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200-201 Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

During which phase of the forensic process is data that is related to a specific event labeled and recorded to preserve its integrity?

Options:

A.

examination

B.

investigation

C.

collection

D.

reporting

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Questions 5

According to the NIST SP 800-86. which two types of data are considered volatile? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

swap files

B.

temporary files

C.

login sessions

D.

dump files

E.

free space

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Questions 6

A threat actor penetrated an organization's network. Using the 5-tuple approach, which data points should the analyst use to isolate the compromised host in a grouped set of logs?

Options:

A.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and host name

B.

protocol, source IP, source port, destination IP, and destination port

C.

event name, log source, time, source IP, and username

D.

protocol, log source, source IP, destination IP, and host name

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Questions 7

What describes the defense-m-depth principle?

Options:

A.

defining precise guidelines for new workstation installations

B.

categorizing critical assets within the organization

C.

isolating guest Wi-Fi from the focal network

D.

implementing alerts for unexpected asset malfunctions

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Questions 8

What is the practice of giving employees only those permissions necessary to perform their specific role within an organization?

Options:

A.

least privilege

B.

need to know

C.

integrity validation

D.

due diligence

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Questions 9

How is attacking a vulnerability categorized?

Options:

A.

action on objectives

B.

delivery

C.

exploitation

D.

installation

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Questions 10

Which two elements are assets in the role of attribution in an investigation? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

context

B.

session

C.

laptop

D.

firewall logs

E.

threat actor

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Questions 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Which field contains DNS header information if the payload is a query or a response?

Options:

A.

Z

B.

ID

C.

TC

D.

QR

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Questions 12

Which action should be taken if the system is overwhelmed with alerts when false positives and false negatives are compared?

Options:

A.

Modify the settings of the intrusion detection system.

B.

Design criteria for reviewing alerts.

C.

Redefine signature rules.

D.

Adjust the alerts schedule.

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Questions 13

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer received a ticket to analyze unusual network traffic. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

denial-of-service attack

B.

data exfiltration

C.

regular network traffic; no suspicious activity

D.

cookie poisoning

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Questions 14

What is the difference between discretionary access control (DAC) and role-based access control (RBAC)?

Options:

A.

DAC requires explicit authorization for a given user on a given object, and RBAC requires specific conditions.

B.

RBAC access is granted when a user meets specific conditions, and in DAC, permissions are applied on user and group levels.

C.

RBAC is an extended version of DAC where you can add an extra level of authorization based on time.

D.

DAC administrators pass privileges to users and groups, and in RBAC, permissions are applied to specific groups

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Questions 15

Refer to the exhibit.

What does this output indicate?

Options:

A.

HTTPS ports are open on the server.

B.

SMB ports are closed on the server.

C.

FTP ports are open on the server.

D.

Email ports are closed on the server.

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Questions 16

Refer to the exhibit.

Which stakeholders must be involved when a company workstation is compromised?

Options:

A.

Employee 1 Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5, Employee 7

B.

Employee 1, Employee 2, Employee 4, Employee 5

C.

Employee 4, Employee 6, Employee 7

D.

Employee 2, Employee 3, Employee 4, Employee 5

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Questions 17

What are indicators of attack?

Options:

A.

large numbers of requests for the same file

B.

multiple tog ins from different regions

C.

swells in database read volume

D.

suspicious registry or system file changes

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Questions 18

An engineer must compare NIST vs ISO frameworks The engineer deeded to compare as readable documentation and also to watch a comparison video review. Using Windows 10 OS. the engineer started a browser and searched for a NIST document and then opened a new tab in the same browser and searched for an ISO document for comparison

The engineer tried to watch the video, but there 'was an audio problem with OS so the engineer had to troubleshoot it At first the engineer started CMD and looked fee a driver path then locked for a corresponding registry in the registry editor The engineer enabled "Audiosrv" in task manager and put it on auto start and the problem was solved Which two components of the OS did the engineer touch? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

permissions

B.

PowerShell logs

C.

service

D.

MBR

E.

process and thread

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Questions 19

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is analyzing a PCAP file after a recent breach An engineer identified that the attacker used an aggressive ARP scan to scan the hosts and found web and SSH servers. Further analysis showed several SSH Server Banner and Key Exchange Initiations. The engineer cannot see the exact data being transmitted over an encrypted channel and cannot identify how the attacker gained access How did the attacker gain access?

Options:

A.

by using the buffer overflow in the URL catcher feature for SSH

B.

by using an SSH Tectia Server vulnerability to enable host-based authentication

C.

by using an SSH vulnerability to silently redirect connections to the local host

D.

by using brute force on the SSH service to gain access

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Questions 20

What is a sandbox interprocess communication service?

Options:

A.

A collection of rules within the sandbox that prevent the communication between sandboxes.

B.

A collection of network services that are activated on an interface, allowing for inter-port communication.

C.

A collection of interfaces that allow for coordination of activities among processes.

D.

A collection of host services that allow for communication between sandboxes.

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Questions 21

A network engineer noticed in the NetFlow report that internal hosts are sending many DNS requests to external DNS servers A SOC analyst checked the endpoints and discovered that they are infected and became part of the botnet Endpoints are sending multiple DNS requests but with spoofed IP addresses of valid external sources What kind of attack are infected endpoints involved in1?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

DNS flooding

D.

