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CAPM Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

What important leadership quality/qualities should project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Skills and behaviors needed to guide a team and help an organization reach its goals

C.

Industry expertise that helps to better deliver business outcomes

D.

Industry and organizational expertise that enhances performance

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Questions 5

A project manager is working on project cost management. The following information is current.

* Planned value = 30

* Actual cost = 35

* Earned value = 28

Considering this data, which project indicator is correct?

Options:

A.

Schedule Variance (SV) = 2

B.

Cost Performance Index (CPI) = 0.80

C.

Schedule Performance Index (SPI) = 1.93

D.

Cost Variance (CV) = 7

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Questions 6

What is one reason why stakeholders must be identified when performing business analysis?

Options:

A.

To identify project timelines through business reviews

B.

To allow the business analyst to determine the project budget

C.

To identify who should define the business requirements for the project

D.

To determine a cost-benefit analysis for the project

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Questions 7

An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:

Options:

A.

Cost estimates.

B.

Resource calendars,

C.

The project charter,

D.

The risk register.

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Questions 8

Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

C.

Project assignment chart

D.

Personnel assignment matrix

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Questions 9

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

Options:

A.

Control chart

B.

Earned value

C.

Variance

D.

Trend

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Questions 10

The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should plan the project manager consult?

Options:

A.

Risk management plan

B.

Communications management plan

C.

Change management plan

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan

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Questions 11

A new business analyst has joined the team in the middle of a project and the requirements traceability matrix has been updated. What should the business analyst do next?

Options:

A.

Review the project management plan.

B.

Share the requirements traceability matrix the same way it was shared previously.

C.

Consult the business analysis communications management plan.

D.

Ask the project manager to share the updated requirements traceability matrix at the next meeting.

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Questions 12

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Project management information system (PMIS)

D.

Project selection methods

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Questions 13

Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?

Options:

A.

Activity sequencing

B.

Resource leveling

C.

Lead and lag adjusting

D.

Crashing

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Questions 14

A project manager is newly assigned to a project. Which document can help the project manager understand the project scope?

Options:

A.

Process flow diagram

B.

Data flow diagram

C.

Context diagram

D.

User interface flow

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Questions 15

Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Earned value management

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Forecasting

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Questions 16

The project manager is distributing project communications, collecting and storing project information, and retrieving documents when required. In which process is the project manager involved?

Options:

A.

Monitor Communications

B.

Plan Communications Management

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 17

Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?

Options:

A.

Performed by systems

B.

Constrained by limited resources

C.

Repetitiveness

D.

Uniqueness

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Questions 18

Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?

Options:

A.

Brainstorming

B.

Focus groups

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Plurality

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Questions 19

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?

Options:

A.

Requested changes

B.

Approved change requests

C.

Work performance information

D.

Implemented defect repair

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Questions 20

In a project, the cost performance indicator (CPI) is less than 1 and the schedule performance indicator (SPI) is more than 1. What is the status of the project?

Options:

A.

The project is over budget and behind schedule.

B.

The project is over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

The project is under budget and behind schedule.

D.

The project is under budget and ahead of schedule.

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Questions 21

A project team of telecommuters located in three different time zones regularly misses project deadlines Daily meetings often start and end with the same person talking and the rest of the team listening The project manager determines that communication among team members must be addressed.

What communication step is missing from the daily meetings?

Options:

A.

Interpersonal communication

B.

Feedback response communication

C.

Push communication

D.

Pull communication

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Questions 22

Select two key benefits of the Control Procurements process

Options:

A.

Enables the development of make-or-buy decisions

B.

Ensures that contract performance meets the terms of the legal agreement

C.

Guarantees that legal agreements influence vendor selection

D.

Assures that legal agreements guide contract closings

E.

Helps determine whether a certain type of contract should be used

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Questions 23

Which term refers to the work performed to deliver results with specified features and functions?

Options:

A.

Project scope

B.

Product scope

C.

Change request

D.

Acceptance criteria

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Questions 24

A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:

Options:

A.

Adaptive

B.

Predictive

C.

Incremental

D.

Iterative

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Questions 25

A key stakeholder has left the project management team. The team now has a new key stakeholder who is requesting project reports from team members out of sequence.

What should the project manager do first?

Options:

A.

Extend an iteration review invite to the new stakeholder.

B.

Perform qualitative risk analysis.

C.

Engage with the new stakeholder.

D.

Allow team members to share project status reports.

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Questions 26

A project manager needs to tailor the Project Cost Management process. Which considerations should the project manager apply?

Options:

A.

Diversity background

B.

Stakeholder ' s relationships

C.

Technical expertise

D.

Knowledge management

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Questions 27

Where are key project deliverables documented?

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Requirements traceability matrix

C.

User acceptance criteria

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

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Questions 28

During project execution, a key resource leaves the team for another job. What should the project manager do in this situation?

Options:

A.

Submit a change request for additional budget to secure a project resource.

B.

Consult with the functional manager for a replacement resource.

C.

Distribute work to other team members to reduce impact to the project schedule.

D.

Consult the risk register for an appropriate risk response.

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Questions 29

Which is a list of organizational systems that may have an impact on a project?

Options:

A.

Internal policies, company procedures, and organizational resources

B.

Company culture, purchasing system, and project management information system

C.

Organizational structure, governance framework, and management elements

D.

Organizational process assets, enterprise environmental factors, and corporate knowledge

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Questions 30

A project has an estimated duration of 10 months with a total budget of US$220,000. At the end of the fifth month, it is estimated that at completion, the project will incur US$250,000. If the actual cost (AC) calculated is US$150,000, what is the earned value (EV) of the project?

Options:

A.

USS-30,000

B.

US$120,000

C.

US$370,000

D.

US$400,000

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Questions 31

The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:

Options:

A.

establish and manage project communication channels, both external and internal to the project team.

B.

influence the stakeholders that want to circumvent integrated change control so that their changes are implemented.

C.

monitor the ongoing project team against the team performance assessments and the project performance baseline.

D.

observe and measure project performance regularly and consistently to identify variances from the project management plan.

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Questions 32

Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?

Options:

A.

Perform Quality Control

B.

Quality Metrics

C.

Perform Quality Assurance

D.

Plan Quality

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Questions 33

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

Options:

A.

Balanced matrix

B.

Projectized

C.

Strong matrix

D.

Functional

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Questions 34

Which of the following does a portfolio combine?

Options:

A.

Projects, programs, and operations

B.

Operations, strategies, and business continuity

C.

Projects, programs, and risks

D.

Projects, change management, and operations

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Questions 35

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

Options:

A.

Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)

B.

Resource breakdown structure (RBS)

C.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Project breakdown structure (PBS)

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Questions 36

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

Options:

A.

Decomposition

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Inspection

D.

Checklist analysis

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Questions 37

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity E is how many days?

Options:

A.

2

B.

3

C.

5

D.

8

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Questions 38

Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?

Options:

A.

Salience

B.

Influence/impact

C.

Power/interest

D.

Power/influence

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Questions 39

Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Acquire Project Team

C.

Develop Project Team

D.

Plan Human Resource Management

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Questions 40

Deciding the phases of a project life cycle would be considered a part of which of these knowledge areas?

Options:

A.

Project Schedule Management

B.

Project Scope Management

C.

Project Resource Management

D.

Project Integration Management

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Questions 41

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

Options:

A.

Communication methods

B.

Information technology

C.

Communication models

D.

Information management systems

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Questions 42

A technical project manager uses a directive approach with the team. Some team members are growing increasingly frustrated when their recommendations are not adopted by the project manager.

What should the project manager do to address this issue?

Options:

A.

Apply emotional intelligence (El) skills, such as active listening, to understand the team ' s issues.

B.

Instruct the team members to self-organize and resolve any outstanding issues.

C.

Ask the team members to record their concerns in the lessons learned log for future action.

D.

Encourage the team to follow the project plan that was developed with team input.

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Questions 43

At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?

Options:

A.

Positive

B.

Zero

C.

Negative

D.

Greater than one

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Questions 44

Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?

Options:

A.

Approved change requests

B.

Approved contract documentation

C.

Work performance information

D.

Rejected change requests

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Questions 45

Which of the following answers includes an input, a technique, and an output of the Plan Stakeholders Engagement process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan, data gathering, and stakeholder engagement plan

B.

Business documents, meetings, and stakeholder register

C.

Organizational process assets, data gathering, and project document updates

D.

Project management plan, data analysis, and change requests

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Questions 46

Which of the following are components of the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Scope management plan, scope baseline, risk management plan, and configuration managemet plan

B.

Scope management plan, issue log, risk register and project schedule network diagram

C.

Scope management plan, schedule baseline, milestone list, and assumption log

D.

Scope management plan, cost estimates, duration estimates, and resource calenders

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Questions 47

What is a key benefit of using virtual project teams?

Options:

A.

Ensures appropriate behavior, security, and the protection of proprietary information

B.

Reduces the risk of conflict due to interpersonal communications and other interactions

C.

Assures that all team members have a clear and common understanding of the project

D.

Reduces project cost by use of modern technologies allowing seamless team collaboration

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Questions 48

What are the key tools for managing project knowledge?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment and data gathering

B.

Networking and storytelling

C.

Data analysis and decision making

D.

Prototypes and product analysis

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Questions 49

A project manager needs to demonstrate that the project meets quality standards and success criteria. For that reason, the project manager is defining the quality objectives of the project, the quality tools that will be used, and quality metrics for the project deliverables.

Which process is the project manager executing?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Plan Scope Management

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Questions 50

Which format can a network diagram take?

Options:

A.

Flow chart

B.

Control chart

C.

Affinity diagram

D.

Cause-and-effect diagram

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Questions 51

Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?

Options:

A.

Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates

B.

Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

C.

Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and project documents update

D.

Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates

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Questions 52

Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management software

C.

Vendor bid analysis

D.

Reserve analysis

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Questions 53

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?

Options:

A.

Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach

B.

Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach

C.

Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach

D.

