PMI-ACP PMI Agile Certified Practitioner (PMI-ACP) Questions and Answers

To support quick feature delivery while maintaining quality, the best approach is to automate integration, testing, and deployment activities. This aligns with the principles of Continuous Integration and Continuous Deployment (CI/CD), which streamline processes and reduce the manual effort required to test and deploy software. This approach can help the team to quickly release features with confidence that they meet quality standards, reducing manual errors and speeding up the delivery cycle.

Relying solely on the developers' experience with similar systems to define functionality can be limiting and potentially result in misaligned expectations with actual user needs. Effective Agile teams should focus on understanding and addressing the needs of end users, leveraging continuous feedback from customers, and engaging stakeholders directly. This ensures the product is built to meet real user expectations and can evolve as necessary based on user input. Instead of relying on previous experience, the team should be focused on co-creating value with customers through collaboration, feedback, and agile practices like user stories and regular testing.

Large user stories, also known as "epic" user stories, can be challenging to manage and lead to difficulties in tracking progress and delivering value incrementally. The Scrum Master should work with the team to break down large user stories into smaller, more manageable pieces. These smaller stories can be completed within a single sprint, allowing the team to deliver value more frequently and with greater clarity. This practice aligns with Agile principles by ensuring that work is broken into digestible chunks that can be iteratively built, tested, and delivered.

Effective stakeholder engagement starts withshared understanding and agreement on goals and requirements. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2 Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes the need tocollaborate with stakeholders early and often, especially on prioritization and epic-level expectations.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)underscores thatmisunderstandings are reduced when all parties are aligned on what "done" means, and epics and requirements arecollaboratively defined.

Option Ais correct: agreement and shared understanding reduce misalignment and conflict.

Option Bintroduces unnecessary delays in planning.

Option Cis useful but insufficient if initial requirements are misunderstood.

Option Dmay help in contract terms but doesn’t solve day-to-day misalignment.

The correct answer is B — Communicate the issue to the team in the next stand-up meeting.

Agile emphasizes early detection and resolution of impediments through daily communication. The Daily Stand-up is the appropriate forum to raise issues, so the entire team is aware and can decide collaboratively how to proceed.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Daily stand-ups allow team members to communicate problems and identify impediments early. The team collaboratively determines how to respond to issues raised.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 — Stand-up Meetings)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Issues must be shared early and openly. The stand-up is designed to expose blockers and ensure collective team awareness and decision-making.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Option A skips collaboration and bypasses the team’s self-organizing nature. Options C and D delay the communication until the retrospective, which would result in lost time and potentially compound the issue.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is C – Ask the team to collaboratively work out a solution. Agile teams are self-organizing, and problem-solving is most effective when handled collaboratively. The Scrum Master’s role is to facilitate discussions and remove impediments—not to impose solutions.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Problem detection and resolution is a continuous process. Agile teams regularly identify and resolve problems as part of the team’s responsibility. The Scrum Master supports the team by facilitating resolution discussions rather than solving problems directly.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.5 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When technical challenges arise, the team should collaborate to assess the issue and determine the best course of action. The Scrum Master enables this by fostering open communication and guiding the team through the problem-solving process.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A delays resolution and pushes it into the future unnecessarily.

B undermines team autonomy and ownership.

D introduces unnecessary hierarchy into team-level problem-solving.

Answer: C

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The best approach to resolving this conflict is collaborating, as it encourages open communication and active participation from all team members. In this case, the graphic designer’s non-participation is causing frustration within the team. The Scrum Master should facilitate a discussion where the designer can express their concerns, and the team can share why their attendance in meetings is important. By collaborating, the Scrum Master can help find a solution that addresses both the designer’s needs and the team's expectations, ensuring better teamwork and alignment moving forward. This approach encourages mutual respect and fosters a cooperative environment.

Agile encouragesteam collaborationandself-organization. If a team member feels underutilized, the team should be encouraged to engage that person more fully, leveraging their skills across tasks. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3: Team Performance)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Development), the agile practitioner supports healthy team dynamics and facilitatesinclusive participation.