DNS amplification

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Questions 22

Refer to the exhibit Drag and drop the element names from the left onto the corresponding pieces of the PCAP file on the right.

Options:

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Questions 23

Which difficulty occurs when log messages are compared from two devices separated by a Layer 3 device that performs Network Address Translation?

Options:

A.

IP addresses in the log messages match

B.

Timestamps of the log messages are different.

C.

Log messages contain incorrect information

D.

IP addresses in the log messages do not match

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Questions 24

What makes HTTPS traffic difficult to monitor?

Options:

A.

SSL interception

B.

packet header size

C.

signature detection time

D.

encryption

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Questions 25

Refer to the exhibit. What occurred on this system based on this output?

Options:

A.

A user connected to the system using remote access VPN.

B.

A user created a new HTTP session using the SHA256 hashing algorithm.

C.

A user connected to the system after 450 attempts.

D.

A user connected to the system using SSH using source port 55796.

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Questions 26

A developer is working on a project using a Linux tool that enables writing processes to obtain these required results:

If the process is unsuccessful, a negative value is returned.

If the process is successful, 0 value is returned to the child process, and the process ID is sent to the parent process.

Which component results from this operation?

Options:

A.

parent directory name of a file pathname

B.

process spawn scheduled

C.

macros for managing CPU sets

D.

new process created by parent process

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Questions 27

What describes a buffer overflow attack?

Options:

A.

injecting new commands into existing buffers

B.

fetching data from memory buffer registers

C.

overloading a predefined amount of memory

D.

suppressing the buffers in a process

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Questions 28

A cyberattacker notices a security flaw in a software that a company is using They decide to tailor a specific worm to exploit this flaw and extract saved passwords from the software To which category of the Cyber Kill Cham model does this event belong?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

delivery

C.

weaponization

D.

exploitation

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Questions 29

Drag and drop the technologies from the left onto the data types the technologies provide on the right.

Options:

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Questions 30

What is sliding window anomaly detection?

Options:

A.

Detect changes in operations and management processes.

B.

Identify uncommon patterns that do not fit usual behavior.

C.

Define response times for requests for owned applications.

D.

Apply lowest privilege/permission level to software

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Questions 31

Which event artifact is used to identify HTTP GET requests for a specific file?

Options:

A.

destination IP address

B.

TCP ACK

C.

HTTP status code

D.

URI

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Questions 32

Which two protocols are used for DDoS amplification attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ICMPv6

B.

DNS

C.

NTP

D.

TCP

E.

HTTP

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Questions 33

An automotive company provides new types of engines and special brakes for rally sports cars. The company has a database of inventions and patents for their engines and technical information Customers can access the database through the company's website after they register and identify themselves. Which type of protected data is accessed by customers?

Options:

A.

IP data

B.

PII data

C.

PSI data

D.

PHI data

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Questions 34

What is an incident response plan?

Options:

A.

an organizational approach to events that could lead to asset loss or disruption of operations

B.

an organizational approach to security management to ensure a service lifecycle and continuous improvements

C.

an organizational approach to disaster recovery and timely restoration of operational services

D.

an organizational approach to system backup and data archiving aligned to regulations

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Questions 35

Refer to the exhibit.

An analyst was given a PCAP file, which is associated with a recent intrusion event in the company FTP server Which display filters should the analyst use to filter the FTP traffic?

Options:

A.

dstport == FTP

B.

tcp.port==21

C.

tcpport = FTP

D.

dstport = 21

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Questions 36

Drag and drop the event term from the left onto the description on the right.

Options:

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Questions 37

Which evasion method involves performing actions slower than normal to prevent detection?

Options:

A.

timing attack

B.

traffic fragmentation

C.

resource exhaustion

D.

tunneling

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Questions 38

An analyst received a ticket about degraded processing capability for one of the HR department's servers. On the same day, an engineer noticed disabled antivirus software and could not determine when or why it occurred. According to the NIST Incident Handling Guide, what is the next phase of this investigation?

Options:

A.

Detection

B.

Analysis

C.

Eradication

D.

Recovery

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Questions 39

An engineer configured regular expression “.”\.(pd][Oo][Cc)|[Xx][LI][Ss]|[Pp][Pp][Tt]) HTTP/1 .[01]" on Cisco ASA firewall. What does this regular expression do?

Options:

A.

It captures documents in an HTTP network session.

B.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .pdf files in HTTP v1.0 and v1.1.

C.

It captures .doc, .xls, and .ppt files extensions in HTTP v1.0.

D.

It captures Word, Excel, and PowerPoint files in HTTPv1.0 and v1.1.

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Questions 40

Refer to the exhibit. A SOC analyst is examining the Windows security logs of one of the endpoints. What is the possible reason for this event log?

Options:

A.

Brute force attack

B.

Windows failed to audit logs

C.

Malware Attack

D.

System maintenance logs

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Questions 41

Which two elements of the incident response process are stated in NIST Special Publication 800-61 r2? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

detection and analysis

B.

post-incident activity

C.

vulnerability management

D.

risk assessment

E.

vulnerability scoring

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Questions 42

What is a collection of compromised machines that attackers use to carry out a DDoS attack?

Options:

A.

subnet

B.

botnet

C.