As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach

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Questions 54

Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?

Options:

A.

Team performance assessment

B.

Roles and responsibilities

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Enterprise environmental factors

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Questions 55

A project manager is responsible for delivering new software for their company. Based on previous experiences, the project manager decides to use the dynamic systems development method (DSDM). The project manager will use this method to prioritize the scope to meet project constraints.

Which elements are included in the DSDM framework?

Options:

A.

Time, integration, cost, and deliverables

B.

Schedule, risk, integration, and features

C.

Cost, time, quality, and functionality

D.

Cost, requirements, schedule, and outputs

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Questions 56

What is the role of project management in terms of organizational strategy?

Options:

A.

Project management aligns initiatives, prioritizes work, and provides resources.

B.

Project management provides the strategic vision (or an organization lo achieve its goals.

C.

Project management enables the achievement of organizational goals and objectives.

D.

Project management harmonizes components and controls interdependencies to realize specific benefits.

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Questions 57

Which two processes should be used to influence costs in the early stages of a project?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs and Determine Budget

B.

Plan Cost Management and Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Control Quality and Control Costs

D.

Plan Stakeholder Engagement and Plan Communications Management

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Questions 58

Which of the following is part of the project sponsor ' s responsibility?

Options:

A.

Monitoring the business value

B.

Advocating the business value

C.

Tracking the business value

D.

Auditing the business value

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Questions 59

Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Project schedule

B.

Organizational process assets updates

C.

Project document updates

D.

Work performance information

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Questions 60

The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Durations

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Sequence Activities

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Questions 61

When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:

Options:

A.

under budget and behind schedule.

B.

over budget and ahead of schedule.

C.

on schedule.

D.

complete; all planned values have been earned.

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Questions 62

Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Plan Procurement Management

B.

Control Procurements

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Plan Cost Management

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Questions 63

In which of the risk management processes is the processes is the project charter used as an input?

Options:

A.

Palm Risk Responses

B.

Implement Risk Responses

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Responses

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Questions 64

A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?

Options:

A.

Urgent information need

B.

Sensitivity of information

C.

Project environment

D.

Ease of use

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Questions 65

Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?

Options:

A.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of occurrence

B.

Value of each possible outcome multiplied by probability of non-occurrence

C.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of occurrence and adding the products together

D.

Multiplying the value of each possible outcome by the probability of non-occurrence and adding the products together

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Questions 66

The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:

Options:

A.

Continuous improvement.

B.

Predictive planning.

C.

Progressive elaboration.

D.

Quality assurance.

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Questions 67

How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?

Options:

A.

EV less AC

B.

AC less PV

C.

EV less PV

D.

AC less EV

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Questions 68

The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:

Options:

A.

Develop Project Team.

B.

Manage Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team.

D.

Plan Human Resource Management.

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Questions 69

The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:

Options:

A.

Plan Schedule Management.

B.

Develop Project Charter.

C.

Develop Schedule.

D.

Plan Scope Management.

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Questions 70

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

Options:

A.

Planning

B.

Executing

C.

Monitoring and Controlling

D.

Project Management

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Questions 71

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

Options:

A.

Project stakeholders

B.

Project sponsor and project stakeholder

C.

Project manager and project team

D.

Project manager and project sponsor

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Questions 72

Risk responses reflect an organization ' s perceived balance between:

Options:

A.

risk taking and risk avoidance.

B.

known risk and unknown risk.

C.

identified risk and analyzed risk.

D.

varying degrees of risk.

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Questions 73

Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?

Options:

A.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Collect Requirements. Define Scope. Create WBS. Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement

C.

Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define. Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS

D.

Define. Validate, and Control Scope. Control Costs. Manage Stakeholder Engagement, and keep budget under control

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Questions 74

Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?

Options:

A.

Project

B.

Functional

C.

Program

D.

Portfolio

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Questions 75

Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?

Options:

A.

Update

B.

Preventive action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Corrective action

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Questions 76

Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?

Options:

A.

WBS directory

B.

Activity list

C.

WBS

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 77

What organizational asset can influence the Plan Risk Management process?

Options:

A.

Corporate policies and procedures for social media, ethics, and security

B.

Organizational risk policy

C.

Stakeholder register templates and instructions

D.

Organizational communication requirements

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Questions 78

During which process of Project Cost Management does a project manager produce the cost baseline?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Schedule

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 79

What tool or technique is used in the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Decomposition

C.

Product analysis

D.

Prototypes

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Questions 80

A project manager is leading a technology project that is about to enter the execution phase. The project requires the procurement of certain key components from an external vendor. The project manager has been notified that because of a government regulation, some parts can no longer be used in the country and the vendor will be unable to deliver them.

What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Identify the impact and follow the procurement plan.

B.

Identify the impact and follow the project management plan.

C.

Identify the impact and follow the risk management plan.

D.

Identify the impact and follow the change control plan.

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Questions 81

An output of the Develop Project Team process is:

Options:

A.

Organizational process assets.

B.

Enterprise environmental factors updates.

C.

Project staff assignments.

D.

Organizational charts and position descriptions.

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Questions 82

A project manager is assigned to a project, and the sponsor signals to perform first actions. However, the project manager is unsure how to apply organizational resources into project activities before a formal authorization. Which document should be used in this case?

Options:

A.

Project plan

B.

Business case

C.

Budget requirement

D.

Project charter

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Questions 83

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

Options:

A.

Activity list

B.

Project plan

C.

Activity duration estimates

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 84

Tailoring considerations for project scope management may include:

Options:

A.

requirements management, stability of requirements, development approach, and validation and control.

B.

WBS guidelines, requirements templates, deliverable acceptance forms, and verified deliverables.

C.

business needs, product descriptions, project restrictions, and project management plan.

D.

issues defining and controlling what is included in the project, vended deliverables, and quality reports.

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Questions 85

A stakeholder is reading project documents given by the project manager. The stakeholder is

curious about the difference between a verified deliverable and an accepted deliverable.

Which of the following definitions can the project manager use to explain the difference?

Options:

A.

An accepted deliverable is approved by the project team; a verified deliverable is approved and formally signed off by the customer or sponsor.

B.

An accepted deliverable has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria that is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor.

C.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is formally signed off and approved by the customer or sponsor, a verified deliverable is a completed project deliverable that has been checked and confirmed for accuracy through the Control Quality process

D.

An accepted deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the project manager; a verified deliverable meets acceptance criteria and is signed off by the customer or sponsor.

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Questions 86

An adaptive team is performing the kickoff meeting and planning the project management approach. After defining project events, one team member argues that the artifacts are missing. The project manager coaches the team to complete the planning.

Which two of the following items should be included in the planning? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Daily scrum

B.

Sprint backlog

C.

Sprint review

D.

Increments

E.

Sprint retrospective

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Questions 87

At the beginning of an iteration, the team will work to determine how many of the highest-priority items on the backlog list can be delivered within the next iteration. Which of the following activities is done first?

Options:

A.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

B.

Create Scope Baseline

C.

Collect Requirements

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 88

Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:

Options:

A.

Resource attributes.

B.

Resource types.

C.

Resource categories.

D.

Resource breakdown structures (RBS).

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Questions 89

Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:

Options:

A.

influencing

B.

leadership

C.

motivation

D.

coaching

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Questions 90

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

Options:

A.

budget at completion (BAC)

B.

earned value management (EVM)

C.

to-complete performance index

D.

cost performance index

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Questions 91

A project manager has joined the sponsor to verify the last deliverable of the project. The sponsor is measuring and examining the deliverable to determine whether it meets the requirements and product acceptance criteria. Which activity is being performed?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Prototyping

C.

Decision making

D.

Brainstorming

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Questions 92

A project manager is seeking assistance from the business analyst for an IT project. What assistance can the business analyst provide?

Options:

A.

Elicit product requirements.

B.

Verify product functionality.

C.

Manage the project schedule.

D.

Allocate project resources.

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Questions 93

The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:

Options:

A.

Executing.

B.

Initiating,

C.

Monitoring and Controlling.

D.

Planning.

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Questions 94

The Human Resource Management processes are:

Options:

A.

Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team.

B.

Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team.

C.

Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team.

D.

Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team.

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Questions 95

The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:

Options:

A.

scenario building, technology forecasting, and forecast by analogy.

B.

working relationships among various stakeholders and team members.

C.

application area, the standard used, and the industry,

D.

work to be completed next.

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Questions 96

As the project takes place and some issues arose, the project manager (Joe) finds out that some team members were not 100% committed to the project, and some of them were underperforming.

What should the project manager have done to avoid this situation?

Options:

A.

Coupled inexperienced team members with individuals having extensive knowledge in the required field

B.

Had open and transparent planning that engages internal and external stakeholders

C.

Held regular meetings more often with team members to check on their progress and obstacles

D.

Diversified more of the project team to capture a broad range of experiences

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Questions 97

After missing a weekly communication meeting hosted by the project manager, a stakeholder looks at the latest report in the common repository.

What is the communication type used in this scenario?

Options:

A.

Pull

B.

Verbal

C.

Written

D.

Push

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Questions 98

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

Options:

A.

To the project management plan.

B.

To the risk register.

C.

In the scope verification processes.

D.

And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.

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Questions 99

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:

Options:

A.

Create WBS.

B.

complete project work.

C.

calculate costs.

D.

Develop Project Management Plan.

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Questions 100

When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?

Options:

A.

Fixed Fee

B.

Free Float

C.

Fixed Finish

D.

Finish-to-Finish

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Questions 101

Which of the following is a project constraint?

Options:

A.

Twenty-five percent of staff turnover is expected.

B.

The technology to be used is cutting-edge.

C.

Project leadership may change due to a volatile political environment.

D.

The product is needed in 250 days.

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Questions 102

A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:

Options:

A.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations.

B.

Monitor and Control Risks.

C.

Plan Risk Management.

D.

Report Performance.

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Questions 103

A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller ' s performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF).

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF).

C.

Cost Plus Award Fee (CPAF).

D.

Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment (FP-EPA).

