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ISTQB-CTFL ISTQB-Foundation Level Exam Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which of the following is a key characteristic of informal reviews?

Options:

A.

Kick-off meeting

B.

Low cost

C.

Individual preparation

D.

Metrics analysis

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Questions 5

The following part of a business process flow is specified; REPEAT (book a bill) UNTIL (User presses Cancel). How many test cases are necessary in order to achieve 100% branch coverage of the process flow?

Options:

A.

4

B.

1

C.

2

D.

Infinite

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Questions 6

Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.

I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.

II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.

III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk

IV) Risks have to be reassessed on a regular basis.

V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks

Options:

A.

I III IV and V are true. II is false.

B.

II, III IV and V are correct. I is false.

C.

C. I, II and IV are true. III and V are false.

D.

II, Ill and V are true. 1 ants Iv are false.

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Questions 7

Which of the following statements about reviews are TRUE?

I. In walkthroughs the review meeting is typically led by the author.

II Inspection is characterized by an open-ended review meeting

III Preparation before the review meeting is part of informal reviews

IV Management rarely participates in technical review meetings

Options:

A.

II, Ill

B.

I, II

C.

I, IV

D.

III, IV

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Questions 8

A software module to be used in a mission critical application incorporates an algorithm for secure transmission of data.

Which review type is most appropriate to ensure high quality and technical correctness of the algorithm?

Options:

A.

Walkthrough

B.

Informal Review

C.

Technical Review

D.

Management Review

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Questions 9

Which statement best describes the key difference between a mindset for test activities and a mindset for development activities?

Options:

A.

A tester possesses professional pessimism while a developer is concerned with validating the product

B.

A tester is concerned with finding defects while a developer is interested in designing solutions

C.

A tester is interested in building solutions while a developer is concerned with verifying the product

D.

A tester is concerned with verifying the product while a developer possesses professional pessimism

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Questions 10

Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the risk-based approach

B.

The Wideband Delphi estimation technique is an example of the expert-based approach

C.

Bumdown charts used in Agile development is an example of the risk-based approach

D.

Burndown charts used in Agile development is an example of the expert-based approach

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Questions 11

Decision table testing is being performed on tran-sactions in a bank’s ATM (Automated Teller Machine) system. Two test cases have already been generated for rules 1 and 4. which are shown below:

SEE ATTACHMENT 1

Given the following additional test cases:

SEE ATTACHMENT 2

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the full decision table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules 1 and 4)?

Options:

A.

DT1, DT4

B.

DT3, DT4

C.

DT2, DT3

D.

DT1.DT2

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Questions 12

Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?

Options:

A.

The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved

B.

The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects

C.

For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards

D.

The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing

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Questions 13

A class grade application for instructors assigns letter grades based on students' numerical grades.

The letter grades for different numerical grades should be:

Above 89, up to 100 - A

Above 79, up to 89 • B

Above 69, up to 79 • C

Above 59, up to 69 - D

Below 60- F

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the relatively highest equivalence partition coverage?

Options:

A.

0, 58.59,70, 80

B.

74, 79.84,85, 89

C.

79, 89.90,99, 100

D.

69, 79. 80, 89, 90

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Questions 14

Which of the following would be the LEAST likely to be used as the basis for a test exit criteria?

Options:

A.

Test schedules

B.

Cost of testing performed so far

C.

Confidence of testers in tested code

D.

Number of unfixed defects

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Questions 15

A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:

'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?

Options:

A.

The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset

B.

The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute

C.

The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail

D.

The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code

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Questions 16

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of test automation?

Options:

A.

More subjective assessment

B.

Reduction in repetitive manual work

C.

Availability of the test automation tool vendor

D.

Negligible effort to maintain the test assets generated by the tool

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Questions 17

Which of the following is NOT a common objective of testing?

Options:

A.

Finding defects in the software

B.

Preventing defects

C.

Debugging the software to find the reason for defects

D.

Providing information on the status of the system

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Questions 18

Which of the following statements about Experience Based Techniques (EBT) is correct?

Options:

A.

EBT use tests derived from the test engineers' previous experience with similar technologies.