VLAN

D.

command and control

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Questions 43

Refer to the exhibit. An employee received an email from an unknown sender with an attachment and reported it as a phishing attempt. An engineer uploaded the file to Cuckoo for further analysis. What should an engineer interpret from the provided Cuckoo report?

Options:

A.

Win32.polip.a.exe is an executable file and should be flagged as malicious.

B.

The file is clean and does not represent a risk.

C.

Cuckoo cleaned the malicious file and prepared it for usage.

D.

MD5 of the file was not identified as malicious.

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Questions 44

Drag and drop the data sources from the left onto the corresponding data types on the right.

Options:

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Questions 45

Which security model assumes an attacker within and outside of the network and enforces strict verification before connecting to any system or resource within the organization?

Options:

A.

Biba

B.

Object-capability

C.

Take-Grant

D.

Zero Trust

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Questions 46

What does the Zero Trust security model signify?

Options:

A.

Zero Trust security means that no one is trusted by default from inside or outside the network

B.

Zero Trust states that no users should be given enough privileges to misuse the system on their own

C.

Zero Trust addresses access control and states that an individual should have only the minimum access privileges necessary to perform specific tasks

D.

Zero Trust states that unless a subject is given explicit access to an object, it should be denied access to that object

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Questions 47

Which piece of information is needed for attribution in an investigation?

Options:

A.

proxy logs showing the source RFC 1918 IP addresses

B.

RDP allowed from the Internet

C.

known threat actor behavior

D.

802.1x RADIUS authentication pass arid fail logs

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Questions 48

How does agentless monitoring differ from agent-based monitoring?

Options:

A.

Agentless can access the data via API. While agent-base uses a less efficient method and accesses log data through WMI.

B.

Agent-based monitoring is less intrusive in gathering log data, while agentless requires open ports to fetch the logs

C.

Agent-based monitoring has a lower initial cost for deployment, while agentless monitoring requires resource-intensive deployment.

D.

Agent-based has a possibility to locally filter and transmit only valuable data, while agentless has much higher network utilization

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Questions 49

Which element is included in an incident response plan as stated m NIST SP800-617

Options:

A.

security of sensitive information

B.

individual approach to incident response

C.

approval of senior management

D.

consistent threat identification

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Questions 50

Which type of data collection requires the largest amount of storage space?

Options:

A.

alert data

B.

transaction data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

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Questions 51

Which risk approach eliminates activities posing a risk exposure?

Options:

A.

risk acknowledgment

B.

risk avoidance

C.

risk reduction

D.

risk retention

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Questions 52

What describes the public key infrastructure (PKI)?

Options:

A.

PKI verifies the identity of the user and sender and creates secure communication channels using asymmetric encryption.

B.

PKI ensures packet loss prevention and creates secure communication channels using symmetric encryption.

C.

PKI verifies the identity of the user and sender and creates secure communication channels using symmetric encryption.

D.

PKI ensures packet loss prevention and creates secure communication channels using asymmetric encryption.

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Questions 53

Refer to the exhibit.

A workstation downloads a malicious docx file from the Internet and a copy is sent to FTDv. The FTDv sends the file hash to FMC and the tile event is recorded what would have occurred with stronger data visibility.

Options:

A.

The traffic would have been monitored at any segment in the network.

B.

Malicious traffic would have been blocked on multiple devices

C.

An extra level of security would have been in place

D.

Detailed information about the data in real time would have been provided

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Questions 54

What is the purpose of command and control for network-aware malware?

Options:

A.

It contacts a remote server for commands and updates

B.

It takes over the user account for analysis

C.

It controls and shuts down services on the infected host.

D.

It helps the malware to profile the host

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Questions 55

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring within the exhibit?

Options:

A.

regular GET requests

B.

XML External Entities attack

C.

insecure deserialization

D.

cross-site scripting attack

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Questions 56

Refer to the exhibit.

What information is depicted?

Options:

A.

IIS data

B.

NetFlow data

C.

network discovery event

D.

IPS event data

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Questions 57

Refer to the exhibit.

A security analyst wraps up the shift and passed open ticket notes to the night shift SOC team analyst. The ticket name in question is "Investigating suspicious activity on a Windows Server’’. Which operating system components must the analyst prioritize to uncover the attacker's persistence mechanisms?

Options:

A.

Review the Windows Defender setup and failed login attempts in Event Viewer

B.

Investigate the Task Scheduler entries and Windows Defender settings.

C.

Analyze the Windows Registry changes and Task Scheduler tasks.

D.

Focus on the user account log-ins and delete newly added Run keys in the registry

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Questions 58

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of log is displayed?

Options:

A.

proxy

B.

NetFlow

C.

IDS

D.

sys

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Questions 59

Which data capture includes payload and header information?

Options:

A.

frame check sequence

B.

full packet

C.

alert data

D.

session logs

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Questions 60

An analyst received an alert on their desktop computer showing that an attack was successful on the host. After investigating, the analyst discovered that no mitigation action occurred during the attack. What is the reason for this discrepancy?

Options:

A.

The computer has a HIPS installed on it.

B.

The computer has a NIPS installed on it.

C.

The computer has a HIDS installed on it.

D.

The computer has a NIDS installed on it.