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Questions 104

A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 105

Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) dictionary

C.

Requirements management plan

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 106

Match each dimension of the communications management plan to its corresponding focus.

Options:

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Questions 107

The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:

Options:

A.

Collect Requirements.

B.

Conduct Procurements.

C.

Estimate Activity Durations.

D.

Estimate Activity Resources.

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Questions 108

Which statement describes the relationship between Manage Quality process and Control process?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality is all about following planned processes and provedures for quality, while Control Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

B.

Control Quality is all about following planned process and procedures for quality, while Manage Quality is about making sure that the product which is produced conforms to customer specifications.

C.

Manage Quality and Control Quality are the same

D.

Manage Quality is part of Quality Management and Control is a subset of the Stakeholder Management Process group

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Questions 109

Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?

Options:

A.

Conduct Procurements

B.

Plan Procurements

C.

Administer Procurements

D.

Close Procurements

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Questions 110

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:

Options:

A.

operate separately.

B.

move together in batches,

C.

overlap and interact.

D.

move in a sequence.

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Questions 111

Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?

Options:

A.

Little or no project manager authority, little or no resource availability, and the functional manager controls the project budget

B.

Limited project manager authority, limited resource availability, and a part-time project manager ' s role

C.

Low to moderate project manager authority, low to moderate resource availability, and a full-time project manager ' s role

D.

High to almost total project manager authority, high to almost total resource availability, and full-time project management administrative staff

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Questions 112

A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:

Options:

A.

prototypes.

B.

expert judgment.

C.

alternatives identification.

D.

product analysis.

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Questions 113

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

Options:

A.

Manage Project Team

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Sequence Activities

D.

Direct and Manage Project Work

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Questions 114

Stakeholder identification and engagement should begin during what phase of the project?

Options:

A.

After the project management plan is completed

B.

After the stakeholder engagement plan is completed

C.

As soon as the project charter has been approved

D.

After the communications management plan is completed

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Questions 115

Which is the tool or technique that is used to obtain the list of activities from the work packages?

Options:

A.

Data analysis

B.

Leads and lags

C.

Precedence diagramming method

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 116

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

Options:

A.

Uniform

B.

Continuous

C.

Discrete

D.

Linear

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Questions 117

Which are the most important competencies required for a project manager?

Options:

A.

Leadership, bilingualism, experience, and technical Knowledge

B.

PMP certification, experience, technical Knowledge, and post-graduate education

C.

Leadership, strategic and business management, project management knowledge, and technical knowledge

D.

Communication skills, project management knowledge, PMP certification, and availability to travel

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Questions 118

Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?

Options:

A.

Define Activities

B.

Direct and Manage Project Work

C.

Develop Project Management Plan

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 119

Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?

Options:

A.

Cost Plus Incentive Fee (CPIF)

B.

Fixed Price Incentive Fee (FPIF)

C.

Cost Pius Award Re (CPAF)

D.

Time and Material (TandM)

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Questions 120

The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?

Options:

A.

Early

B.

Middle

C.

Late

D.

Completion

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Questions 121

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

Options:

A.

Failure modes and effects analysis

B.

Design of experiments

C.

Quality checklist

D.

Risk analysis

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Questions 122

Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement

B.

Project charter

C.

Project plan

D.

Project schedule

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Questions 123

How can a project manager evaluate project team development?

Options:

A.

Produce team performance assessments.

B.

Hold weekly meetings to engage every member

C.

Complete a personal skill assessment on each team member

D.

Provide recognition awards to team members

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Questions 124

When executing a project, a recently hired subject matter expert (SME) who reviewed the execution progress remarked that the schedule could be crashed and that the schedule was not assessed properly. What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Update the schedule baseline

B.

Review the schedule baseline

C.

Initiate a change request

D.

Update the risk register

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Questions 125

A project manager is managing a small project that has a time constraint. What should the project manager do to ensure the delivery is on time?

Options:

A.

Expand the scope of the project.

B.

Schedule the tasks in sequence.

C.

Increase quality review cycles.

D.

Schedule the tasks in parallel.

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Questions 126

A business analyst is evaluating solutions against the expected results and logging defects along the way. The next task is to analyze the discrepancies prior to facilitating a go/no-go decision.

Which technique should be used as a starting point to uncover problem areas?

Options:

A.

Elicitation

B.

Opportunity analysis

C.

Cost-benefit analysis

D.

Feasibility analysis

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Questions 127

An organization ' s project management office (PMO) has issued guidelines that require a specific template to be used for onboarding resources for a project. Where can the project manager find this template?

Options:

A.

Organizational systems access

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Resources management plan

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 128

What CPI > 1 and SPI < 1 mean?

Options:

A.

Under budget ahead of schedule

B.

Over budget, behind schedule

C.

Under budget, behind schedule

D.

Over budget, ahead of schedule

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Questions 129

Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?

Options:

A.

Develop Schedule

B.

Create VVBS

C.

Estimate Activity Resources

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 130

Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:

Options:

A.

Enterprise environmental factors

B.

Work performance reports

C.

Organizational process assets

D.

Context diagrams

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Questions 131

Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?

Options:

A.

Probability and impact matrix

B.

Contingency analysis report

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Rolling wave plan

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Questions 132

A project team has completed the first iteration and the testing manager approved the test report, indicating that the acceptance criteria have been met. The manager of the business unit that will use the new product is asking for additional functionality before approving the rollout for their team.

What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Escalate this issue to the project sponsor.

B.

Reschedule the rollout to start with another business unit.

C.

Reschedule the rollout to include the new requirements.

D.

Escalate this issue to the project management office (PMO).

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Questions 133

Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?

Options:

A.

Requirements traceability matrix

B.

Project scope statement

C.

WBS dictionary

D.

Work performance measurements

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Questions 134

A product owner reviews the list of stakeholders to confirm their continued involvement with the product team. A new stakeholder is identified as actively involved in the next product release.

What should the project manager do next to engage the new stakeholder?

Options:

A.

Add the stakeholder to the communications management plan.

B.

Conduct a one-on-one interview with the stakeholder.

C.

Invite the stakeholder to the sprint-planning meeting.

D.

Send the stakeholder a questionnaire.

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Questions 135

What describes the relationship between projects, programs, and portfolios?

Options:

A.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the " right " programs and projects.

B.

Project management focuses on doing the " right " programs and portfolios.

C.

Program management focuses on doing the " specific " portfolios and projects.

D.

Portfolio management focuses on doing the ' ' specific’’ programs and projects.

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Questions 136

Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?

Options:

A.

Avoid

B.

Accept

C.

Mitigate

D.

Exploit

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Questions 137

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

Options:

A.

Role dependencies chart

B.

Reporting flow diagram

C.

Project organization chart

D.

Project team structure diagram

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Questions 138

Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity ' s duration?

Options:

A.

Analogous

B.

Parametric

C.

Three-point

D.

What-if scenario analysis

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Questions 139

A team was hired to develop a next generation drone. The team created a prototype and sent it to the customer for testing. The feedback collected was used to refine the requirements. What technique is the team using?

Options:

A.

Early requirements gathering

B.

Feedback analysis

C.

Progressive elaboration

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 140

Which of the following can a project manager conduct if they have a stakeholder who is unresponsive and/or unsupportive?

Options:

A.

Interactive communications

B.

Pull communications

C.

Push communications

D.

Communication style assessment

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Questions 141

Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:

Options:

A.

cost management plan.

B.

risk management plan,

C.

activity list,

D.

risk register.

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Questions 142

Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?

Options:

A.

Cost of changes

B.

Stakeholder influences

C.

Risk

D.

Uncertainty

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Questions 143

Which process is engaged when a project team member makes a change to project budget with project manager ' s approval

Options:

A.

Manage Cost Plan

B.

Estimate Costs

C.

Determine Budget

D.

Control Costs

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Questions 144

What provides information regarding the ways people, teams, and organizational units behave?

Options:

A.

Organizational chart

B.

Organizational theory

C.

Organizational structure

D.

Organizational behavior

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Questions 145

Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Resources

B.

Sequence Activities

C.

Estimate Activity Durations

D.

Develop Schedule

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Questions 146

Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?

Options:

A.

Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials

B.

Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price

C.

Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis

D.

Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive

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Questions 147

During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?

Options:

A.

Monitor and Control Project Work

B.

Perform Quality Assurance

C.

Close Project or Phase

D.

Control Scope

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Questions 148

Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Responses

B.

Manage Stakeholder Expectations

C.

Define Scope

D.

Report Performance

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Questions 149

What purpose does the hierarchical focus of stakeholder communications serve?

Options:

A.

Maintains the focus on project and organizational stakeholders

B.

Preserves the focus on external stakeholders—such as customers and vendors—as well as on other projects

C.

Sustains the focus on general communication activities using email, social media and websites

D.

Keeps the focus on the position of the stakeholder or group with respect to the project team

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Questions 150

A project ' s aim, from a business perspective, is moving an organization from one level to another to achieve a specific objective. What is the goal for a project ' s successful completion?

Options:

A.

Current state

B.

Future state

C.

Budgeted state

D.

Planned state

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Questions 151

The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:

Options:

A.

Analysis

B.

Appetite

C.

Tolerance

D.

Response

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Questions 152

Which process determines the correctness of deliverables?

Options:

A.

Verify Deliverables

B.

Validate Deliverables

C.

Review Deliverables

D.

Analyze Deliverables

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Questions 153

Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Historical relationships

B.

Dependency determination

C.

Bottom-up estimating

D.

Rolling wave planning

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Questions 154

The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?

Options:

A.

$800

B.

$1000

C.

$1250

D.

$1800

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Questions 155

In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?

Options:

A.

Functional

B.

Projectized

C.

Matrix

D.

Balanced

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Questions 156

What is the common factor among portfolios, programs, and projects, regardless of the hierarchy within an organization?

Options:

A.

Resources and stakeholders

B.

Operations and performance

C.

Subsidiary projects

D.

Project manager

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Questions 157

A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?