Option Cis correct: promoting team-level inclusion helps resolve underutilization and fosters engagement.

Option Ais a last resort and undermines team stability.

Option Breframes the issue as a performance problem when it may not be.

Option Dunnecessarily escalates what should be resolved within the team.

The Scrum Master’s role as a servant leader is to support the team, not to resolve conflicts for them. It is important for the team to work through their disagreements themselves, as this fosters collaboration and improves their problem-solving skills. The Scrum Master should encourage open communication and guide the team toward healthy conflict resolution, ensuring that the disagreements are addressed constructively. This approach helps the team build trust, improves their cohesion, and strengthens their ability to handle challenges in the future.

If the team members are already communicating regularly with each other and the customer, the daily coordination meetings may not be necessary. The project manager should adapt to the team's needs by reducing the frequency of these meetings, allowing the team to focus more on delivering work. This approach supports Agile principles of minimizing waste and encouraging efficient communication, ensuring that meetings are only held when they add clear value. The team can use alternative methods (e.g., a digital board or asynchronous communication) to stay aligned.

The correct answer is B – The entire team is responsible for quality, but each team member's role may vary as stated in the definition of done (DoD).

In Agile, quality is a shared responsibility. While specialists like QA may have defined roles, all team members are expected to contribute to maintaining and improving product quality. The Definition of Done (DoD) captures shared criteria for acceptance and completion.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are cross-functional and collectively accountable for quality. Specific roles may perform different tasks, but everyone contributes to ensuring the product meets the agreed-upon standards.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Quality and Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths clarifies:

“Quality is everyone’s responsibility. Teams should define what 'done' means and ensure that all members understand and uphold those standards during development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options fall short:

A implies all members must be involved in every component, which may not be efficient or realistic.

C incorrectly assigns surprises or gaps solely to QA.

D misrepresents the Product Manager's role and overemphasizes top-down functionality.

Answer: B

The correct answer is A — Capture risks and make them visible, and use a burndown chart to focus on reducing risks early in the project.

Technical uncertainty is a key area of risk in Agile projects. These risks should be clearly communicated, visualized, and prioritized early in the project to allow timely mitigation. Agile teams are empowered to make decisions and highlight blockers rather than delay work or seek hierarchical intervention.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams actively manage risk through transparency and continuous feedback. Risks should be made visible on information radiators and addressed early in the project to prevent impact on value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Teams facing uncertainty must surface risks openly and early. Using charts such as risk burndown and dashboards helps keep focus on managing these risks iteratively.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts the time-boxing principle of sprints.

C raises awareness but lacks proactive risk mitigation.

D introduces a command-and-control dynamic, which is not agile.

Answer: A

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To ensure a smooth transition to SAFe, the agile team lead should have an open discussion with the team about what will change and the reasons behind these changes. Establishing a clear understanding of the transition process and addressing any concerns proactively helps alleviate fears and encourages buy-in. It's also important to discuss the timeline for the transition and how the team will adapt. By providing clarity and a process for addressing concerns, the team will feel more comfortable and confident in adopting the new methodology.

The correct answer is D – Brainstorm with the team to identify a solution.

Agile promotes collective ownership and team-based decision-making. When a critical issue such as architectural scalability arises, the team should be involved in brainstorming alternatives, weighing trade-offs, and deciding how best to move forward collaboratively.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages collaborative problem-solving and cross-functional ownership. Teams should collectively analyze challenges and determine the most appropriate course of action.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Collaborative Decision-Making)

Mike Griffiths also affirms:

“When teams face significant technical or architectural risks, they should come together to explore options and make decisions based on consensus, feasibility, and value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Why the other options are inappropriate:

A is authoritarian and ignores team input.

B risks performance degradation without team consensus.

C may be part of the process, but only after the team has evaluated options.

Answer: D

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Agile principles emphasizejust-in-time (JIT) planning and design, meaning work should not begin until it's pulled into the current sprint or iteration. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4 Iteration Planning)andMike Griffiths (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), teams shouldfocus on committed iteration workand avoid speculative work that is not yet planned or prioritized.