B.

EBT is based on the ability of the test engineer to implement various testing techniques.

C.

EBT is done as a second stage of testing, after non-experienced-based testing took place.

D.

EBT require broad and deep knowledge in testing but not necessarily in the application or technological domain.

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Questions 19

Which of the following is the main benefit of a configuration management of testware?

Options:

A.

All testware is backed up with restore option, including incident reports and change requests. B. The testware can be traced to information in requirements tools and to the bug tracking system.

B.

All testware items are identified, version controlled, tracked tor changes with relation to each other

C.

There is an easy way to assess the level to test coverage provided by the existing tests

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Questions 20

Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:

1.A defined level of code coverage has been achieved

2.The test automation tool has been installed and properly configured

3.The number of unresolved defects is within the predefined limit

4.The performance test environment has been set-up and is available

5.The user stories have proper acceptance criteria defined

6.The testing budget has been spent and the project sponsor bears the risk of not testing any further

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:

Options:

A.

Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5 Entry criteria -1, 3, 4

B.

Entry criteria - 2, 4 Entry criteria - 2, 4, 5, 6

C.

Exit criteria -1,3,6 Exit criteria - 2, 5. 6

D.

Exit criteria -1,3,56 Exit criteria -1,3

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Questions 21

What type of testing measures its effectiveness by tracking which lines of code were executed by the tests?

Options:

A.

Acceptance testing

B.

Structural testing

C.

Integration testing

D.

Exploratory testing

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Questions 22

Which statement about use case testing is true?

Options:

A.

The lest cases are designed to find defects in the data flew.

B.

The test cases are designed to be used by real users, not by professional testers

C.

The test cases are always designed by customers or end users.

D.

The test cases are designed to find defects in the process flow.

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Questions 23

Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?

Options:

A.

Facilitator - Fixes defects in the work product under review

B.

Scribe - Collates potential defects found during the individual review activity

C.

Review Leader - Creates the work product under review

D.

Author - Identify potential defects in the work product under review

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Questions 24

While repotting a defect, which attribute indicates the degree of impact that the defect has on the system?

Options:

A.

Priority

B.

Severity

C.

Status

D.

Description

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Questions 25

Which type of software development product can undergo static testing?

Options:

A.

Any software development product can undergo static testing, including requirements specifications, design specifications and code.

B.

Static tests should be performed on the installation and user guide documents as these documents are used by the end user.

C.

Static testing is done only on the code as part of the "code review" sessions Other documents are reviewed, but not by static testing.

D.

Static testing is done only on the requirements You need to execute the software in order to find defects in the code.

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Questions 26

Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:

Options:

A.

Planning the review

B.

Determines if the review objectives have been met

C.

Decide on the execution of reviews

D.

Allocate time for review

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Questions 27

Which of the following would be LEAST appropriate as part of an incident report covering the observation of a failure during testing?

Options:

A.

SOL injection into the username entry field allowed a variety of SQL commands to be executed by the application without the appropriate authority.

B.

The user interface was complicated and confusing and I found It quite difficult to follow

the test script.

C.

The updates made as part of the add new member' function did not reflect the expected change as the name was written into the address field.

D.

The expected result for the ‘list friends' response time was less than 10 seconds, whereas the average response time obtained was 13 seconds.

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Questions 28

A company runs a pilot project for evaluation of a test automation tool. Which of the following is NOT a valid object of this pilot project?

Options:

A.

Get familiar with the functionality and options of the tool

B.

Check haw the tool fits to the existing test processes

C.

Train all testers on using the tool

D.

Decide upon standards for tool implementation

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Questions 29

Which of the following project scenario gives the BEST example where maintenance testing should be triggered?

Options:

A.

Completion of architecture of the bank system

B.

Release of the early draft of the low level project design of an loT application

C.

Defect was found in a pre-released version of the customer service application

D.

Delivery of the hot fix to mobile operating system and ensuring that it still works

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Questions 30

Which of the following statements about test reports are TRUE?

I Test reports shall be approved by the test team.

II. Test reports shall give stakeholders information as basis for decisions.

Ill Test reports shall summarize what happened through a period of testing.

