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200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Syslog collecting software is installed on the server For the log containment, a disk with FAT type partition is used An engineer determined that log files are being corrupted when the 4 GB tile size is exceeded. Which action resolves the issue?

Options:

A.

Add space to the existing partition and lower the retention penod.

B.

Use FAT32 to exceed the limit of 4 GB.

C.

Use the Ext4 partition because it can hold files up to 16 TB.

D.

Use NTFS partition for log file containment

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Questions 5

According to the September 2020 threat intelligence feeds a new malware called Egregor was introduced and used in many attacks. Distnbution of Egregor is pnmanly through a Cobalt Strike that has been installed on victim's workstations using RDP exploits Malware exfiltrates the victim's data to a command and control server. The data is used to force victims pay or lose it by publicly releasing it. Which type of attack is described?

Options:

A.

malware attack

B.

ransomware attack

C.

whale-phishing

D.

insider threat

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Questions 6

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of attack is being executed?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

cross-site scripting

C.

cross-site request forgery

D.

command injection

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Questions 7

An engineer needs to have visibility on TCP bandwidth usage, response time, and latency, combined with deep packet inspection to identify unknown software by its network traffic flow. Which two features of Cisco Application Visibility and Control should the engineer use to accomplish this goal? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

management and reporting

B.

traffic filtering

C.

adaptive AVC

D.

metrics collection and exporting

E.

application recognition

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Questions 8

Refer to the exhibit.

Which technology generates this log?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

IDS

C.

web proxy

D.

firewall

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Questions 9

Which open-sourced packet capture tool uses Linux and Mac OS X operating systems?

Options:

A.

NetScout

B.

tcpdump

C.

SolarWinds

D.

netsh

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Questions 10

What is a difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

Options:

A.

Tampered images have the same stored and computed hash.

B.

Untampered images are deliberately altered to preserve as evidence.

C.

Tampered images are used as evidence.

D.

Untampered images are used for forensic investigations.

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Questions 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Which field contains DNS header information if the payload is a query or a response?

Options:

A.

Z

B.

ID

C.

TC

D.

QR

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Questions 12

What is an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations

B.

an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements

C.

an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration of operational services

D.

an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations

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Questions 13

What ate two categories of DDoS attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

split brain

B.

scanning

C.

phishing

D.

reflected

E.

direct

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Questions 14

Refer to the exhibit.

What does this Cuckoo sandbox report indicate?

Options:

A.

The file is spyware.

B.

The file will open unsecure ports when executed.

C.

The file will open a command interpreter when executed.

D.

The file is ransomware.

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit. Where is the executable file?

Options:

A.

info

B.

tags

C.

MIME

D.

name

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Questions 16

Refer to the exhibit.

A company's user HTTP connection to a malicious site was blocked according to configured policy What is the source technology used for this measure'?

Options:

A.

network application control

B.

firewall

C.

IPS

D.

web proxy

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Questions 17

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the potential threat identified in this Stealthwatch dashboard?

Options:

A.

Host 10.201.3.149 is sending data to 152.46.6.91 using TCP/443.

B.

Host 152.46.6.91 is being identified as a watchlist country for data transfer.

C.

Traffic to 152.46.6.149 is being denied by an Advanced Network Control policy.

D.

Host 10.201.3.149 is receiving almost 19 times more data than is being sent to host 152.46.6.91.

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Questions 18

An engineer received a flood of phishing emails from HR with the source address HRjacobm@companycom. What is the threat actor in this scenario?

Options:

A.

phishing email

B.

sender

C.

HR

D.

receiver

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Questions 19

A security engineer notices confidential data being exfiltrated to a domain "Ranso4134-mware31-895" address that is attributed to a known advanced persistent threat group The engineer discovers that the activity is part of a real attack and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Cyber Kill Chain?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

delivery

C.

action on objectives

D.

weaponization

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Questions 20

How does certificate authority impact a security system?

Options:

A.

It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

B.

It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate

D.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server

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Questions 21

A security engineer deploys an enterprise-wide host/endpoint technology for all of the company's corporate PCs. Management requests the engineer to block a selected set of applications on all PCs.