Designing item B early introducesunvalidated assumptionsand risksreworkif priorities or requirements change. Agile encourages deferring decisions until the last responsible moment to preserve flexibility.

Option Ais correct: the team shouldwait until item B is formally plannedbefore investing effort.

Option Bviolates agile principles by introducing premature work.

Option CandDsuggest formal escalation that is unnecessary and not in the spirit of agile’s decentralized decision-making.

Agile emphasizessustainable paceandcontinuous improvement, not overworking or overcommitting. The appropriate response is to identify why the team overcommitted, learn from it, andadjust future sprint planning. This aligns with thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Sprint Planning and Velocity)andSection 5.6: Retrospectives, which recommend using retrospectives to address such issues.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)explains that over-committing leads to poor predictability, and inspecting root causes helps refine estimation and velocity in future sprints.

Option Cis correct: it supports learning and improves future planning.

Option Apromotes unsustainable practices.

Option Bmisunderstands velocity—it’s a measurement, not something to be increased by will.

Option Dundermines team stability and agile planning based on consistent team capacity.

The correct answer is D – The Product Owner is responsible for both the budget and the release plans.

In Scrum and Agile frameworks, the Product Owner acts as the voice of the customer and is responsible for maximizing the value of the product. This includes managing the product backlog, prioritization, and release planning. Additionally, in Agile environments, budget management—especially in terms of what value is delivered with what investment—is a key aspect of the Product Owner’s role.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner manages the backlog and prioritizes work based on value delivery. The Product Owner is also typically responsible for budgeting and release planning, often in collaboration with stakeholders.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Roles and Responsibilities)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Release planning and value-based budget decisions fall under the Product Owner’s responsibilities, as they are closest to business stakeholders and value prioritization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are incorrect:

A is partially correct but misplaces budget responsibility.

B is traditional and does not reflect Agile delegation to the team and Product Owner.

C promotes team ownership but budget and release planning specifically lie with the Product Owner.

Answer: D

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The first priority for the Scrum Master should be to ensure the project has a dedicated, cross-functional team. Scrum teams are self-organizing and cross-functional, meaning they have all the skills needed to complete the work without relying on external resources. The Scrum Master should focus on forming a team that can collaboratively work on the product development, ensuring they are committed to the project and understand their roles and responsibilities within the Scrum framework. This is essential for the team to be effective and aligned with the Scrum principles, ensuring that they can deliver value in iterative cycles.

The correct answer is A – Educate the QA manager that in agile, quality is integrated from the beginning to the end of the project. Agile emphasizes “built-in” quality through test-first approaches, continuous integration, and Definition of Done. Addressing resistance through education helps clarify that quality is a core part of Agile—not an afterthought.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile does not remove quality controls; rather, it integrates them throughout the development process. Quality is everyone’s responsibility and is embedded through practices such as TDD, automated testing, and continuous feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Quality and Agile)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“In Agile, quality is not sacrificed. It is a fundamental principle. Teams ensure quality by defining acceptance criteria, using continuous integration, and practicing test-first development.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B may be helpful tactically, but doesn’t address the underlying concern.

C misrepresents technical debt.

D places too much QA responsibility on the product owner.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – Show the stakeholder the progress radiators for the project.

Progress radiators, such as task boards, burndown charts, and Kanban boards, visually communicate the status of work in progress, completed items, and remaining scope. They are effective tools for quickly bringing stakeholders up to speed without interrupting the team or requiring extensive reporting.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Progress is tracked and made visible using information radiators such as burndown charts, task boards, and velocity charts. These tools allow stakeholders to monitor project health in real time.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5 – Information Radiators)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“Transparency and visibility are essential in agile. Information radiators keep stakeholders informed and promote collaboration without relying on status reports.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Agile Monitoring and Control)

Other options explained:

A and D offer limited insights or are inappropriate for immediate understanding.

B is valuable but time-limited; radiators provide continuous insight.

Answer: C

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This approach reinforces the core values of agile, particularly the idea that a self-managed team should be collaborative and support one another. The agile lead should focus on creating a safe environment where team members feel comfortable sharing challenges and asking for help. This will not only help the junior team member but also improve the overall team dynamics and performance by fostering a culture of openness and mutual support.