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Questions 61

In a SOC environment, what is a vulnerability management metric?

Options:

A.

code signing enforcement

B.

full assets scan

C.

internet exposed devices

D.

single factor authentication

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Questions 62

Drag and drop the technology on the left onto the data type the technology provides on the right.

Options:

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Questions 63

What is the difference between the rule-based detection when compared to behavioral detection?

Options:

A.

Rule-Based detection is searching for patterns linked to specific types of attacks, while behavioral is identifying per signature.

B.

Rule-Based systems have established patterns that do not change with new data, while behavioral changes.

C.

Behavioral systems are predefined patterns from hundreds of users, while Rule-Based only flags potentially abnormal patterns using signatures.

D.

Behavioral systems find sequences that match a particular attack signature, while Rule-Based identifies potential attacks.

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Questions 64

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

ARP flood

B.

DNS amplification

C.

ARP poisoning

D.

DNS tunneling

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Questions 65

Developers must implement tasks on remote Windows environments. They decided to use scripts for enterprise applications through PowerShell. Why does the functionality not work?

Options:

A.

WMI must be configured.

B.

Symlinks must be enabled.

C.

Ext4 must be implemented.

D.

MBR must be set up.

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Questions 66

Which security monitoring data type requires the largest storage space?

Options:

A.

transaction data

B.

statistical data

C.

session data

D.

full packet capture

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Questions 67

An engineer is addressing a connectivity issue between two servers where the remote server is unable to establish a successful session. Initial checks show that the remote server is not receiving an SYN-ACK while establishing a session by sending the first SYN. What is causing this issue?

Options:

A.

incorrect TCP handshake

B.

incorrect UDP handshake

C.

incorrect OSI configuration

D.

incorrect snaplen configuration

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Questions 68

A vulnerability analyst is performing the monthly scan data review Output data is very big and getting bigger each month The analyst decides to create a more efficient process to complete the task on time All false positives and true positives are excluded from the results The remaining findings will be assigned to a technical team for further remediation What is the result of such activity?

Options:

A.

False negatives must also be excluded from the data

B.

Data is filtered property and contains only valid results

C.

Exclusion is not needed and all data must be remediated

D.

Analysis is not performed correctly, and it is missing correct data

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Questions 69

What does cyber attribution identify in an investigation?

Options:

A.

cause of an attack

B.

exploit of an attack

C.

vulnerabilities exploited

D.

threat actors of an attack

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Questions 70

Which statement describes threat hunting?

Options:

A.

It is an activity by an entity to deliberately bring down critical internal servers.

B.

It is a prevention activity to detect signs of intrusion, compromise, data theft, abnormalities, or malicious activity.

C.

It includes any activity that might go after competitors and adversaries to infiltrate their systems.

D.

It is a vulnerability assessment conducted by cyber professionals.

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Questions 71

What matches the regular expression c(rgr)+e?

Options:

A.

crgrrgre

B.

np+e

C.

c(rgr)e

D.

ce

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Questions 72

Refer to the exhibit.

A security analyst is investigating unusual activity from an unknown IP address Which type of evidence is this file1?

Options:

A.

indirect evidence

B.

best evidence

C.

corroborative evidence

D.

direct evidence

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Questions 73

What is the difference between indicator of attack (loA) and indicators of compromise (loC)?

Options:

A.

loA is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loC allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

B.

loA refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loC refers to the resulting loss.

C.

loC is the evidence that a security breach has occurred, and loA allows organizations to act before the vulnerability can be exploited.

D.

loC refers to the individual responsible for the security breach, and loA refers to the resulting loss.

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Questions 74

Which principle is being followed when an analyst gathers information relevant to a security incident to determine the appropriate course of action?

Options:

A.

decision making

B.

rapid response

C.

data mining

D.

due diligence

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Questions 75

What is the name of the technology that searches for and reports on known weaknesses and flaws present in an organization’s IT infrastructure?

Options:

A.

vulnerability scanner

B.

identity and access management

C.

configuration management

D.

mobile device management

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Questions 76

Refer to the exhibit. The figure shows an X 509 certificate. Which field represents the digital cryptographic algorithm used by the issuer to sign the certificate?

Options:

A.

Signature Algorithm

B.

Timestamp

C.

Fingerprints

D.

Log Operator

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Questions 77

Refer to the exhibit.

Which tool was used to generate this data?

Options:

A.

NetFlow

B.

dnstools

C.

firewall

D.

tcpdump

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Questions 78

What is data tunneling?

Options:

A.

Encrypted information is returned to its original format.

B.

Data is split into packets and transported to the destination.

C.

Packets are transformed into bytes and assembled by a receiver.

D.

Malicious data is hidden within legitimate system processes.

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Questions 79

Which signature impacts network traffic by causing legitimate traffic to be blocked?

Options:

A.

false negative

B.

true positive

C.

true negative

D.

false positive

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Questions 80

Which technique is a low-bandwidth attack?

Options:

A.

social engineering

B.

session hijacking

C.

evasion

D.

phishing

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Questions 81

What is the impact of false negative alerts when compared to true negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A true negative is a legitimate attack that triggers a brute force alert, and a false negative is when no alert and no attack is occurring.

B.

A true negative is an alert for an exploit attempt when no attack was detected, and a false negative is when no attack happens and an alert is still raised.