Which technology should be used to accomplish this task?

Options:

A.

application whitelisting/blacklisting

B.

network NGFW

C.

host-based IDS

D.

antivirus/antispyware software

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Questions 22

Which metric in CVSS indicates an attack that takes a destination bank account number and replaces it with a different bank account number?

Options:

A.

availability

B.

confidentiality

C.

scope

D.

integrity

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Questions 23

A system administrator is ensuring that specific registry information is accurate.

Which type of configuration information does the HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE hive contain?

Options:

A.

file extension associations

B.

hardware, software, and security settings for the system

C.

currently logged in users, including folders and control panel settings

D.

all users on the system, including visual settings

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Questions 24

A network engineer noticed in the NetFlow report that internal hosts are sending many DNS requests to external DNS servers A SOC analyst checked the endpoints and discovered that they are infected and became part of the botnet Endpoints are sending multiple DNS requests but with spoofed IP addresses of valid external sources What kind of attack are infected endpoints involved in1?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

DNS flooding

D.

DNS amplification

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Questions 25

Which type of attack occurs when an attacker is successful in eavesdropping on a conversation between two IP phones?

Options:

A.

known-plaintext

B.

replay

C.

dictionary

D.

man-in-the-middle

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Questions 26

Refer to the exhibit.

A security analyst is investigating unusual activity from an unknown IP address Which type of evidence is this file1?

Options:

A.

indirect evidence

B.

best evidence

C.

corroborative evidence

D.

direct evidence

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Questions 27

According to CVSS, what is a description of the attack vector score?

Options:

A.

The metric score will be larger when it is easier to physically touch or manipulate the vulnerable component

B.

It depends on how many physical and logical manipulations are possible on a vulnerable component

C.

The metric score will be larger when a remote attack is more likely.

D.

It depends on how far away the attacker is located and the vulnerable component

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Questions 28

Which regular expression is needed to capture the IP address 192.168.20.232?

Options:

A.

^ (?:[0-9]{1,3}\.){3}[0-9]{1,3}

B.

^ (?:[0-9]f1,3}\.){1,4}

C.

^ (?:[0-9]{1,3}\.)'

D.

^ ([0-9]-{3})

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Questions 29

What are two differences between tampered disk images and untampered disk images'? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Tampered Images are used in a security investigation process

B.

Untampered images can be used as law enforcement evidence.

C.

The image is untampered if the existing stored hash matches the computed one

D.

The image is tampered if the stored hash and the computed hash are identical

E.

Tampered images are used as an element for the root cause analysis report

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Questions 30

What is a benefit of agent-based protection when compared to agentless protection?

Options:

A.

It lowers maintenance costs

B.

It provides a centralized platform

C.

It collects and detects all traffic locally

D.

It manages numerous devices simultaneously

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Questions 31

What is the virtual address space for a Windows process?

Options:

A.

physical location of an object in memory

B.

set of pages that reside in the physical memory

C.

system-level memory protection feature built into the operating system

D.

set of virtual memory addresses that can be used

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Questions 32

An engineer discovered a breach, identified the threat’s entry point, and removed access. The engineer was able to identify the host, the IP address of the threat actor, and the application the threat actor targeted. What is the next step the engineer should take according to the NIST SP 800-61 Incident handling guide?

Options:

A.

Recover from the threat.

B.

Analyze the threat.

C.

Identify lessons learned from the threat.

D.

Reduce the probability of similar threats.

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Questions 33

How does an attacker observe network traffic exchanged between two users?

Options:

A.

port scanning

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

command injection

D.

denial of service

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Questions 34

A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious. In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is this event?

Options:

A.

Vaporization

B.

Delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

Action on objectives

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Questions 35

Drag and drop the elements from the left into the correct order for incident handling on the right.

Options:

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Questions 36

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer received a ticket about a slowed-down web application. The engineer runs the #netstat -an command. How must the engineer interpret the results?

Options:

A.

The web application is receiving a common, legitimate traffic

B.