A complete and realistic backlog must include not onlyfunctional storiesbut alsonon-functional and support taskssuch as infrastructure setup, analysis, and design. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Backlog Composition)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)emphasize including all types of work in the backlog to ensureaccurate effort planning.

Option Dis correct: effort must includetechnical tasks, not just feature delivery.

Option Asuggests speculation on velocity and cost increases, which is unreliable.

Option BandC(adding buffers or padding estimates) violate agile’s principle of transparency and simplicity.

The correct answer is C – The users can help the team understand if the feature adds value, avoiding the risk of building the wrong product.

Prototyping in agile serves as a lightweight modeling technique that supports discovery and stakeholder validation. It helps clarify uncertain requirements, encourages collaboration, and ensures that the solution being developed meets user needs and delivers value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Prototypes allow teams to explore solutions before committing to full development. They support value delivery by engaging users early to verify what is needed.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Exploring and Confirming Requirements)

Also:

“Engaging stakeholders in early solution validation through techniques such as wireframes or mockups reduces the risk of developing the wrong product.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Delivering Value Frequently)

Mike Griffiths reinforces this approach:

“Prototyping enhances discovery. It supports feedback loops that validate whether a feature adds value before it's built—especially useful when requirements are unclear.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why other options are less correct:

A is a secondary benefit but not the primary goal of prototyping.

B is speculative and does not reflect the sponsor's actual recommendation.

D misrepresents the purpose of prototyping, which is for discovery, not accelerated deployment.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C – Encourage all feedback then work with the customer to prioritize work for future sprints. Agile welcomes continuous feedback and values customer collaboration. All feedback should be collected and considered, but the product backlog is reprioritized to align with capacity and business goals.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile promotes constant feedback to refine product direction. Feedback is incorporated into the backlog, prioritized based on value, and delivered incrementally according to capacity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery and Continuous Customer Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Stakeholder feedback is essential in agile. Not all feedback can be implemented immediately, but it should be welcomed, evaluated, and prioritized transparently in collaboration with the product owner and stakeholders.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A implies a heavy process not aligned with agile.

B prematurely limits feedback before collaborative prioritization.

D ignores the product owner’s prioritization role.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is A – Lead time, throughput, and due date performance. These are key flow-based metrics used in Kanban systems to monitor performance, efficiency, and predictability of delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Kanban systems rely heavily on flow metrics to measure performance and identify bottlenecks. Key Kanban metrics include lead time, throughput, and cycle time. These metrics provide insights into how quickly work is flowing through the system.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Kanban System Metrics)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Kanban teams track cumulative flow, lead time, and throughput to ensure steady and predictable delivery. Due date performance is used to evaluate commitments and reliability.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B refers to tools and principles, not performance metrics.

C includes practices not specific to Kanban metrics.

D includes some Scrum metrics, such as burndown, but not Kanban-centric ones.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is C – Request that the Product Owner include a spike in the next iteration's backlog so they can perform an initial investigation.

A spike is a time-boxed activity that allows teams to research or experiment to gain knowledge about technical or functional aspects of an upcoming feature or integration. Since the team lacks experience with the new component, using a spike will allow them to explore and reduce uncertainty before actual development begins.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are research activities that help teams gain the knowledge needed to reduce uncertainty and risk in upcoming stories.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Spikes are used when the team is not confident about how to implement a story due to technical or domain uncertainty. Spikes help mitigate risk and inform estimation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options are suboptimal:

A involves team extension, which contradicts Agile's preference for stable, cross-functional teams.

B is misaligned—technical investigation is a team responsibility, not the Product Owner's.

D avoids learning and may compromise solution quality.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is B – The duration of feedback cycles has increased.