IV. Test reports shall be approved by the development team, the test team and the customer

V. Test reports shall include information about remaining risks.

Options:

A.

II, III, V

B.

I, II, IV

C.

I, III, v

D.

II, III, IV

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Questions 31

A Static analysis tool analyzes a given program's CONTROL FLOW among other things. Which of the following options represents the most likely outcome of the control flow analysis:

Options:

A.

Identification of unreachable code

B.

Report on adherence to the coding standards

C.

Number of comment lines

D.

Number of source code lines

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Questions 32

Which of the following is a typical product risk?

Options:

A.

Poor usability of the software

B.

A problem in the code developed by a 3rd party

C.

Low quality of the configuration data, test data and tests

D.

Problem in defining the right requirements

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Questions 33

In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9

Options:

A.

Test design specification

B.

Project plan

C.

Requirements specification

D.

Test plan

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Questions 34

Which of the following statements describes regression testing?

I. Retesting of a fixed defect

II. Testing of an already tested program

III. Testing of new functionality in a program

IV. Regression testing applies only to functional testing

V Tests that do not nave to be repeatable, because They are only used once

Options:

A.

II, IV, V

B.

I, III, IV

C.

II

D.

I, IV

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Questions 35

Which of the following tools is most likely to detect defects in functions or methods in source code?

Options:

A.

configuration management tool

B.

unit test framework tool

C.

test design tool

D.

monitoring tool

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Questions 36

Which of the following exemplifies how a software bug can cause harm to a company?

Options:

A.

"Print" prints the last page twice for a file with 1000 pages

B.

The timeout on the login page of a web site is 9 minutes, while the requirement was for 10 minutes

C.

When uninstalling the application, the uninstall dialog has a spelling mistake

D.

When calculating the final price in a shopping list, the price of the last item is not added

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Questions 37

The four test levels used in ISTQB syllabus are:

1. Component (unit) testing

2. Integration testing

3. System testing

4. Acceptance testing

An organization wants to do away with integration testing but otherwise follow V-model. Which of the following statements is correct?

Options:

A.

It is allowed as organizations can decide on men test levels to do depending on the context of the system under test

B.

It is allowed because integration testing is not an important test level arc! can be dispensed with.

C.

It is not allowed because integration testing is a very important test level and ignoring i: means definite poor product quality

D.

It is not allowed as organizations can't change the test levels as these are chosen on the basis of the SDLC (software development life cycle) model

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Questions 38

A mid-size software product development company has analyzed data related to defects detected in its product and found out that detects fixed in earlier builds are getting re-opened after a few months.

The company management now seeks your advice in order to reverse this trend and prevent re-opening of defects fixed earlier.

What would be your FIRST recommendation to the company?

Options:

A.

Automate existing test suits so that lesser time is spent on execution of each test, and more tests can be executed m the available time thus leading to a lower probability of defects slipping by

B.

Verify existing regression test suite are adequate, and augment it, if required, in order to ensure that defects fixed earlier get re-tested in each subsequent build

C.

Analyze the product modules containing maximum defects, and get them thoroughly tested and defects fixed as a one-time activity

D.

If required, tram the teams responsible for development and testing of the modules containing maximum number of defects, and if this does not help, replace them with more knowledgeable people

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Questions 39

ST is a Software Testing organization which utilizes a testing knowledge base. Access to ST knowledge base can be either full or limited. Access level is determined based on ST certification and testing experience as follows:

1. If ST certified, with less than 5 years testing experience - allow limited access

2. If ST certified, 5-10 years of testing experience - allow full access

3. If not ST certified with 5-10 years of testing experience - allow limited access.

What would be the results for:

A - ST certified. 12 years of testing experience

B - Not ST certified. 7 years of testing experience

C - Not ST certified. 3 years of testing experience

Options:

A.

A - unknown

B - limned access

C- unknown

B.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - unknown

C.

A - full access

B - limited access

C - limited access

D.

A - unknown

B - full access

C - unknown

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Questions 40

Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

Options:

A.

Test cases are made up of input values, expected results and actual results developed to cover test objectives

B.