The engineer must gather more data.

C.

The web application server is under a denial-of-service attack.

D.

The server is under a man-in-the-middle attack between the web application and its database

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Questions 37

A security engineer notices confidential data being exfiltrated to a domain "Ranso4134-mware31-895" address that is attributed to a known advanced persistent threat group The engineer discovers that the activity is part of a real attack and not a network misconfiguration. Which category does this event fall under as defined in the Cyber Kill Chain?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

delivery

C.

action on objectives

D.

weaponization

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Questions 38

At a company party a guest asks questions about the company’s user account format and password complexity. How is this type of conversation classified?

Options:

A.

Phishing attack

B.

Password Revelation Strategy

C.

Piggybacking

D.

Social Engineering

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Questions 39

A company receptionist received a threatening call referencing stealing assets and did not take any action assuming it was a social engineering attempt. Within 48 hours, multiple assets were breached, affecting the confidentiality of sensitive information. What is the threat actor in this incident?

Options:

A.

company assets that are threatened

B.

customer assets that are threatened

C.

perpetrators of the attack

D.

victims of the attack

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Questions 40

Which regex matches only on all lowercase letters?

Options:

A.

[a−z]+

B.

[^a−z]+

C.

a−z+

D.

a*z+

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Questions 41

Which attack represents the evasion technique of resource exhaustion?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

bluesnarfing

D.

denial-of-service

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Questions 42

Which of these is a defense-in-depth strategy principle?

Options:

A.

identify the minimum resource required per employee.

B.

Assign the least network privileges to segment network permissions.

C.

Provide the minimum permissions needed to perform Job functions.

D.

Disable administrative accounts to avoid unauthorized changes.

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Questions 43

What is the purpose of command and control for network-aware malware?

Options:

A.

It contacts a remote server for commands and updates

B.

It takes over the user account for analysis

C.

It controls and shuts down services on the infected host.

D.

It helps the malware to profile the host

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Questions 44

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

ARP flood

B.

DNS amplification

C.

ARP poisoning

D.

DNS tunneling

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Questions 45

Which element is included in an incident response plan as stated m NIST SP800-617

Options:

A.

security of sensitive information

B.

individual approach to incident response

C.

approval of senior management

D.

consistent threat identification

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Questions 46

An analyst is exploring the functionality of different operating systems.

What is a feature of Windows Management Instrumentation that must be considered when deciding on an operating system?

Options:

A.

queries Linux devices that have Microsoft Services for Linux installed

B.

deploys Windows Operating Systems in an automated fashion

C.

is an efficient tool for working with Active Directory

D.

has a Common Information Model, which describes installed hardware and software

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Questions 47

An engineer configured regular expression “.”\.(pd][Oo][Cc)|[Xx][LI][Ss]|[Pp][Pp][Tt]) HTTP/1 .[01]" on Cisco ASA firewall. What does this regular expression do?

Options:

A.

It captures documents in an HTTP network session.

B.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .pdf files in HTTP v1.0 and v1.1.

C.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .ppt files extensions in HTTP v1.0.

D.

It captures Word, Excel, and PowerPoint files in HTTPv1.0 and v1.1.

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Questions 48

Which security principle requires more than one person is required to perform a critical task?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

need to know

C.

separation of duties

D.

due diligence

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Questions 49

In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric?

Options:

A.

code signing enforcement

B.

full assets scan

C.

internet exposed devices

D.

single factor authentication

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Questions 50

An engineer must compare NIST vs ISO frameworks The engineer deeded to compare as readable documentation and also to watch a comparison video review. Using Windows 10 OS. the engineer started a browser and searched for a NIST document and then opened a new tab in the same browser and searched for an ISO document for comparison

The engineer tried to watch the video, but there 'was an audio problem with OS so the engineer had to troubleshoot it At first the engineer started CMD and looked fee a driver path then locked for a corresponding registry in the registry editor The engineer enabled "Audiosrv" in task manager and put it on auto start and the problem was solved Which two components of the OS did the engineer touch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

permissions

B.