Options:

A.

There is a cost underrun.

B.

There is a cost overrun.

C.

The project may not meet the deadline.

D.

The project is 20 days behind schedule.

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Questions 158

The project manager is new to the company in order to effectively manage the project, which components of the organizational governance framework does the project manager need to take into account?

Options:

A.

Organizational structure type, Key stakeholders, and protect funds

B.

Rules. policies and norms

C.

Project management software, resources availability and risk checklist

D.

Governance elements, team policies, and organizational goals

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Questions 159

Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Quality audits

C.

Design of experiments

D.

Root cause analysis

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Questions 160

During a virtual kick-off session, the project sponsor highlights the significance of the project to the company. What message should be conveyed to the team in this meeting?

Options:

A.

Bonuses based on accomplishment criteria

B.

New working contract with more benefits

C.

Promotion opportunities with this project

D.

Assignment of key roles and responsibilities

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Questions 161

A project lead asks the team to create a work breakdown structure (WBS) of the project ' s scope. The team is confused about how far they should break down the scope.

What should the project lead tell the team?

Options:

A.

Decompose to the activity or task level.

B.

Decompose until all of the risks are identified.

C.

Decompose to the work package level.

D.

Decompose until a WBS dictionary is obtained.

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Questions 162

A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?

Options:

A.

Plan contracting

B.

Requesting seller responses

C.

Selecting seller ' s

D.

Planning purchase and acquisition

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Questions 163

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

Options:

A.

Direct and Manage Project Execution

B.

Develop Project Management Plan

C.

Close Project

D.

Develop Project Charter

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Questions 164

An input to Conduct Procurements is:

Options:

A.

Independent estimates.

B.

Selected sellers.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Resource calendars.

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Questions 165

Construction of a building has stopped due to a supplier ' s failure to deliver concrete. The project schedule is behind by three months.

What should the project manager do to overcome this problem and put the project back on track?

Options:

A.

Follow the risk response plan and allocate resources, if needed, to overcome the issue.

B.

Consult the legal department and subject matter experts (SMEs) regarding what to do to avoid failure.

C.

Extend the time of product delivery and use management reserve to cover any losses.

D.

Accept any penalties that might occur and continue working as initially planned.

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Questions 166

A project manager Is in the process of working with stakeholders to meet their needs and expectations, and identifying and fostering communication and involvement. Which process does this typically represent?

Options:

A.

Monitor Stakeholder Engagement

B.

Monitor Communications

C.

Manage Communications

D.

Manage Stakeholder Engagement

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Questions 167

Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?

Options:

A.

Project sponsor

B.

Project manager

C.

Person responsible for project scheduling

D.

Person who is most familiar with the task

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Questions 168

Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?

Options:

A.

Inspection

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Decomposition

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Questions 169

What is the main purpose of Project Quality Management?

Options:

A.

To meet customer requirements by overworking the team

B.

To fulfill project schedule objectives by rushing planned inspections

C.

To fulfill project requirements of both quality and grade

D.

To exceed customer expectations

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Questions 170

A project receives budget approval, but the risk of extra costs is expected. Which of these inputs should the project manager check in order to make a qualitative risk analysis?

Options:

A.

The risk management plan and the assumption log

B.

Costs estimates and cost forecast

C.

The risk management plan and the basis of estimates

D.

The assumption log and the project charter

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Questions 171

A business analyst has encountered a conflict related to competing requirements on an existing project. What tool should the business analyst use to resolve this issue?

Options:

A.

Peer review

B.

Procurement management

C.

Weighted ranking

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 172

The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:

Options:

A.

dictionary.

B.

chart.

C.

report.

D.

register.

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Questions 173

An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:

Options:

A.

expert judgment

B.

seller proposals

C.

the project charter

D.

the project management plan

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Questions 174

Following a project planning meeting with the team, a few team members approach the project manager to follow up on actions required. How can the project manager assess the effectiveness of the meeting?

Options:

A.

Send the meeting minutes to all team members to verify that the required information is readily available.

B.

Ask the team members to provide feedback for meetings in the phase retrospective.

C.

Review the actions from the meeting with each of the project team members to ensure their understanding.

D.

Consult the communications management plan to determine the success criteria for meetings.

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Questions 175

An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:

Options:

A.

smooth/accommodate.

B.

force/direct,

C.

collaborate/problem solve,

D.

compromise/reconcile.

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Questions 176

What are the inputs of the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Project management plan, work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

B.

Project management plan, project documents, enterprise environmental factors, and organizational process assets

C.

Cost baseline, enterprise environmental factors, benefits management plan, and organizational process assets

D.

Project management plan, enterprise environmental factors, basis of estimates, and organizational process assets

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Questions 177

Howls program success measured?

Options:

A.

By delivering the benefit of managing the program ' s projects in a coordinated manner

B.

By the quality, timeliness, cost-etfectiveness. and customer saDstaction of the product or service

C.

By completing the right projects to achieve objectives rather than completing projects the right way

D.

By aggregating the successes of the individual projects in the program

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Questions 178

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

Options:

A.

objectives

B.

schedule

C.

product

D.

approach

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Questions 179

Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:

Options:

A.

cause and effect diagram.

B.

control chart.

C.

flowchart.

D.

histogram.

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Questions 180

Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Plan Risk Management

B.

Plan Risk Responses

C.

Identify Risks

D.

Control Risks

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Questions 181

A project manager is reviewing a few techniques that can be used to evaluate solution results. The intent is to uncover whether the solution responds properly to unintended cases.

Which evaluation technique should be used here?

Options:

A.

Exploratory testing

B.

Integration testing

C.

User acceptance testing

D.

Day-in-the-life testing

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Questions 182

Which of the following are outputs of the Define Scope process in Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

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Questions 183

In project management, a temporary project can be:

Options:

A.

Completed without planning

B.

A routine business process

C.

Long in duration

D.

Ongoing to produce goods

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Questions 184

A functional manager is delegating a key project to a project team without a project manager. Which communication method will be most effective?

Options:

A.

Interactive

B.

Push

C.

Verbal

D.

Oral

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Questions 185

A project team is tasked with decomposing the scope to enable detailed cost and duration estimates. What should the team do to achieve this requirement?

Options:

A.

Prepare a WBS with task sequencing and detail the duration and cost estimates.

B.

Prepare a WBS to work package level to effectively manage duration and cost estimates.

C.

Prepare a WBS for immediate tasks in the plan to work package level for duration and cost estimates.

D.

Prepare a work breakdown structure (WBS) to include each deliverable with a target duration and cost estimate.

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Questions 186

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

Options:

A.

Cost aggregation

B.

Trend analysis

C.

Forecasting

D.

Variance analysis

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Questions 187

A new project was approved and the project manager is discussing the most suitable delivery approach with the project sponsor. Which three of the following are characteristics of a traditional project delivered using a linear delivery approach? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Many expected simple scope change requests

B.

Few expected simple scope change requests

C.

Routine and repetitive activities

D.

Collocated project teams

E.

Use of established templates

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Questions 188

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?

Options:

A.

Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness

B.

Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics

C.

General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge

D.

Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills

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Questions 189

A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:

Options:

A.

Communication models.

B.

Stakeholder participation.

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Enterprise environmental factors.

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Questions 190

What important qualities should project managers possess for strategic and business management?

Options:

A.

Skills and behaviors related to specific domains of project management

B.

Knowledge and competencies needed to guide and motivate a team

C.

Skills and behaviors needed to help an organization achieve its goals

D.

Expertise in the industry and organization that deliver better outcomes

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Questions 191

In the last two iterations, a project team failed to deliver all of the stories on time. What should the project manager do first in order to prevent this from recurring?

Options:

A.

Extend the delivery time for the product since the management reserve allows it.

B.

Temporarily use another team for the next iteration and evaluate their performance.

C.

Observe the project team ' s performance for the next two iterations before taking any action.

D.

Identify possible reasons for the delay and consult the risk register for corrective actions.

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Questions 192

For a 10-day project, activity B ' s duration is three days, and activity C’s duration is two days What is the duration of activity A if activities B and C are performed in parallel?

Options:

A.

3 days

B.

5 days

C.

7 daysD .10 days

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Questions 193

Which are examples of processes that may be used once or at predefined points in the project life cycle?

Options:

A.

Develop Project Charter and Close Project or Phase

B.

Define Activities and Acquire Resources

C.

Control Schedule and Conduct Procurements

D.

Monitor Communications and Control Costs

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Questions 194

What should a project manager use to determine how much money is needed to complete a project?

Options:

A.

Earned value management (EVM)

B.

Estimate at completion (EAC)

C.

Earned value analysis (EVA)

D.

Budget at completion (BAG)

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Questions 195

An adaptive project manager is migrating the company ' s new website. The project manager must work with the team to invest full capacity on this project because it is the company ' s top-ranked project in the portfolio. In order to increase throughput and provide consistent delivery, the project manager needs to assign members who are currently involved with other projects.

How should the project manager assign the team members to this project?

Options:

A.

Task switching

B.

Multitasking

C.

Prediction

D.

Full allocation

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Questions 196

Which of the following is used as an input to prepare a cost management plan?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Cost estimates

D.

Project management plan

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Questions 197

What key component of the project charter defines the conditions for dosing a project phase?

Options:

A.

Purpose

B.

Approval requirements

C.

Exit criteria

D.

High-level requirements

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Questions 198

Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?

Options:

A.

Risk register updates, stakeholder register, and quality management plan

B.

Communication management plan, enterprise environmental factors, and activity duration estimates

C.

Risk management plan, activity cost estimates, and project documents

D.

Project scope statement, organizational process assets, and scope baseline

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Questions 199

Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

External stakeholders

C.

Internal stakeholders

D.

Project team

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Questions 200

A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?

Options:

A.

Strong

B.

Weak

C.

Managed

D.

Balanced

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Questions 201

A required input for Create WBS is a project:

Options:

A.

quality plan.

B.

schedule network.

C.

management document update.

D.

scope statement.