C.

A false negative is an event that alerts for injection attack when no attack is happening, and a true negative is an attack that happens and an alert that is appropriately raised.

D.

A false negative is someone trying to hack into the system and no alert is raised, and a true negative is an event that never happened and an alert was not raised.

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Questions 82

An offline audit log contains the source IP address of a session suspected to have exploited a vulnerability resulting in system compromise.

Which kind of evidence is this IP address?

Options:

A.

best evidence

B.

corroborative evidence

C.

indirect evidence

D.

forensic evidence

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Questions 83

What is the difference between the ACK flag and the RST flag in the NetFlow log session?

Options:

A.

The RST flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the ACK flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

B.

The ACK flag confirms the beginning of the TCP connection, and the RST flag responds when the data for the payload is complete

C.

The RST flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the ACK flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

D.

The ACK flag confirms the receipt of the prior segment, and the RST flag allows for the spontaneous termination of a connection

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Questions 84

Refer to the exhibit.

Which type of attack is being executed?

Options:

A.

SQL injection

B.

cross-site scripting

C.

cross-site request forgery

D.

command injection

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Questions 85

Which two elements are used for profiling a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

session duration

B.

total throughput

C.

running processes

D.

listening ports

E.

OS fingerprint

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Questions 86

Refer to the exhibit.

During the analysis of a suspicious scanning activity incident, an analyst discovered multiple local TCP connection events Which technology provided these logs?

Options:

A.

antivirus

B.

proxy

C.

IDS/IPS

D.

firewall

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Questions 87

What is the difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

MAC is controlled by the discretion of the owner and DAC is controlled by an administrator

B.

MAC is the strictest of all levels of control and DAC is object-based access

C.

DAC is controlled by the operating system and MAC is controlled by an administrator

D.

DAC is the strictest of all levels of control and MAC is object-based access

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Questions 88

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the expected result when the "Allow subdissector to reassemble TCP streams" feature is enabled?

Options:

A.

insert TCP subdissectors

B.

extract a file from a packet capture

C.

disable TCP streams

D.

unfragment TCP

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Questions 89

Which of these describes SOC metrics in relation to security incidents?

Options:

A.

time it takes to detect the incident

B.

time it takes to assess the risks of the incident

C.

probability of outage caused by the incident

D.

probability of compromise and impact caused by the incident

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Questions 90

What is a difference between a threat and a vulnerability?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a risk of unauthorized actions from a threat actor, and a threat is the actions that malicious actors perform for privilege escalation.

B.

A threat is what an engineer is trying to protect an asset against, and a vulnerability is a weakness in an asset that an engineer is trying to mitigate.

C.

A vulnerability is an asset without hardened protection, and a threat is a weakness that is open to attackers due to misconfiguration.

D.

A threat is a weakness in an asset that an engineer is trying to mitigate, and a vulnerability is an existing risk of possible damage or loss of data.

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Questions 91

What describes the concept of data consistently and readily being accessible for legitimate users?

Options:

A.

integrity

B.

availability

C.

accessibility

D.

confidentiality

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Questions 92

How does certificate authority impact a security system?

Options:

A.

It authenticates client identity when requesting SSL certificate

B.

It validates domain identity of a SSL certificate

C.

It authenticates domain identity when requesting SSL certificate

D.

It validates client identity when communicating with the server

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Questions 93

What describes the impact of false-positive alerts compared to false-negative alerts?

Options:

A.

A false negative is alerting for an XSS attack. An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an XSS attack happened A false positive is when an XSS attack happens and no alert is raised

B.

A false negative is a legitimate attack triggering a brute-force alert. An engineer investigates the alert and finds out someone intended to break into the system A false positive is when no alert and no attack is occurring

C.

A false positive is an event alerting for a brute-force attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that a legitimate user entered the wrong credential several times A false negative is when a threat actor tries to brute-force attack a system and no alert is raised.

D.

A false positive is an event alerting for an SQL injection attack An engineer investigates the alert and discovers that an attack attempt was blocked by IPS A false negative is when the attack gets detected but succeeds and results in a breach.

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Questions 94

A security consultant must change the identity access management model fof their organization The new approach will put responsibility on the owner, who will decide whichusers will have access to which resources Which low-cost model must be used for this purpose?

Options:

A.

mandatory access control, due to automate scaling

B.

discretionary access control due to easy maintenance

C.

discretionary access control, due to high security

D.

mandatory access control, due to low granularity

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Questions 95

Which event is user interaction?

Options:

A.

gaining root access

B.

executing remote code

C.

reading and writing file permission

D.

opening a malicious file

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Questions 96

A company encountered a breach on its web servers using IIS 7 5 Dunng the investigation, an engineer discovered that an attacker read and altered the data on a secure communication using TLS 1 2 and intercepted sensitive information by downgrading a connection to export-grade cryptography. The engineer must mitigate similar incidents in the future and ensure that clients and servers always negotiate with the most secure protocol versions and cryptographic parameters. Which action does the engineer recommend?

Options:

A.

Upgrade to TLS v1 3.

B.

Install the latest IIS version.

C.

Downgrade to TLS 1.1.

D.

Deploy an intrusion detection system

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Questions 97

Which type of data must an engineer capture to analyze payload and header information?