PowerShell logs

C.

service

D.

MBR

E.

process and thread

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Questions 51

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a sum of possible malicious entry points, and a risk represents the possibility of the unauthorized entry itself.

B.

A risk is a potential threat that an exploit applies to, and a vulnerability represents the threat itself

C.

A vulnerability represents a flaw in a security that can be exploited, and the risk is the potential damage it might cause.

D.

A risk is potential threat that adversaries use to infiltrate the network, and a vulnerability is an exploit

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Questions 52

What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?

Options:

A.

cause of an attack

B.

exploit of an attack

C.

vulnerabilities exploited

D.

threat actors of an attack

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Questions 53

A SOC analyst is investigating an incident that involves a Linux system that is identifying specific sessions. Which identifier tracks an active program?

Options:

A.

application identification number

B.

active process identification number

C.

runtime identification number

D.

process identification number

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Questions 54

Refer to the exhibit. An attacker scanned the server using Nmap. What did the attacker obtain from this scan?

Options:

A.

Identified a firewall device preventing the pert state from being returned.

B.

Identified open SMB ports on the server

C.

Gathered information on processes running on the server

D.

Gathered a list of Active Directory users

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Questions 55

A SOC analyst detected connections to known C&C and port scanning activity to main HR database servers from one of the HR endpoints via Cisco StealthWatch. What are the two next steps of the SOC team according to the NISTSP800-61 incident handling process? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Isolate affected endpoints and take disk images for analysis

B.

Provide security awareness training to HR managers and employees

C.

Block connection to this C&C server on the perimeter next-generation firewall

D.

Update antivirus signature databases on affected endpoints to block connections to C&C

E.

Detect the attack vector and analyze C&C connections

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Questions 56

How does an SSL certificate impact security between the client and the server?

Options:

A.

by enabling an authenticated channel between the client and the server

B.

by creating an integrated channel between the client and the server

C.

by enabling an authorized channel between the client and the server

D.

by creating an encrypted channel between the client and the server

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Questions 57

A user reports difficulties accessing certain external web pages. When an engineer examines traffic to and from the external domain in full packet captures, they notice that many SYNs have the same sequence number, source, and destination IP address, but they have different payloads. What is causing this situation?

Options:

A.

TCP injection

B.

misconfiguration of a web filter

C.

Failure of the full packet capture solution

D.

insufficient network resources

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Questions 58

Which type of attack is a blank email with the subject "price deduction" that contains a malicious attachment?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle attack

B.

smishing

C.

phishing attack

D.

integrity violation

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Questions 59

Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investigate a security breach?

Options:

A.

It captures the TCP flags set within each packet for the engineer to focus on suspicious packets to identify malicious activity

B.

It collects metadata for the engineer to analyze, including IP traffic packet data that is sorted, parsed, and indexed.

C.

It provides the full TCP streams for the engineer to follow the metadata to identify the incoming threat.

D.

It reconstructs the event allowing the engineer to identify the root cause by seeing what took place during the breach

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Questions 60

What is the difference between inline traffic interrogation (TAPS) and traffic mirroring (SPAN)?

Options:

A.

TAPS interrogation is more complex because traffic mirroring applies additional tags to data and SPAN does not alter integrity and provides full duplex network.

B.

SPAN results in more efficient traffic analysis, and TAPS is considerably slower due to latency caused by mirroring.

C.

TAPS replicates the traffic to preserve integrity, and SPAN modifies packets before sending them to other analysis tools

D.

SPAN ports filter out physical layer errors, making some types of analyses more difficult, and TAPS receives all packets, including physical errors.

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Questions 61

Which metric should be used when evaluating the effectiveness and scope of a Security Operations Center?

Options:

A.

The average time the SOC takes to register and assign the incident.

B.

The total incident escalations per week.

C.

The average time the SOC takes to detect and resolve the incident.

D.

The total incident escalations per month.

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Questions 62

Which type of verification consists of using tools to compute the message digest of the original and copied data, then comparing the similarity of the digests?