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Questions 202

Creating the project scope statement is part of which process?

Options:

A.

Manage Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Define Scope

D.

Validate Scope

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Questions 203

A project manager is working in an environment where requirements are not very clear and may change during the project. In addition, the project has several stakeholders and is technically complex.

Which strategies should the project manager take to account for risk management n this environment’

Options:

A.

Occasionally identify evaluate, and classify risks

B.

Review requirements and cross-functional project teams.

C.

Include contingency reserves and update the project management plan frequently.

D.

Frequently review incremental work products and update the requirements for proper prioritization.

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Questions 204

Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?

Options:

A.

Project scope statement and accepted deliverables

B.

Scope baseline and project documents update

C.

Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors

D.

Scope baseline and work performance information

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Questions 205

A project manager should consider the impact of project..............manager following

A project manager should consider the impact of project decisions on supporting and maintaining the product along with project results Which process is the project manager following?

Options:

A.

Project Cost Management

B.

Project Integration Management

C.

Project Resources Management

D.

Project Scope Management

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Questions 206

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

Options:

A.

Resource breakdown structure

B.

Staffing management plan

C.

Project organizational chart

D.

Scope management plan

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Questions 207

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

Options:

A.

Organizational standard processes

B.

Marketplace conditions

C.

Historical information

D.

Templates

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Questions 208

Which of the following is least influenced by a project manager, according to the project manager ' s sphere of influence?

Options:

A.

Sponsors

B.

Project team

C.

Steering committees

D.

Stakeholders

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Questions 209

Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?

Options:

A.

Reserve analysis and expert judgment

B.

Facilitation techniques and meetings

C.

Expert judgment and analytical techniques

D.

Performance reviews and meetings

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Questions 210

The following is a network diagram for a project.

The free float for Activity H is how many days?

Options:

A.

4

B.

5

C.

10

D.

11

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Questions 211

Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Define Scope

C.

Plan Scope Management

D.

Collect Requirements

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Questions 212

External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:

Options:

A.

Customers.

B.

Business partners.

C.

Sellers.

D.

Functional managers.

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Questions 213

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

Options:

A.

Plan Communications

B.

Performance reporting

C.

Project status reports

D.

Distribute Information

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Questions 214

Which of the following are processes associated with Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Develop Costs. Estimate Costs, Determine Budget. Control Costs

B.

Develop Budget, Determine Budget, Determine Risks, Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management, Estimate Costs. Determine Budget. Control Costs

D.

Plan Budget Management. Determine Budget, Create Cost Accounts. Control Costs

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Questions 215

In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:

Options:

A.

part-time

B.

full-time

C.

occasional

D.

unlimited

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Questions 216

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

Options:

A.

low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

B.

low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

C.

high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.

D.

high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

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Questions 217

A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks. Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?

Options:

A.

Three weeks

B.

Four weeks

C.

Five weeks

D.

Six weeks

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Questions 218

The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:

Options:

A.

a control chart.

B.

baseline.

C.

Create WBS.

D.

decomposition.

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Questions 219

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?

Options:

A.

To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client ' s overall business objectives.

B.

To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization ' s business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.

C.

To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.

D.

To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.

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Questions 220

The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:

Options:

A.

Arrow Diagram.

B.

Critical Path Methodology (CPM).

C.

Activity-On-Node (AON).

D.

schedule network diagram.

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Questions 221

A software development team is working on a project to adapt an application to new, government-established data-privacy rules. What factor led to the creation of this project?

Options:

A.

Legal requirement

B.

New technology

C.

Social need

D.

Economic change

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Questions 222

Who should the stakeholders consult to discuss concerns about the current work package?

Options:

A.

Project manager

B.

Business analyst

C.

Project coordinator

D.

Project sponsor

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Questions 223

What type of stakeholder is part of a project manager ' s sphere of influence on a project?

Options:

A.

Customers

B.

Sponsors

C.

Directors

D.

Resource managers

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Questions 224

A project manager is working with the team to prepare the estimates for various work items. The team needs to compare the relative sizing of the items. What should the project manager suggest the team use?

Options:

A.

Project task estimation

B.

Dependency planning

C.

Story point estimation

D.

Sprint planning

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Questions 225

What process is used to identify quality requirements and/or standards for a project and its deliverables ' ?

Options:

A.

Manage Quality

B.

Plan Quality Management

C.

Control Quality

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 226

What internal enterprise environmental factor (EEF) can impact a project?

Options:

A.

Cultural influences

B.

Physical environmental elements

C.

Commercial databases

D.

Infrastructure

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Questions 227

Which three of the following are the most widely used techniques that a business analyst should implement to gather requirements? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Current state analysis

B.

Facilitated workshops

C.

Scheduled interviews

D.

Shop floor observation

E.

Brainstorming sessions

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Questions 228

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:

Options:

A.

assumption log.

B.

quality checklist.

C.

risk register.

D.

contract type.

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Questions 229

Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:

Options:

A.

portfolio

B.

program

C.

selection

D.

sub portfolio

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Questions 230

Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?

Options:

A.

Teaming

B.

Collective bargaining

C.

Sharing

D.

Working

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Questions 231

Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Enterprise environmental factors

C.

Stakeholder register

D.

Organizational process assets

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Questions 232

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Control Costs

B.

Determine Budget

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Control Budget

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Questions 233

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

Options:

A.

Scope

B.

Quality

C.

Specification

D.

Grade

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Questions 234

Which type of project life cycle uses an iteration plan?

Options:

A.

Agile

B.

Predictive

C.

Waterfall

D.

Product

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Questions 235

Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder register

B.

Scope management plan

C.

Stakeholder management plan

D.

Project charter

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Questions 236

Which of the following is provided by the critical path method?

Options:

A.

Schedule float

B.

Earned value (EV)

C.

Total float

D.

Schedule value

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Questions 237

An international company that is starting to practice an adaptive approach has several development teams located globally. They are having problems with multiple time zones and repetitive project schedule slippage.

What effective tools should the project teams use to collaborate?

Options:

A.

Adopt an iterative development approach and conduct virtual meetings.

B.

Arrange frequent colocated meetings and let the teams work together.

C.

Focus on developing products by only using teams that are colocated.

D.

Benchmark and adopt best practices that are being used by the competition.

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Questions 238

It’s time to perform code review on a software project that has over three million lines of code written. Which management tool should the project manager use?

Options:

A.

Pareto chart

B.

Regression analysis

C.

Statistical sampling

D.

Automated testing tools

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Questions 239

A project manager needs information to finish their work on the project charter for a clinical trial.

Which procedure is used to obtain the requirements information?

Options:

A.

Forecasting

B.

Simulations

C.

Elicitation

D.

Quantitative analysis

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Questions 240

An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:

Options:

A.

The project charter.

B.

The stakeholder analysis.

C.

A communication management plan.

D.

A stakeholder register.

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Questions 241

Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?

Options:

A.

Change requests

B.

Variance analysis

C.

Accepted deliverables

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 242

Which is an aspect of the requirements management plan?

Options:

A.

Detailed project scope statement

B.

Creation of work breakdown strucure (WBS)

C.

Impact analysis

D.

Duration for implementation

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Questions 243

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.

Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?

Options:

A.

0.83

B.

0.9

C.

1.11

D.

1.33

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Questions 244

The procurement requirements for a project include working with several vendors. What should the project manager take into consideration during the Project Procurement Management processes?

Options:

A.

Work performance information

B.

Bidder conferences

C.

Complexity of procurement

D.

Procurement management plan

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Questions 245

In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?

Options:

A.

Schedule

B.

Quality

C.

Communications

D.

Cost

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Questions 246

When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?

Options:

A.

Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise.

B.

Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult.

C.

Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain.

D.

Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes.

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Questions 247

Perform Quantitative Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a lsit of known risks and preparing responses to them

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and impact for every risk in the risk register

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project ' s time and cost objectives

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Questions 248

An adaptive team is working on a mobile banking application. The team conducted their sprint demo, which included 12 stories that were completed. This was the last sprint before the product was to be launched in the beta phase. One of the attendees from marketing noticed that a requested enhancement to share on social media was still in the product backlog.

Why was the product still determined to be ready for delivery?

Options:

A.

The development team ran out of time and did not pull the social media story from the backlog.

B.

The development team completed all of the stories identified by the product owner as having the highest customer value.

C.

The sprint demo went smoothly and the team did not find any open issues.

D.

The social media story is a marketing priority and less important than other priorities.

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Questions 249

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

Options:

A.

Smooth/accommodate

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Force/direct

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Questions 250

A project team is working on a complex product and the work breakdown structure (WBS) is finalized. The team determines that the best approach is to use an adaptive delivery method and is now tasked with converting the WBS for adaptive delivery.

How can the team manage the conversion of the existing WBS to an adaptive approach?

Options:

A.

Generate use cases for each WBS element and prepare a requirements document.

B.

Produce a release plan for each WBS element and organize them into iterations for delivery.

C.

Create themes for each WBS element and organize them into iterations for delivery.

D.

Organize the WBS into a set of related themes, epics, and user stories.

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Questions 251

An adaptive team schedules 20 story points in the upcoming sprint. Historically, the team completes 25 story points on average per sprint. Each sprint is two weeks, and there is one day of float.

What is the likelihood the team will complete all 20 story points in the upcoming sprint?

Options:

A.

50-75%

B.

25-50%

C.

75-100%

D.

0-25%

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Questions 252

The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:

Options:

A.

Control Schedule.

B.

Quality Control.

C.

Perform Integrated Change Control.

D.

Develop Schedule.

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Questions 253

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Planning

D.

Closing

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Questions 254

What process is included in Project Schedule Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Activity Durations

B.

Create Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

C.

Direct and Manage Project Work

D.

Estimate Activity Resources

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Questions 255

Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?

Options:

A.

Purchase requisition

B.

Purchase order

C.

Verbal agreement

D.

Request for quote

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Questions 256

A project team for a marketing company is acquiring leaflets and materials from competitors. The team is working on a project to release new products, and they are trying to get ideas on how to most efficiently market these new products.