Test cases describe items or events to test that are derived from the test basis during the test analysis activity

C.

Test cases are sequences of actions for test execution specified during the test implementation activity D. Test cases are derived during the test design activity to cover test objectives or test conditions

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Questions 41

Which of the following definitions is NOT true?

Options:

A.

Test data preparation tools fill databases, create files or data transmissions to set up test data to be used during the execution of tests.

B.

Test execution tools execute test objects using automated test scripts.

C.

Test Management tools monitor and report on how a system behaves during the testing activities.

D.

Test comparators determine differences between files, databases or test results.

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Questions 42

When should component integration tests be carried out?

Options:

A.

Integration tests should always be done after system tests

B.

Integration tests should be done at the customer's site, after acceptance tests

C.

Integration tests can be done before or after system tests

D.

Integration tests should always be done before system tests

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Questions 43

A software system checks age in order to determine which welcome screen to display. Age groups are:

Group I: 0-12

Group II; 13-18

Group III: over 18

Which of the below represent boundary values?

Options:

A.

(-1.0.12.13.18,19)

B.

(-1.0,11.12.13,14,18.19)

C.

(0.12.13.18.19)

D.

(4.5.15.20)

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Questions 44

During component testing of a program if 100% decision coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria is also guaranteed to be 100%?

Options:

A.

100% Stale transition coverage

B.

100% Equivalence class coverage

C.

100% Boundary value coverage

D.

100% Statement coverage

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Questions 45

The following open incident report provided:

Date: 01.01.01

Description: When pressing the stop button the application status remain in "Attention" instead of "Ready'.

Severity: High

Life Cycle: Integration

Which of the following details are missing in the giving incident report?

I. Identification or configuration of the application

II. The name of the developer

III. Recommendation of the developer

IV The actions and/or conditions that came before the pressing of the button

Options:

A.

IV

B.

I. IV

C.

I. II

D.

II, III

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Questions 46

For a mandatory input field "ZIP code" the following rules are given:

1 - The valid ZIP code format is 5 numeric digits.

2 - The code has to exist in the post office's official ZIP code list

Using equivalence classes partitioning, how many test cases are required to test this field?

Options:

A.

8

B.

3

C.

6

D.

4

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Questions 47

Which of the following statements is an example of testing contributing to higher quality?

Options:

A.

A test leader writes a test summary report

B.

A project manager asks to a test leader to estimate the test effort

C.

A tester installs a test ten in the lest environment

D.

A tester finds a bug which is resolved prior to release

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Questions 48

Which of the following is true about Oracles?

Options:

A.

Sometimes old version of a product can be used as an Oracle

B.

Oracles help in reproducing the irreproducible bugs

C.

Oracles are derived from the design

D.

Oracles can be generated automatically using data generators

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Questions 49

A program is used to control a manufacturing line (turn machines on and off. start and stop conveyer belts, add raw materials to the flow. etc.). Not all actions are possible at all times. For example, there are certain manufacturing stages that cannot be stopped - unless there is an emergency. A tester attempts to evaluate if all such cases (where a specific action is not allowed) are covered by the tests.

Which coverage metric will provide the needed information for this analysis?

Options:

A.

Code coverage

B.

Data flow coverage

C.

Statement coverage

D.

Branch Coverage

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Questions 50

Why is it important to select a test technique?

Options:

A.

There are usually loo many test cases that may be run on a system. Test techniques help reduce the number of tests.

B.

The only way to test a software application is by using well proven test techniques.

C.

Selecting the right test technique in a given situation Increases the effectiveness of the test process Oy creating tests with higher chance of finding bugs.

D.

Test techniques define the number of regression cycles, which in turn impact the project schedule.

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Questions 51

Which of the following is the BEST reason for selecting a particular type of software development lifecycle model?

Options:

A.

The project manager's preference

B.

Tester skill level with the software development lifecycle model

C.

The project team's overall familiarity with the model

D.

The type of product being developed

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Exam Code: ISTQB-CTFL
Exam Name: ISTQB-Foundation Level Exam
Last Update: May 19, 2024
Questions: 170
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