Options:

A.

evidence collection order

B.

data integrity

C.

data preservation

D.

volatile data collection

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Questions 63

Which type of data consists of connection level, application-specific records generated from network traffic?

Options:

A.

transaction data

B.

location data

C.

statistical data

D.

alert data

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Questions 64

What is the difference between indicator of attack (loA) and indicators of compromise (loC)?

Options:

A.

loA is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loC allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

B.

loA refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loC refers to the resulting loss.

C.

loC is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loA allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

D.

loC refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loA refers to the resulting loss.

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Questions 65

During which phase of the forensic process are tools and techniques used to extract information from the collected data?

Options:

A.

investigation

B.

examination

C.

reporting

D.

collection

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Questions 66

Which evasion technique is a function of ransomware?

Options:

A.

extended sleep calls

B.

encryption

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

encoding

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Questions 67

Drag and drop the event term from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

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Questions 68

What is the difference between discretionary access control (DAC) and role-based access control (RBAC)?

Options:

A.

DAC requires explicit authorization for a given user on a given object, and RBAC requires specific conditions.

B.

RBAC access is granted when a user meets specific conditions, and in DAC, permissions are applied on user and group levels.

C.

RBAC is an extended version of DAC where you can add an extra level of authorization based on time.

D.

DAC administrators pass privileges to users and groups, and in RBAC, permissions are applied to specific groups

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Questions 69

What is the principle of defense-in-depth?

Options:

A.

Agentless and agent-based protection for security are used.

B.

Several distinct protective layers are involved.

C.

Access control models are involved.

D.

Authentication, authorization, and accounting mechanisms are used.

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Questions 70

An analyst is investigating a host in the network that appears to be communicating to a command and control server on the Internet. After collecting this packet capture, the analyst cannot determine the technique and payload used for the communication.

Which obfuscation technique is the attacker using?

Options:

A.

Base64 encoding

B.

TLS encryption

C.

SHA-256 hashing

D.

ROT13 encryption

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Questions 71

Which action matches the weaponization step of the Cyber Kill Chain model?

Options:

A.

Scan a host to find open ports and vulnerabilities

B.

Construct the appropriate malware and deliver it to the victim.

C.

Test and construct the appropriate malware to launch the attack

D.

Research data on a specific vulnerability

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Questions 72

What do host-based firewalls protect workstations from?

Options:

A.

zero-day vulnerabilities

B.

unwanted traffic

C.

malicious web scripts

D.

viruses

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Questions 73

How low does rule-based detection differ from behavioral detection?

Options:

A.

Behavioral systems find sequences that match particular attach behaviors, and rule-based systems identify potential zero-day attacks.

B.

Rule-based systems search for patterns linked to specific types of attacks, and behavioral systems Identify attacks per signature.

C.

Behavioral systems have patterns are for complex environments, and rule-based systems can be used on low-mid-sized businesses.

D.

Rule-based systems have predefined patterns, and behavioral systems learn the patterns that are specific to the environment.

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Questions 74

Refer to the exhibit.

This request was sent to a web application server driven by a database. Which type of web server attack is represented?

Options:

A.

parameter manipulation

B.

heap memory corruption

C.

command injection

D.

blind SQL injection

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Questions 75

What are two social engineering techniques? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

privilege escalation

B.

DDoS attack

C.

phishing

D.

man-in-the-middle

E.

pharming

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Questions 76

According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

swap files

B.

temporary files

C.

login sessions

D.

dump files

E.

free space

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Questions 77

A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs?

Options:

A.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name

B.

protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port

C.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and username

D.

protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name

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Questions 78

What is an attack surface as compared to a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

any potential danger to an asset

B.

the sum of all paths for data into and out of the environment

C.

an exploitable weakness in a system or its design

D.

the individuals who perform an attack

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Questions 79

An analyst is investigating an incident in a SOC environment. Which method is used to identify a session from a group of logs?

Options:

A.

sequence numbers

B.

IP identifier

C.

5-tuple

D.

timestamps

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Questions 80

Refer to the exhibit.

Which packet contains a file that is extractable within Wireshark?

Options:

A.