Options:

A.

frame check sequence

B.

alert data

C.

full packet

D.

session logs

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Questions 98

What is the key difference between mandatory access control (MAC) and discretionary access control (DAC)?

Options:

A.

DAC is controlled by the OS, and MAC is controlled by the owner of the access list.

B.

DAC is the most strict access control, and MAC is object-based access.

C.

MAC is controlled by the OS, and DAC is controlled by the owner of the access list.

D.

MAC is the most strict access control, and DAC is object-based access.

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Questions 99

Refer to the exhibit.

What is shown in this PCAP file?

Options:

A.

Timestamps are indicated with error.

B.

The protocol is TCP.

C.

The User-Agent is Mozilla/5.0.

D.

The HTTP GET is encoded.

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Questions 100

What are two denial of service attacks? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

MITM

B.

TCP connections

C.

ping of death

D.

UDP flooding

E.

code red

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Questions 101

What does an attacker use to determine which network ports are listening on a potential target device?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle

B.

port scanning

C.

SQL injection

D.

ping sweep

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Questions 102

What is the principle of defense-in-depth?

Options:

A.

Agentless and agent-based protection for security are used.

B.

Several distinct protective layers are involved.

C.

Access control models are involved.

D.

Authentication, authorization, and accounting mechanisms are used.

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Questions 103

Why is HTTPS traffic difficult to screen?

Options:

A.

HTTPS is used internally and screening traffic (or external parties is hard due to isolation.

B.

The communication is encrypted and the data in transit is secured.

C.

Digital certificates secure the session, and the data is sent at random intervals.

D.

Traffic is tunneled to a specific destination and is inaccessible to others except for the receiver.

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Questions 104

What is the impact of false positive alerts on business compared to true positive?

Options:

A.

True positives affect security as no alarm is raised when an attack has taken place, while false positives are alerts raised appropriately to detect and further mitigate them.

B.

True-positive alerts are blocked by mistake as potential attacks, while False-positives are actual attacks Identified as harmless.

C.

False-positive alerts are detected by confusion as potential attacks, while true positives are attack attempts identified appropriately.

D.

False positives alerts are manually ignored signatures to avoid warnings that are already acknowledged, while true positives are warnings that are not yet acknowledged.

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Questions 105

What is the difference between tampered and untampered disk images?

Options:

A.

Untampered images are not secure.

B.

Tampered images are secure.

C.

Untampered images store hidden items inside.

D.

Tampered images store hidden items inside.

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Questions 106

What is the communication channel established from a compromised machine back to the attacker?

Options:

A.

man-in-the-middle

B.

IDS evasion

C.

command and control

D.

port scanning

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Questions 107

The Cisco Zero Trust Architecture simplifies the zero trust journey into three critical areas. Drag and drop the definitions onto the graphic to describe zero trust from the Cisco perspective.

Options:

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Questions 108

Refer to the exhibit.

What does the output indicate about the server with the IP address 172.18.104.139?

Options:

A.

open ports of a web server

B.

open port of an FTP server

C.

open ports of an email server

D.

running processes of the server

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Questions 109

What is the difference between attack surface and vulnerability?

Options:

A.

An attack surface is a way of taking advantage of a system or resource, and a vulnerability is a specific technique utilized by the vulnerability.

B.

A vulnerability describes how software or a system is exposed to potential attacks, and an attack surface is an actual weakness that exposes the potential risk.

C.

A vulnerability is a way of taking advantage of a system or resource, and an attack surface is a specific technique utilized by the vulnerability.

D.

An attack surface describes how software or a system is exposed to potential attacks, and a vulnerability is an actual weakness that exposes the potential risk.

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Questions 110

What describes the difference when comparing attack surface and vulnerability in practice?

Options:

A.

Updating the OS reduces the attack surface, and installing separate optional patches remediates and solves vulnerabilities within the system.

B.

Patching SMB vulnerability is an attack surface reduction, and the open unused ports are the vulnerabilities within the system.

C.

A SMB server that can allow remote code execution is a vulnerability, and closing port 139 is an attack surface reduction.

D.

The attack surface is the SQL injection targeted on the database, and the database tables are the vulnerabilities that might be exploited.

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Questions 111

What is a characteristic of a temporal score in CVSS?

Options:

A.

It can change over time

B.

It depends on the environment

C.

It has a vendor fixed value

D.

It is defined by impacted users

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Questions 112

According to the September 2020 threat intelligence feeds a new malware called Egregor was introduced and used in many attacks. Distnbution of Egregor is pnmanly through a Cobalt Strike that has been installed on victim's workstations using RDP exploits Malware exfiltrates the victim's data to a command and control server. The data is used to force victims pay or lose it by publicly releasing it. Which type of attack is described?

Options:

A.

malware attack

B.

ransomware attack

C.

whale-phishing

D.

insider threat

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Questions 113

Why should an engineer use a full packet capture to investigate a security breach?

Options:

A.

It captures the TCP flags set within each packet for the engineer to focus on suspicious packets to identify malicious activity

B.

It collects metadata for the engineer to analyze, including IP traffic packet data that is sorted, parsed, and indexed.

C.

It provides the full TCP streams for the engineer to follow the metadata to identify the incoming threat.