Which activity is the project team conducting?

Options:

A.

Project execution

B.

Benchmarking

C.

Brainstorming

D.

Project initiation

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Questions 257

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-C-F-G-I

B.

A-B-C-F-H-I

C.

A-D-E-F-G-I

D.

A-D-E-F-H-I

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Questions 258

Which of the following documents ate created as part of Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Project charter and project management plan

B.

Communications management plan and scope management plan

C.

Quality management plan and risk management plan

D.

Project scope statement and communications management plan

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Questions 259

A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:

Options:

A.

change control tools

B.

expert judgment

C.

meetings

D.

analytical techniques

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Questions 260

What is the discipline that focuses on the interdependences between projects to determine the optimal approach for managing them?

Options:

A.

Project Management

B.

Program Management

C.

Portfolio Management

D.

Operations Management

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Questions 261

The project team of a predictive project is following the requirements traceability matrix to ensure the deliverables align with customer expectations. If the project had been an adaptive project, the project team would use a different artifact to ensure the deliverables align with customer expectations. What should the project team use in an adaptive project?

Options:

A.

Business case

B.

Product backlog

C.

Milestone list

D.

Product management plan

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Questions 262

The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (VVBS) is called a/an:

Options:

A.

work package

B.

deliverable

C.

milestone

D.

activity

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Questions 263

Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?

Options:

A.

Procurement documents

B.

Communications plan

C.

Project charter

D.

Stakeholder register

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Questions 264

Which cost is associated with nonconformance?

Options:

A.

Liabilities

B.

Inspections

C.

Training

D.

Equipment

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Questions 265

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

Options:

A.

Finish-to-start planning

B.

Rolling wave planning

C.

Short term planning

D.

Dependency determination

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Questions 266

A project is in progress and about to move to a different phase, according to the plan. This will be a good opportunity for the project manager to:

Options:

A.

create the project management plan.

B.

identify the project objectives.

C.

review and update stakeholder engagement.

D.

create the schedule baseline.

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Questions 267

On which type of project.... only after the final iteration?

On wtiich type of project lite cycle is ihe deliverable produced trough a series of ileralrons considering thai the deliverable ts completed only after the Imal iteration?

Options:

A.

Incremental life cycle

B.

Predictive life cycle

C.

Iterative life cycle

D.

Adaptive life cycle

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Questions 268

A project is at risk of delivering the solution late because of poor quality that prevents the user acceptance testing (UAT) from being finalized. The product owner does not want to sign off until all the Severity 1 (S1) defects are fixed. What should the project manager do to manage this risk?

Options:

A.

Create a risk in the risk register for each S1 defect and assign actions.

B.

Consult the risk register and implement the risk response actions.

C.

Ask the developers to work longer hours and resolve the defects.

D.

Review the organizational chart to find out who else can sign off UAT.

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Questions 269

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

Options:

A.

Final phase of the project

B.

Start of the project

C.

End of the project

D.

Midpoint of the project

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Questions 270

Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder management strategy

B.

Communication methods

C.

Issue log

D.

Change requests

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Questions 271

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?

Options:

A.

Resource plan

B.

Project management plan

C.

Cost control plan

D.

Expected monetary value plan

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Questions 272

Which component of the project management plan should be updated if a change occurs?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project baseline

C.

Assumption log

D.

Schedule forecast

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Questions 273

Which is the communication method used in the Report Performance process?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Project management methodology

C.

Stakeholder analysis

D.

Status review meetings

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Questions 274

What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?

Options:

A.

Cost right at the estimated value

B.

Cost under the estimated value

C.

Cost right at the actual value

D.

Cost over the estimated value

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Questions 275

Which two of the following can be used as communication tools between the business analyst and the rest of the project team? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Project management plan

B.

Pareto chart

C.

Gantt chart

D.

Responsible, accountable, consult, inform (RACI) matrix

E.

Process flows

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Questions 276

Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?

Options:

A.

Influencing

B.

Motivation

C.

Negotiation

D.

Trust building

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Questions 277

What is the primary purpose of Project Scope Management?

Options:

A.

Determining and managing stakeholder needs

B.

Contorting the status of the product scope and managing changes to its be seine

C.

Defining and controlling what is and is not included in the project

D.

Differentiating between the product scope and project scope

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Questions 278

When should Project Risk Management be conducted?

Options:

A.

Project Planning

B.

Monitoring and Controlling

C.

Quality Planning

D.

Throughout the project lifecycle

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Questions 279

What should a project manager consider to address the full delivery life cycle for large projects?

Options:

A.

A range of techniques utilizing a plan driven approach, adaptive approach or a hybrid or both

B.

Only techniques of an agile/adaptive approach in large organizations

C.

Change the role of the project manager to managing pro|ci I in adaptive nuviionin-

D.

Splitting larger projects into two or more smaller project is which can be addressed in an adaptive method

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Questions 280

A project manager has recently been assigned a new agile project and needs to determine an appropriate leadership style. The project manager aims to empower the team members so they feel committed and motivated to deliver value.

Which leadership style should be used for this project?

Options:

A.

A servant leadership style

B.

A laissez-faire leadership style

C.

A collaborative leadership style

D.

A directive leadership style

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Questions 281

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

Options:

A.

Make-or-buy decisions.

B.

Activity cost estimates.

C.

Seller proposals.

D.

Procurement documents.

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Questions 282

A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:

Options:

A.

risk management plan

B.

human resource management plan

C.

scope management plan

D.

procurement management plan

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Questions 283

What is a tool to improve team performance?

Options:

A.

Staffing plan

B.

External feedback

C.

Performance reports

D.

Co-location

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Questions 284

A community project with a large number of stakeholders is scheduled for delivery in six months. The project manager asked the business analyst to ensure effective requirements elicitation. What should the business analyst do?

Options:

A.

Ask the project coordinator to facilitate some of the workshops.

B.

Invite both internal and external stakeholders to the workshops.

C.

Engage a consultant that is familiar with the community needs.

D.

Organize a workshop with the sponsor and major stakeholders.

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Questions 285

Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?

Options:

A.

Work performance data

B.

Project documents

C.

Scope baseline

D.

Requirements documentation

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Questions 286

A reward can only be effective if it is:

Options:

A.

Given immediately after the project is completed.

B.

Something that is tangible.

C.

Formally given during project performance appraisals.

D.

Satisfying a need valued by the individual.

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Questions 287

Which Process Group ' s purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?

Options:

A.

Monitoring and Controlling

B.

Initiating

C.

Planning

D.

Executing

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Questions 288

Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:

Options:

A.

updates.

B.

defect repairs.

C.

preventive actions.

D.

corrective actions.

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Questions 289

The diagram below is an example of a:

Options:

A.

Risk breakdown structure (RBS).

B.

Project team.

C.

SWOT Analysis.

D.

Work breakdown structure (WBS).

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Questions 290

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

Options:

A.

cultural differences of team members

B.

possibility of communication misunderstandings

C.

costs associated with travel

D.

costs associated with technology

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Questions 291

Why is required in a project?

Options:

A.

Because a one-size-fits-all approach avoids complications and saves time.

B.

Because every project is unique and not every tool, technique, input, or output identified in the PMBOK Guide is required.

C.

Because tailoring allows us to identify the techniques, procedures, and system practices used by those in the project.

D.

Project managers should apply every process in the PMBOK Guide to the project, so failoring is not requires.

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Questions 292

The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:

Options:

A.

adaptive

B.

reflexive

C.

predictive

D.

iterative

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Questions 293

What tern describes an intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component?

Options:

A.

Preventive action

B.

Corrective action

C.

Defect repair

D.

Updates

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Questions 294

A project manager read the initial contract when a project was started. The contract states a house has to be built in one year, and the foundation has to be completed in 30 days. What should the project manager do?

Options:

A.

Add the milestones to the risk register, as time is short.

B.

Add the two milestones to the project plan, as they are mandatory.

C.

Calculate the duration of the two milestones stated in the contract.

D.

Start the project as soon as possible, as time is short.

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Questions 295

A project team is reviewing project performance. During the execution phase, the project team discovers that there is an off-the-shelf (OTS) product, which could reduce the timeline for development.

What should the project manager do next?

Options:

A.

Update the project management plan.

B.

Add the discovery to the assumptions.

C.

Evaluate the risk with the project team.

D.

Conduct an opportunity analysis with the team.

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Questions 296

Which tool should a project manager use to calculate cost variance for a project?

Options:

A.

Contingency analysis

B.

Review lessons learned from similar projects

C.

Expert judgment

D.

Actual cost

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Questions 297

What document gathers all of the lessons learned at the end of a phase or project

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Lessons learned list

C.

Lessons learned project asset

D.

Lessons learned repository

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Questions 298

Which of the following activities are included as part of a project manager ' s responsibilities?

Options:

A.

Direct, control, and focus on structure.

B.

Problem solve , achieve the bottom line, and focus on success.

C.

Control, maintain project status, and develop.

D.

Inspire, engage, and build relationships with people.

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Questions 299

A project was sent for early customer testing and the customer reported that some of the features do not features do not meet the requirements. What should the project manager have done to avoid this scenario?

Options:

A.

Engage customer earlier

B.

Conduct quality audits

C.

Validate Scope

D.

Validate quality requirements

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Questions 300

Risk exists the moment that a project is:

Options:

A.

planned.

B.

conceived.

C.

chartered.

D.

executed.

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Questions 301

A project manager is leading a project in a volatile industry. Industry standards are updated often, which requires the project team to make frequent adjustments to their work.

What should the project manager create to manage the possible changes?

Options:

A.

Communications management plan

B.

Cost management plan

C.

Risk management plan

D.

Quality management plan

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Questions 302

Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Control Risks

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 303

Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?

Options:

A.

Enhance

B.

Share

C.

Exploit

D.

Accept

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Questions 304

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

Options:

A.

Procurement audit

B.

Lessons learned

C.