In Agile, quick feedback is crucial to success. An increase in feedback cycle time indicates breakdowns in communication, delayed decision-making, or weak collaboration—all of which are signs that a distributed team may not be functioning effectively.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Distributed teams require more intentional efforts to maintain communication and reduce feedback loops. Lag in feedback reduces responsiveness and impedes value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Agile Team Communication)

Mike Griffiths highlights:

“One of the key risks in distributed teams is the degradation of feedback speed. Long feedback cycles result in slower adaptation and lost opportunities.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

A (more emails) is neutral—could be communication, not dysfunction.

C (increased velocity) is a positive sign.

D (rescheduling meetings) is an adjustment, not necessarily dysfunction.

Answer: B

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As a scrum master, the goal is to foster a collaborative and self-organizing environment. When conflicts arise, it is essential to guide the team in resolving the issue on their own rather than making unilateral decisions. The scrum master should:

Coach the team individually to understand the root causes of the conflict and ensure each team member feels heard.

Then, bring the team together in a more structured environment, such as the Sprint review, to discuss the disagreement openly and constructively. This helps the team resolve conflicts and learn how to handle similar situations in the future.

The Scrum retrospective is the appropriate place for the team to reflect on what went well and what didn’t, including the missed sprint goals. The Scrum master should facilitate an open and constructive discussion about the impediments faced during the sprint, such as the unavailability of the specialist, and help the team find ways to avoid or mitigate similar issues in future sprints. This helps the team continuously improve and ensures that they are better prepared for future challenges.

The correct answer is B – Invite the team to evaluate the suggestion and measure the effectiveness of the implementation.

In Agile, continuous improvement is a shared responsibility, and retrospectives are meant to be collaborative sessions where all team members—regardless of experience—can contribute. Ideas that could enhance performance should be discussed by the team as a whole and, when deemed valuable, tested and evaluated in upcoming sprints.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The team owns the process and should inspect and adapt at regular intervals. During retrospectives, the team identifies potential improvements and experiments with them in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Continuous Improvement)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Retrospectives empower teams to improve. All suggestions, regardless of origin, should be treated with respect. Teams test ideas and inspect outcomes to improve incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Why other options fall short:

A delays action and discourages innovation.

C makes the product owner responsible for a team process decision, which is outside their role.

D promotes hierarchy, which undermines team collaboration and Agile values.

Answer: B

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In agile, theProduct Owner is the ultimate decision-makerregarding backlog prioritization and scope changes. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Backlog Prioritization), any changes thataffect value delivery, schedule, or scopeshould be discussed with the Product Owner, who evaluates the business impact.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)reinforces that product direction and scope decisions must be handled through collaboration between the team and the Product Owner.

Option Dis correct: seeking Product Owner input ensures value-based decision-making and customer alignment.

Option A(re-estimating the entire project) is unnecessary and burdensome.

Option Brejects valuable input and ignores iterative flexibility.

Option Cgoes against agile principles of focus and sustainable pace.

The correct answer is D — The team should reevaluate time and cost estimates to reflect the latest understanding of the work effort.

Agile supports progressive elaboration and adaptive planning. When actual effort consistently exceeds estimates, it signals a need to recalibrate estimation practices. The team should revisit their velocity, estimation techniques, and potentially re-estimate upcoming work with improved understanding.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile uses adaptive planning, where teams update estimates based on new information. This supports better forecasting and risk management.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths:

“Estimation accuracy improves over time. Agile teams regularly inspect estimation practices and adjust based on historical data and team maturity.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

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Task boards (or visual boards) are a great way to facilitate communication within the team. By using a task board, team members can easily see what work has been completed, what is currently being worked on, and what still needs attention. This visual aid helps keep everyone on the same page, ensures that information is shared transparently, and can help identify potential bottlenecks or communication gaps. It improves collaboration and visibility, making it easier for the team to coordinate and align on tasks, leading to fewer delays in the development process.

The correct answer is A — Provide feedback for completed user stories.

Stakeholder involvement in Agile is ongoing. Their primary role is to give timely and actionable feedback on delivered product increments to ensure alignment with their expectations and business value goals. This feedback is then used to refine the product backlog and guide future iterations.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Stakeholders should engage regularly to inspect product increments and provide feedback to guide value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“In agile projects, stakeholders ensure their needs are met by actively reviewing completed work and providing feedback to influence upcoming work.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B is the team's responsibility; stakeholders should focus on the “what,” not the “how.”