D.

It reconstructs the event allowing the engineer to identify the root cause by seeing what took place during the breach

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Questions 114

Which tool provides a full packet capture from network traffic?

Options:

A.

Nagios

B.

CAINE

C.

Hydra

D.

Wireshark

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Questions 115

A security specialist is investigating an incident regarding a recent major breach in the organization. The accounting data from a 24-month period is affected due to a trojan detected in a department's critical server. A security analyst investigates the incident and discovers that an incident response team member who detected a trojan during regular AV scans had made an image of the server for evidence purposes. The security analyst made animage again to compare the hashes of the two images, and they appeared to differ and do not match. Which type of evidence is the security analyst dealing with?

Options:

A.

checksum violated image

B.

integrity violated image

C.

untampered image

D.

tampered image

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Questions 116

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator is investigating suspicious network activity by analyzing captured traffic. An engineer notices abnormal behavior and discovers that the default user agent is present in the headers of requests and data being transmitted What is occurring?

Options:

A.

indicators of denial-of-service attack due to the frequency of requests

B.

garbage flood attack attacker is sending garbage binary data to open ports

C.

indicators of data exfiltration HTTP requests must be plain text

D.

cache bypassing attack: attacker is sending requests for noncacheable content

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Questions 117

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer is analyzing this Cuckoo Sandbox report for a PDF file that has been downloaded from an email. What is the state of this file?

Options:

A.

The file has an embedded executable and was matched by PEiD threat signatures for further analysis.

B.

The file has an embedded non-Windows executable but no suspicious features are identified.

C.

The file has an embedded Windows 32 executable and the Yara field lists suspicious features for further analysis.

D.

The file was matched by PEiD threat signatures but no suspicious features are identified since the signature list is up to date.

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Questions 118

What is a difference between SIEM and SOAR?

Options:

A.

SOAR predicts and prevents security alerts, while SIEM checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

B.

SlEM's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SOAR is more focused on security operations automation and response.

C.

SIEM predicts and prevents security alerts, while SOAR checks attack patterns and applies the mitigation.

D.

SOAR's primary function is to collect and detect anomalies, while SIEM is more focused on security operations automation and response.

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Questions 119

Refer to the exhibit.

A company employee is connecting to mail google.com from an endpoint device. The website is loaded but with an error. What is occurring?

Options:

A.

DNS hijacking attack

B.

Endpoint local time is invalid.

C.

Certificate is not in trusted roots.

D.

man-m-the-middle attack

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Questions 120

Which type of evidence supports a theory or an assumption that results from initial evidence?

Options:

A.

probabilistic

B.

indirect

C.

best

D.

corroborative

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Questions 121

Refer to the exhibit.

What must be interpreted from this packet capture?

Options:

A.

IP address 192.168.88 12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 74 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol

B.

IP address 192.168.88.12 is communicating with 192 168 88 149 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.

C.

IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168 88.12 with a source port 80 to destination port 49098 using TCP protocol.

D.

IP address 192.168.88.149 is communicating with 192.168.88.12 with a source port 49098 to destination port 80 using TCP protocol.

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Questions 122

What is a difference between data obtained from Tap and SPAN ports?

Options:

A.

Tap mirrors existing traffic from specified ports, while SPAN presents more structured data for deeper analysis.

B.

SPAN passively splits traffic between a network device and the network without altering it, while Tap alters response times.

C.

SPAN improves the detection of media errors, while Tap provides direct access to traffic with lowered data visibility.

D.

Tap sends traffic from physical layers to the monitoring device, while SPAN provides a copy of network traffic from switch to destination

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Questions 123

An engineer received a ticket to investigate a potentially malicious file detected by a malware scanner that was trying to execute multiple commands. During the initial review, the engineer discovered that the file was created two days prior. Further analyses show that the file was downloaded from a known malicious domain after a successful phishing attempt on an asset owner. At which phase of the Cyber Kill Chain was this attack mitigated?

Options:

A.

reconnaissance

B.

exploitation

C.

installation

D.

delivery

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Questions 124

Which data type is necessary to get information about source/destination ports?

Options:

A.

statistical data

B.

session data

C.

connectivity data

D.

alert data

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Questions 125

Which security technology allows only a set of pre-approved applications to run on a system?

Options:

A.

application-level blacklisting

B.

host-based IPS

C.

application-level whitelisting

D.

antivirus

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Questions 126

What does this regular expression do?

192|172).(168|1[6-9]|2[0-9]|3[0-1]).[0-9]{1,3}.[0-9]{1,3}\b

Options:

A.

It searches for private IP addresses except 10.0.0.0/8 IP address range.

B.

It matches any IP addresses within 172.16.0.0/16 IP address range.

C.

It searches for lines with private IP addresses in text.

D.

It extracts lines with 192.168.0.0/16 IP address range from the text.

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Questions 127

How is SQL injection prevented?

Options:

A.

Address space layout randomization

B.

Validate and sanitize user input

C.

...in the web server as a nonprivileged user

D.

...cost profiling

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Questions 128

What is a difference between signature-based and behavior-based detection?

Options:

A.

Signature-based identifies behaviors that may be linked to attacks, while behavior-based has a predefined set of rules to match before an alert.

B.