Performance reporting

D.

Payment requests

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Questions 305

Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?

Options:

A.

Cost baseline

B.

Service level agreement

C.

Memorandum of understanding

D.

Business case

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Questions 306

Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:

Options:

A.

prototypes

B.

requirements

C.

analyses

D.

benchmarks

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Questions 307

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

Options:

A.

BAC

B.

EAC

C.

ETC

D.

WBS

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Questions 308

What causes replanning of the project scope?

Options:

A.

Project document updates

B.

Project scope statement changes

C.

Variance analysis

D.

Change requests

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Questions 309

Which three processes are generally included in risk management? (Choose three)

Options:

A.

Monitor Risk Costs

B.

Identify Risks

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

E.

Estimate Risk Activity Resources

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Questions 310

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?

Options:

A.

Initiating

B.

Planning

C.

Executing

D.

Closing

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Questions 311

What is the project manager ' s responsibility in Project Integration Management?

Options:

A.

Ensuring that requirements-related work is clarified in the project management plan

B.

Investing sufficient effort in acquiring, managing, motivating, and empowering the project team

C.

Combining the results in all other knowledge areas, and overseeing the project as a whole

D.

Developing a strategy to ensure effective stakeholder communication

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Questions 312

An organization is faced with increasing demand from the board of directors. They say budgets are flexible as long as the work gets completed.

What project management approach should the organization use?

Options:

A.

Predictive

B.

Hybrid

C.

Iterative

D.

Adaptive

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Questions 313

Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?

Options:

A.

Force/direct

B.

Withdraw/avoid

C.

Compromise/reconcile

D.

Collaborate/problem solve

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Questions 314

Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?

Options:

A.

The risk of achieving the shortened project time is increased.

B.

The critical path will have positive total float.

C.

Contingency reserves are released for redeployment by the project manager.

D.

Duration buffers are added to maintain a focus on planned activity durations.

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Questions 315

A key project team member complains about being left out of the communication loop. In order to ensure that each key member is involved, who should review the business analysis communications management plan?

Options:

A.

Business analyst, project manager, and sponsor

B.

Business analyst, project manager, and stakeholders

C.

Business analyst and project manager

D.

Only the business analyst

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Questions 316

What is the Project Schedule Management practice used to deliver incremental value to the customer ' ?

Options:

A.

Resource optimization

B.

Iterative scheduling with a backlog

C.

On-demand scheduling

D.

Critical path method

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Questions 317

Which behavior is a management trait?

Options:

A.

Asking what and why

B.

Challenging the status quo

C.

Innovating

D.

Relying on control

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Questions 318

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

Options:

A.

Risk register

B.

Risk audits

C.

Risk urgency assessment

D.

Risk probability and impact assessment

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Questions 319

Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?

Options:

A.

Benchmarking, expert judgment, and analytical techniques

B.

Statistical sampling, benchmarking, and meetings

C.

Negotiations, pre-assignment, and multi-criteria decision analysis

D.

Expert judgment, analytical techniques, and meetings

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Questions 320

Which key interpersonal skill of a project manager is defined as the strategy of sharing power and relying on interpersonal skills to convince others to cooperate toward common goals?

Options:

A.

Collaboration

B.

Negotiation

C.

Decision making

D.

Influencing

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Questions 321

During the requirements verification process, stakeholders are finding many errors in the requirements definition. What could the business analyst have done to avoid these errors?

Options:

A.

Asked the stakeholders to write the requirements themselves

B.

Included the project manager in the elicitation sessions

C.

Confirmed the elicitation results after sessions

D.

Updated the requirements traceability matrix

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Questions 322

A project is at the closing stage. The project manager asks the team to perform closing functions at the next meeting. Which two procedures will the project team perform? (Choose two)

Options:

A.

Project audit

B.

Deliverable acceptance

C.

Risk register tracking

D.

Stakeholder mapping

E.

Issue log update

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Questions 323

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS)

B.

Network diagrams

C.

Staffing management plan

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

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Questions 324

A project manager is working on the communications management plan. Which of these documents are inputs to consider?

Options:

A.

Stakeholder engagement plan and organizational process assets

B.

Project schedule and stakeholder register

C.

Quality management plan and risk register

D.

Basis of estimates and scope baseline

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Questions 325

During the project life cycle for a major product, a stakeholder asked to add a new feature. Which document should they consult for guidance?

Options:

A.

Product release plan

B.

Project release plan

C.

Project management plan

D.

Product management plan

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Questions 326

When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:

Options:

A.

event.

B.

response,

C.

perception.

D.

impact.

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Questions 327

What statement describes the function or responsibility of a project manager?

Options:

A.

Works with the sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues that may impact the team

B.

Seeks ways to develop relationships that assist the team in achieving organizational goals and objectives

C.

Ensures that the project ' s business operations are efficient

D.

Provides management oversight for a project’s functional or business units

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Questions 328

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Networking

B.

Training

C.

Negotiation

D.

Issue log

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Questions 329

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

Options:

A.

enterprise environmental factors

B.

organizational process assets

C.

the project management plan

D.

the stakeholder register

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Questions 330

How can you describe the role of the project.... of influence concept?

Options:

A.

The proiect manager proactivnly interacfS with other project managers creating a positive influence Km fulfilling project needs, working with other managers and sponsor to address internal political and strategic issues and ensunng that the project managemenl plan aligns with the portfolio or program plan

B.

The project manager leads the team, performs communication roles between stakeholders, and uses interpersonal sills to balance conflicting goals

C.

The proiect manager stays informed about current technology developments lakes into account new quality management standards, and uses relevant technical support tools

D.

The proiect manager participates in project management trainings, contributes to the organization professional community sharing knowledge, and maintains subied matter expertise

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Questions 331

Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?

Options:

A.

Cost variance (CV)

B.

Cost performance index (CPI)

C.

Budget at completion (BAC)

D.

Variance at completion (VAC)

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Questions 332

Two resources are performing a peer review of an artifact. What should be the outcome of the peer review?

Options:

A.

All business rules and data requirements for each process are documented.

B.

All relevant business rules for each process are documented.

C.

The resulting documentation adheres to established organizational standards.

D.

The data requirements for each process are documented.

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Questions 333

Project managers plan a key role performing integration on the project what are the three different levels of integration?

Options:

A.

Process, cognitive

B.

Complexity, understand and change

C.

Interact, insight and leadership

D.

Communication, knowledge and value

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Questions 334

What is the purpose of the project schedule management.

Options:

A.

Estimates specific time and the deadline when the products, services and results will be delivered.

B.

Determines in details the resources and time that each task will require to be done

C.

Represents how and when the project will deliver the results defined in the project scope.

D.

It provides the relationships among the project activities and their risks.

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Questions 335

Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?

Options:

A.

Resource calendar

B.

Scope baseline

C.

Trend analysis

D.

Cost baseline

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Questions 336

A project manager in a bank is developing market risk-related processes and is midway through the project. More than half of the product backlog items are developed and delivered to the customer. Due to regulatory and compliance changes in the industry, new backlog items were added to the product backlog with a significant impact on the project schedule. Who should the project manager send this change request to?

Options:

A.

The project steering committee (PSC)

B.

The project management office (PMO)

C.

The change control board (CCB)

D.

The change management committee (CMC)

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Questions 337

Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?

Options:

A.

Acquisition

B.

Negotiation

C.

Virtual team

D.

Pre-assignment

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Questions 338

Which of the following are outputs of define scope process in project scope management

Options:

A.

Requirements documentation and requirements traceability matrix

B.

Scope management plan and requirements management plan

C.

Project Scope statement and project documents updates

D.

Scope baseline and project documents updates

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Questions 339

When is a project finished?

Options:

A.

After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor

B.

After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure

C.

When the project objectives have been met

D.

After resources have been released

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Questions 340

The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:

Options:

A.

Plan Quality.

B.

Perform Quality Assurance.

C.

Perform Quality Control.

D.

Total Quality Management.

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Questions 341

Which of these is true of project integration management?

Options:

A.

Project Integration Management is mandatory and more effective in larger projects.

B.

Project Integration Management and expert judgment are mutually exclusive.

C.

Project Integration Management is the responsibility of the project manager

D.

Project Integration Management excludes the triple constraints if cost performance index (CPI) equals zero.

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Questions 342

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

Options:

A.

Historical information and the lessons-learned database.

B.

Historical information and the stakeholder register.

C.

Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.

D.

Project documents and historical information.

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Questions 343

An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:

Options:

A.

Business case.

B.

Activity list.

C.

Project management plan.

D.

Cost forecast.

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Questions 344

An example of a group decision-making technique is:

Options:

A.

nominal group technique

B.

majority

C.

affinity diagram

D.

multi-criteria decision analysis

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Questions 345

The project manager and the project team are having a meeting with the purpose of identifying risks. Which tools and techniques might help in this process?

Options:

A.

Prompt lists and data analysis

B.

Reports and representations of uncertainty

C.

Data analysis and risk audits

D.

Interpersonal and team skills and project management Information system

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Questions 346

The project manager is working with some functional managers and stakeholders on the resource management plan Which elements may be included in this plan?

Options:

A.

Team values, team agreements, and conflict resolution process

B.

Conflict resolution process, communication guidelines, and meeting schedules

C.

Team roles and responsibilities, team management, and training plan

D.

Resource requirements, resource assignments, and team performance assessments

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Questions 347

An organization that is being interviewed online has recently experienced a severe network outage. Consequently, the organization has stated that it is required to have a working data network.

Which classification should be assigned to data network requirements?

Options:

A.

Customer requirement

B.

Transition requirement

C.

Solution requirement

D.

Business requirement

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Questions 348

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?

Options:

A.

Identify Risks

B.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

C.

Plan Risk Management

D.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

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Questions 349

Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:

Options:

A.

Decision tree diagram.

B.

Tornado diagram.

C.

Pareto diagram.

D.

Ishikawa diagram.

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Questions 350

Which is a method of prototyping that creates a functioning representation of the final finished product to the user?

