of favorable events.

C.

To maintain employee and other stakeholder confidence in the system’s effectiveness.

D.

To escalate incidents for investigation and identify them as in-house or external.

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Questions 54

Why is independence considered important in the context of assurance activities?

Options:

A.

It allows assurance providers to avoid legal liability and regulatory penalties

B.

It is a tool to achieve objectivity, enhancing the impartiality and credibility of assurance activities

C.

It allows assurance providers to negotiate better contracts and agreements with stakeholders

D.

It enables assurance providers to access confidential information and proprietary data

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Questions 55

What is the role of a values statement in an organization?

Options:

A.

A values statement reflects the shared beliefs and expectations of the organization's leadership, employees, and stakeholders and serves as a guide for establishing a positive and productive organizational culture.

B.

A values statement is a legal document that outlines the financial obligations and liabilities of the organization that contribute to its value.

C.

A values statement is a formal agreement between the organization and its suppliers to ensure the timely delivery of goods and services that are essential to building the organization’s value.

D.

A values statement is a marketing tool used to attract new customers and investors to the organization.

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Questions 56

Which aspect of culture includes constraining and conscribing the organization, including how the governing authority and executive team are engaged, and whether leadership models behavior in words and deeds?

Options:

A.

Performance culture

B.

Governance culture

C.

Assurance culture

D.

Management culture

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Questions 57

What are some considerations to keep in mind when attempting to influence an organization’s culture?

Options:

A.

Culture change requires long-term commitment, consistent modeling in both words and deeds, and reinforcement by leaders and the workforce.

B.

Culture change is not necessary as long as the organization is meeting its financial targets.

C.

Culture change can be achieved quickly through the implementation of new policies and procedures if there is adequate training provided.

D.

Culture change is solely dependent on the decisions made by the executive leadership team and how they model desired behavior.

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Questions 58

In the GRC Capability Model, what is the primary focus of the REVIEW component?

Options:

A.

Implementing new policies and procedures to enhance organizational performance

B.

Continuously improving total performance by monitoring actions and controls and providing assurance about priority objectives, opportunities, obstacles, and obligations

C.

Exclusively focusing on monitoring actions and controls without providing assurance

D.

Conducting audits and inspections to identify non-compliance issues

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Questions 59

In the context of GRC, which is the best description of the role of assurance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Allocating financial resources and evaluating their use to manage the organization’s budget better.

B.

Providing the governing body with opinions on how well its objectives are being met based on expertise and experience.

C.

Designing and monitoring the organization’s information technology systems to be accurate and reliable so management can be assured of meeting established objectives.

D.

Objectively and competently evaluating subject matter to provide justified conclusions and confidence.

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Questions 60

How are opportunities, obstacles, and obligations prioritized for further analysis?

Options:

A.

Based on identification criteria and the priority of associated objectives

B.

Based on the business units they relate to and how important those units are to the achievement of objectives

C.

Based on the items identified as top priorities at the enterprise level taking higher priority than any unit-based items

D.

Based on the preferences of the executive management team

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Questions 61

What are key risk indicators (KRIs) associated with?

Options:

A.

The rate of return on investment and capital allocation

B.

The quality of products and services offered to customers

C.

The level of innovation and technological advancement

D.

The negative, unfavorable effect of uncertainty on objectives

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Questions 62

What is the role of assurance actions and controls in the IACM?

Options:

A.

They are focused on identifying and punishing non-compliant behavior within the organization

B.

They are used to evaluate the management and governance controls with regard to achieving financial objectives

C.

They provide additional information beyond management and governance actions and controls to evaluate subject matter

D.

They are limited to financial audits and do not address other aspects of performance, risk, and compliance

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Questions 63

How do organizational values contribute to acting with integrity?

Options:

A.

Adhering to established organizational values helps create a shared sense of purpose and direction, aligning actions and decisions with the organization's mission and goals

B.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by increasing the organization’s market share and profitability, which will satisfy shareholders to whom promises were made

C.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by allowing the organization to bypass certain legal and regulatory requirements

D.