Behavior-based identifies behaviors that may be linked to attacks, while signature-based has a predefined set of rules to match before an alert.

C.

Behavior-based uses a known vulnerability database, while signature-based intelligently summarizes existing data.

D.

Signature-based uses a known vulnerability database, while behavior-based intelligently summarizes existing data.

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Questions 129

What are two differences and benefits of packet filtering, stateful firewalling, and deep packet inspections? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Packet filtering is capable of UDP state monitoring only, and stateful inspection can provide monitoring of TCP sessions.

B.

Deep packet inspection is capable of malware blocking, and packet filtering is not.

C.

Stateful inspection is capable of packet data inspections, and deep packet inspection is not.

D.

Deep packet inspection operates up to Layer 7, and packet filtering operates on Layer 3 and 4 of OSI model.

E.

Stateful inspection is capable of TCP state tracking, and deep packet inspection checks only TCP source and destination ports.

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Questions 130

What are the two differences between vulnerability and exploit? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Known vulnerabilities are assigned special CVE numbers, and exploits are using process to take advantage of vulnerabilities.

B.

Vulnerabilities can be found in hardware and software, and exploits can be used only for software-based vulnerabilities.

C.

Zero-day exploit can be used to take advantage of a vulnerability until the vulnerable software or hardware is patched.

D.

Vulnerabilities are usually populated in the dark web, and exploit tools and methods can be found in the public web.

E.

Zero-day exploit can be used for taking advantage of a known vulnerability, and cyber-attack can be performed on company assets.

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Questions 131

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a sum of possible malicious entry points, and a risk represents the possibility of the unauthorized entry itself.

B.

A risk is a potential threat that an exploit applies to, and a vulnerability represents the threat itself

C.

A vulnerability represents a flaw in a security that can be exploited, and the risk is the potential damage it might cause.

D.

A risk is potential threat that adversaries use to infiltrate the network, and a vulnerability is an exploit

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Questions 132

What is a ransomware attack?

Options:

A.

It is a component of a malware attack used to establish a remote covert channel.

B.

It is malicious software that steals confidential data.

C.

It encrypts a victim’s data and prevents access to it.

D.

The volume of data exceeds storage capacity.

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Questions 133

A security engineer must investigate a recent breach within the organization. An engineer noticed that a breached workstation is trying to connect to the domain "Ranso4730-mware92-647". which is known as malicious. In which step of the Cyber Kill Chain is this event?

Options:

A.

Vaporization

B.

Delivery

C.

reconnaissance

D.

Action on objectives

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Questions 134

Refer to the exhibit.

What is occurring?

Options:

A.

Identifying possible malware communications and botnet activity

B.

Monitoring of encrypted and unencrypted web sessions for diagnostics.

C.

Analysis of traffic flows during network capacity testing

D.

Review of session logs for performance optimization in a distributed application environment

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Questions 135

What is the difference between vulnerability and risk?

Options:

A.

A vulnerability is a weakness that can be exploited and the risk is the potential for loss or damage

B.

A vulnerability is an attack surface, and the risk is the vector of the attack

C.

A risk is a possible danger that an exploit applies to and a vulnerability represents the threat actor

D.

Risk is the assessment of possible weaknesses and vulnerability is a reconfiguration of an asset

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Questions 136

How is symmetric encryption used for HTTPS connections?

Options:

A.

The symmetric encryption algorithm uses public-private certificates

B.

Encryption is based on RSA-2048

C.

The symmetric key is used for encryption

D.

The key exchange process is reliable and secure

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Questions 137

Which attack is the network vulnerable to when a stream cipher like RC4 is used twice with the same key?

Options:

A.

forgery attack

B.

plaintext-only attack

C.

ciphertext-only attack

D.

meet-in-the-middle attack

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Questions 138

What do host-based firewalls protect workstations from?

Options:

A.

zero-day vulnerabilities

B.

unwanted traffic

C.

malicious web scripts

D.

viruses

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Questions 139

What is a purpose of a vulnerability management framework?

Options:

A.

identifies, removes, and mitigates system vulnerabilities

B.

detects and removes vulnerabilities in source code

C.

conducts vulnerability scans on the network

D.

manages a list of reported vulnerabilities

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Questions 140

While viewing packet capture data, an analyst sees that one IP is sending and receiving traffic for multiple devices by modifying the IP header.

Which technology makes this behavior possible?

Options:

A.

encapsulation

B.

TOR

C.

tunneling

D.

NAT

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Questions 141

Which statement describes patch management?

Options:

A.

scanning servers and workstations for missing patches and vulnerabilities

B.

managing and keeping previous patches lists documented for audit purposes

C.

process of appropriate distribution of system or software updates

D.

workflow of distributing mitigations of newly found vulnerabilities

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Questions 142

What is a difference between a threat and a risk?

Options:

A.

A threat is a sum of risks and a risk itself represents a specific danger toward the asset

B.

A threat can be people property, or information, and risk is a probability by which these threats may bring harm to the business

C.

A risk is a flaw or hole in security, and a threat is what is being used against that flaw

D.

A risk is an intersection between threat and vulnerabilities, and a threat is what a security engineer is trying to protect against

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Exam Code: 200-201
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Operations Fundamentals (CBROPS)
Last Update: Feb 21, 2026
Questions: 476
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