Options:

A.

Low-fidelity prototyping

B.

High-fidelity prototyping

C.

Data prototyping

D.

Report prototyping

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Questions 351

During a sprint demo, the customer says that one of the user stories is not ready for customer use. Which checklist should the team look at to find out what has been missed for the user story?

Options:

A.

Burndown chart

B.

Velocity chart

C.

Definition of ready (DoR)

D.

Definition of done (DoD)

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Questions 352

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

Options:

A.

Change control

B.

Configuration control

C.

Project monitoring and control

D.

Issue control

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Questions 353

Which actions should a project manager follow to manage stakeholders?

Options:

A.

Identify the key stakeholders and keep them informed at all times.

B.

Identify the stakeholders, planning, managing and monitoring their engagement

C.

Meet and keep informed any person related to the project, at all times

D.

Identify the stakeholders and monitor their level of satisfaction

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Questions 354

Requirements documentation, requirements management plan, and requirements traceability matrix are all outputs of which process?

Options:

A.

Control Scope

B.

Collect Requirements

C.

Create WBS

D.

Define Scope

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Questions 355

Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?

Options:

A.

Control Risks

B.

Plan Risk Management

C.

Plan Risk Responses

D.

Identify Risks

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Questions 356

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

Options:

A.

Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness

B.

Ground rules for interaction

C.

Enhanced resource availability

D.

Functional managers becoming more involved

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Questions 357

What scenario describes when a project must be created due to market demand?

Options:

A.

A public company authorizes a project to create a new service for electric car sharing to reduce pollution.

B.

A car company authorizes a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.

C.

Researchers develop an autonomous car. with several new features to be commercialized in the future.

D.

Stakeholders request that raw matenais be changed due to locally high costs.

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Questions 358

A project manager is searching for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily resolve a conflict. What conflict management technique is described in this situation?

Options:

A.

Withdraw/avoid

B.

Smooth /accommodate

C.

Collaborate/problem solve

D.

Compromise/ reconcile

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Questions 359

What can a project1 manager review to understand the status of project?

Options:

A.

Work breakdown structure (WBS) status

B.

Quality and technical performance measures

C.

Cost and scope baselines

D.

Business case completeness

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Questions 360

The project manager released a report A few stakeholders express the view that report should

have been directed to them

Which of the 5Cs of written communications does the project manager need to address?

Options:

A.

Correct grammar and spelling

B.

Concise expression and elimination of excess words

C.

Clear purpose and expression directed to the needs of the reader

D.

Coherent logical flow of ideas

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Questions 361

Which three techniques can be estimate costs?

Options:

A.

Financing, bottom-up estimating, and expert judgment

B.

Cost aggregation, analogous estimating, and financing

C.

Expert judgment, financing, and cost aggregation

D.

Expert judgment, analogous estimating, and bottom-up estimating

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Questions 362

The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?

Options:

A.

Sequence Activities

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Develop Schedule

D.

Control Schedule

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Questions 363

In an adaptive project environment, which action helps the project manager ensure that the team is comfortable with changes?

Options:

A.

Having control over the planning and delivery of the products without delegating decisions

B.

Giving access to information to the team and frequent team checkpoints

C.

Selecting different team members to take the project manager role during reviews with stakeholders

D.

Asking the control change board to approve changes before notifying the team

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Questions 364

The following is a network diagram for a project.

What is the critical path for the project?

Options:

A.

A-B-D-G

B.

A-B-E-G

C.

A-C-F-G

D.

A-C-E-G

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Questions 365

A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:

Options:

A.

The best use of communication methods.

B.

An efficient and effective communication flow.

C.

Project costs to be reduced.

D.

The best use of communication technology.

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Questions 366

Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?

Options:

A.

Scope baseline

B.

Organizational process assets

C.

Enterprise environmental factors

D.

Risk register

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Questions 367

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis focuses on:

Options:

A.

compiling a list of known risks and preparing responses to them.

B.

assessing the probability of occurrence and Impact for every risk in the risk register.

C.

evaluating the contingency and management reserves required for the project.

D.

analyzing numerically the impact of individual risks on the overall project ' s time and cost objectives.

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Questions 368

A project manager called for a team meeting...................method did the team use

A project manager called for a team meeting to estimate the project effort. During the session, the team went on to identify all the deliverables and analyzed the related work. Each of the analyzed deliverables were estimated. Which estimation method did the team use?

Options:

A.

Rolling wave planning

B.

Expert Judgement

C.

Decomposition

D.

Data analysis

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Questions 369

The following is a network diagram for a project.

How many possible paths are identified for this project?

Options:

A.

3

B.

4

C.

6

D.

7

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Questions 370

In the business analysis aspect of a construction project, what is the purpose of the requirements validation process?

Options:

A.

Ensures a thorough unit test case coverage

B.

Ensures an accurate reflection of the stakeholders ' intentions

C.

Ensures that the business problem is solved

D.

Ensures the successful delivery of business value

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Questions 371

What should the project manager use to evaluate the politics and power structure among stakeholders inside and outside of the organization?

Options:

A.

Expert judgment

B.

Interpersonal skills

C.

Team agreements

D.

Communication skills

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Questions 372

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

Options:

A.

Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis

B.

Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis

C.

Control Risks

D.

Plan Risk Responses

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Questions 373

The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?

Options:

A.

Estimate Costs

B.

Control Costs

C.

Plan Cost Management

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 374

The project manager and project team are developing approximations of the cost of resources needed to complete the project work. On which process are they working?

Options:

A.

Plan Cost Management

B.

Estimate Activity Resources

C.

Estimate Costs

D.

Determine Budget

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Questions 375

A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:

Options:

A.

Quality assurance.

B.

A stakeholder management plan.

C.

Project team building.

D.

Integrated change control.

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Questions 376

A Project manager is using agile in a project. As development life cycle is adaptive, how does the project manager handle key stakeholder involvement?

Options:

A.

Key stakeholders are regularly involved

B.

Key stakeholders are continuously involved

C.

Key stakeholders are involved at specific milestones

D.

Key stakeholders are always involved

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Questions 377

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

Options:

A.

Pareto

B.

Ishikawa

C.

Shewhart-Deming

D.

Delphi

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Questions 378

Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?

Options:

A.

Feedback analysis

B.

Stakeholder analysis

C.

Communication management plan

D.

Stakeholder management plan

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Questions 379

The handoff of the first version of a software application to the operational team has taken a month longer than anticipated. How could this extended transition time have been avoided?

Options:

A.

If the operation team members were trained externally

B.

If the transition process was agreed upon during the build

C.

If the end-user documentation was more thorough

D.

If the operations manager was invited to all sprint reviews

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Questions 380

A new project was approved by the project management office (PMO), and the scope of the project is to build a new detachable classroom. What delivery method and artifacts should the project manager use to deliver this project?

Options:

A.

Linear project management; project schedule and project backlog

B.

Adaptive project management; project schedule and work breakdown structure

C.

Linear project management; project schedule and work breakdown structure (WBS)

D.

Adaptive project management; project schedule and project backlog

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Questions 381

Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?

Options:

A.

Ishikawa

B.

Milestone

C.

Influence

D.

Decision tree

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Questions 382

Which document can help a project manager to leverage historical project information?

Options:

A.

Lessons learned register

B.

Schedule baseline

C.

Work performance data

D.

Deliverable acceptance forms

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Questions 383

Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:

Options:

A.

Performance measurement baseline.

B.

Analysis of project forecasts,

C.

Summary of changes approved in a period,

D.

Analysis of past performance.

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Questions 384

Responsible, accountable, consult and inform (RACI) is an example of which of the following?

Options:

A.

Text-oriented formal

B.

Resource management plan

C.

Organization chart

D.

Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

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Questions 385

Which is the appropriate tool to identify the possible correlation two elements in aprocess?

Options:

A.

Scatter diagram

B.

Cause and effect diagram

C.

Histogram

D.

Control charts

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Questions 386

The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:

Options:

A.

Project management plan.

B.

Project charter.

C.

Work breakdown structure.

D.

Stakeholder register.

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Questions 387

Considering a highly dynamic project environment, which approach should the project manager adopt to manage the project team?

Options:

A.

A self-organizing approach to increase team focus and maximize collaboration

B.

A virtual team to minimize feeling of isolation and gaps on sharing knowledge

C.

A distributed team to improve tracking progress, productivity, and performance

D.

A norming approach that requires team members to adjust their behavior and work together

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Questions 388

The staffing management plan is part of the:

Options:

A.

organizational process assets.

B.

resource calendar.

C.

human resource plan.

D.

Develop Project Team process.

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Questions 389

A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?

Options:

A.

Listening

B.

Facilitation

C.

Meeting management

D.

Presentation

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Questions 390

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

Options:

A.

Project charter

B.

Project scope statement

C.

Scope management plan

D.

Project document updates

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Questions 391

A project manager is analyzing a few network diagrams in order to determine the minimum duration of a project. Which diagram should the project manager reference?

Options:

A.

A diagram in which resource optimization has been applied.

B.

A diagram in which the critical path method has been applied.

C.

A diagram in which a predefined series of activities has been organized.

D.

A diagram which shows a combination of resource and time optimization.

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Questions 392

A regression line is used to estimate:

Options:

A.

Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.

B.

How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.

C.

The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.

D.

The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.

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Questions 393

Match the process with its corresponding Process Group:

Options:

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Questions 394

A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:

Options:

A.

facilitated workshops.

B.

observations.

C.

questionnaires and surveys.

D.

group creativity techniques.

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Questions 395

What does leadership involve?

Options:

A.

Working with others through discussion or debate to guide them from one point to another

B.

Directing another person from one point to another using a known set of expected behaviors

C.

Working with a person using expert judgment to develop the technical deliverables

D.

Directing another person to develop the necessary expertise to establish technical deliverables

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Exam Code: CAPM
Exam Name: Certified Associate in Project Management (CAPM)
Last Update: Jul 3, 2026
Questions: 1320
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