Organizational values contribute to acting with integrity by reducing the likelihood of enforcement actions because the organization is self-regulating

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Questions 64

What is the term used to describe the measure of the negative effect of uncertainty on objectives?

Options:

A.

Risk

B.

Harm

C.

Obstacle

D.

Threat

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Questions 65

What is the importance of analyzing workforce culture in an organization?

Options:

A.

To analyze the climate and mindsets about workforce satisfaction, loyalty, turnover rates, skill development, and engagement

B.

To determine the organization’s commitment to reducing turnover and supporting employee advancement

C.

To ensure the organization’s compliance with environmental regulations and sustainability practices that evidence ethical concern

D.

To evaluate the effectiveness of the organization’s employee training in ethical decision-making

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Questions 66

What is the significance of a vision statement in inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers?

Options:

A.

It specifies the organization's views on ethical issues facing it.

B.

It describes what the organization aspires to be and why it matters, serving as a guidepost for long-term strategic planning and inspiring and motivating employees, stakeholders, and customers.

C.

It details the organization's sales targets and revenue projections to motivate employees to work hard and meet those goals.

D.

It outlines the organization's succession planning and leadership development.

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Questions 67

How does applying a consistent process for improvement benefit the organization?

Options:

A.

It benefits the internal audit department

B.

It reduces the need for employee training

C.

It helps prioritize and execute across the organization

D.

It is not necessary and has no benefits

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Questions 68

What is the role of suitable criteria in the assurance process?

Options:

A.

These criteria are performance metrics used to assess the efficiency of the organization's operations.

B.

These criteria are standards for the ethical conduct of employees and stakeholders.

C.

These criteria are guidelines for the allocation of resources within the organization.

D.

These criteria are benchmarks used to evaluate subject matter that yield consistent and meaningful results.

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Questions 69

How do objectives influence the identification and analysis of opportunities and obstacles in the ALIGN component?

Options:

A.

Objectives drive the identification, analysis, and prioritization of opportunities, obstacles, and opportunities

B.

Objectives determine the level of risk tolerance for the organization as it addresses opportunities and obstacles

C.

Objectives outline the roles and responsibilities of employees in the alignment process

D.

Objectives specify the types of software and technology the governing body wants to have used in the alignment process

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Questions 70

What is the purpose of mapping objectives to one another?

Options:

A.

Mapping objectives is a way to reduce the need for communication and collaboration between different departments within the organization

B.

Mapping objectives shows how objectives impact one another and helps allocate resources to achieve the most important objectives and priorities

C.

Mapping objectives is only relevant for financial objectives and has no impact on non-financial objectives

D.

Mapping objectives allows the organization to ignore subordinate-level objectives and focus only on superior-level objectives

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Questions 71

What is the significance of developing relationships with key individuals and champions within stakeholder groups?

Options:

A.

To ensure that stakeholders receive special privileges and benefits

B.

To liaison with people and champions who hold actual power and influence in each stakeholder group

C.

To create a network of stakeholders who can promote the organization’s brand

D.

To gather intelligence on the activities and plans of competing organizations who have some of the same stakeholders

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Questions 72

In the Lines of Accountability Model, what is the role of the First Line?

Options:

A.

Individuals and Teams who provide strategic direction and set organizational goals and objectives

B.

Individuals and Teams who own and manage performance, risk, and compliance associated with day-to-day operational activities

C.

Individuals and Teams who conduct audits and assessments to ensure compliance with regulations

D.

Individuals and Teams who oversee the implementation of policies and procedures across the organization

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Questions 73

Which are some considerations to keep in mind when establishing a communication framework?

Options:

A.

Reducing the frequency of communication to avoid information overload.

B.

Selecting the appropriate sender, recipient, intention, message, cadence, and channel.

C.

Ensuring external communications are always formal while most internal communication can be more informal.

D.

Using only one communication channel for all types of messages so that sending and receipt can be tracked.

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Questions 74

What is the term used to describe a measure that estimates the likelihood and impact of an event?

Options:

A.

Consequence

B.

Effect

C.

Condition

D.

Cause

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Exam Code: GRCP
Exam Name: GRC Professional Certification Exam
Last Update: Jul 2, 2025
Questions: 249
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