2317

B.

1986

C.

2318

D.

2542

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Questions 81

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

Options:

A.

The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B.

The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C.

The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D.

The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

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Questions 82

Drag and drop the security concept from the left onto the example of that concept on the right.

Options:

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Questions 83

An organization has recently adjusted its security stance in response to online threats made by a known hacktivist group.

What is the initial event called in the NIST SP800-61?

Options:

A.

online assault

B.

precursor

C.

trigger

D.

instigator

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Questions 84

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

Options:

A.

A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent the communication between sandboxes.

B.

A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C.

A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D.

A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

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Questions 85

Why is HTTPS traffic difficult to screen?

Options:

A.

HTTPS is used internally and screening traffic (or external parties is hard due to isolation.

B.

The communication is encrypted and the data in transit is secured.

C.

Digital certificates secure the session, and the data is sent at random intervals.

D.

Traffic is tunneled to a specific destination and is inaccessible to others except for the receiver.

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Questions 86

Refer to the exhibit.

Which kind of attack method is depicted in this string?

Options:

A.

cross-site scripting

B.

man-in-the-middle

C.

SQL injection

D.

denial of service

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Questions 87

Which regular expression matches "color" and "colour"?

Options:

A.

colo?ur

B.

col[0−8]+our

C.

colou?r

D.

col[0−9]+our

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Questions 88

An engineer needs to discover alive hosts within the 192.168.1.0/24 range without triggering intrusive portscan alerts on the IDS device using Nmap. Which command will accomplish this goal?

Options:

A.

nmap --top-ports 192.168.1.0/24

B.

nmap –sP 192.168.1.0/24

C.

nmap -sL 192.168.1.0/24

D.

nmap -sV 192.168.1.0/24

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Questions 89

Refer to the exhibit.

An attacker gained initial access to the company s network and ran an Nmap scan to advance with the lateral movement technique and to search the sensitive data Which two elements can an attacker identify from the scan? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

workload and the configuration details

B.

user accounts and SID

C.

number of users and requests that the server is handling

D.

functionality and purpose of the server

E.

running services

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Questions 90

A security engineer has a video of a suspect entering a data center that was captured on the same day that files in the same data center were transferred to a competitor.

Which type of evidence is this?

Options:

A.

best evidence

B.

prima facie evidence

C.

indirect evidence

D.

physical evidence

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Questions 91

Which type of attack uses a botnet to reflect requests off of an NTP server to overwhelm a target?

Options:

A.

Display

B.

Man-in-the-middle

C.

Distributed denial of service

D.

Denial of service

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Questions 92

What is the difference between deep packet inspection and stateful inspection?

Options:

A.

Deep packet inspection is more secure than stateful inspection on Layer 4

B.

Stateful inspection verifies contents at Layer 4 and deep packet inspection verifies connection at Layer 7

C.

Stateful inspection is more secure than deep packet inspection on Layer 7

D.

Deep packet inspection allows visibility on Layer 7 and stateful inspection allows visibility on Layer 4

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Questions 93

What is rule-based detection when compared to statistical detection?

Options:

A.

proof of a user's identity

B.

proof of a user's action

C.

likelihood of user's action

D.

falsification of a user's identity

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Questions 94

Drag and drop the type of evidence from the left onto the description of that evidence on the right.

Options:

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Questions 95

Refer to the exhibit.

Which application protocol is in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.

SSH

B.

TCP

C.

TLS

D.

HTTP

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Questions 96

Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

context

B.

session

C.

laptop

D.

firewall logs

E.

threat actor

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Questions 97

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

B.

True positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

C.

False positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, resulting in a potential breach.

D.

False positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks affecting application availability.

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Questions 98

Which type of data must an engineer capture to analyze payload and header information?

Options:

A.

frame check sequence

B.

alert data

C.

full packet

D.

session logs

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Questions 99

Which process is used when IPS events are removed to improve data integrity?

Options:

A.

data availability

B.

data normalization

C.

data signature

D.

data protection

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Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Last Update: Jun 15, 2025
Questions: 375
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