C is the product owner's responsibility.

D is a collaborative task but not solely a stakeholder responsibility.

Answer: A

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The correct answer is A – Use the DISC framework with each team member.

The DISC model (Dominance, Influence, Steadiness, and Conscientiousness) is a well-established behavioral assessment tool used to understand communication preferences, motivators, and individual work styles. Agile leaders may use tools like DISC to foster emotional intelligence, improve collaboration, and re-engage disengaged team members.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Effective agile leaders understand individual team members' communication styles and motivations. Tools such as DISC or MBTI can help assess personality preferences and enable better coaching.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching Agile Teams)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Behavioral models such as DISC support the development of emotionally intelligent teams. They help leaders tailor their coaching and communication approaches to individual needs.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options are incorrect:

B (MoSCoW) is a prioritization technique, not a tool for personal engagement.

C (Hiring a SAFe coach) is overkill and not the most direct or relevant response.

D (BDUF – Big Design Up Front) is a traditional approach unrelated to team dynamics or motivation.

Answer: A

The correct answer is D — By advising the team to remain committed and focused on project goals.

Agile teams should remain focused on the sprint or iteration goals once committed. Outside demands, even from senior stakeholders, can distract the team and cause scope creep or reduced quality. The agile coach plays a vital role in protecting the team from such disruptions and reinforcing their commitment.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders help teams focus on delivering committed work. Coaches work to eliminate distractions and protect the team from external interferences.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths:

“One of the coach’s roles is to guard the team’s focus. When unrelated demands arise, the coach should guide the team to stay aligned with the current sprint goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A encourages unsustainable practices.

B implies hierarchy not present in Scrum or Agile.

C misuses estimation and undermines trust.

Answer: D

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The scrum master should emphasize the core principles of agile, which are centered around collaboration, delivering value incrementally, and fostering a shared mindset among the team. In an agile environment, success is not only about following processes but about the team working together towards a common goal, adapting to change, and continuously delivering value to customers. These principles are the foundation of agile methodologies and essential for teams that are new to agile to understand.

The correct answer is B – Set expectations regarding the appropriate level of details requested during this stage. In Agile, early project stages are focused on vision, strategy, and high-level planning, not detailed documentation. The agile practitioner must educate stakeholders on progressive elaboration and set realistic expectations about how information is delivered over time.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“In the early stages of an agile project, requirements and plans are intentionally kept at a high level. Agile practitioners work closely with stakeholders to set appropriate expectations and explain how details will emerge iteratively.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.4 – Agile Project Initiation and Stakeholder Expectations)

Mike Griffiths reinforces this:

“During project inception, agile practitioners should clarify that detailed specifications evolve through iterative planning. Setting appropriate expectations is critical to building trust and maintaining alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 2 – Agile Principles and Stakeholder Engagement)

Incorrect options:

A contradicts agile principles of just-in-time elaboration.

C is too rigid and may alienate stakeholders.

D abdicates responsibility and doesn’t help manage expectations.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is D – Facilitate a just-in-time exploration of the functionality by the customer and the team.

Agile promotes emergent planning and just-in-time elaboration. When a customer cannot clearly define how a feature should function, collaborative exploration at the point of need (just-in-time) ensures shared understanding, timely feedback, and minimized waste.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“User stories are deliberately kept light to encourage conversation. These conversations often occur just before the story is scheduled for development—known as just-in-time elaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Backlog Preparation and Refinement)

Andy Crowe also explains:

“Agile teams defer detail until the last responsible moment. This supports flexibility and better understanding through collaboration. Facilitating exploration sessions when needed helps clarify expectations and reduce uncertainty.”

(Andy Crowe, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Value Delivery)

Why other options are less suitable:

A may be helpful for technical uncertainty, but the issue here is lack of functional clarity from the customer.

B (iteration 0) is more of a preparatory stage; it is not typically used mid-project.

C suggests decomposition but without resolving the lack of understanding; it assumes the problem is granularity, not clarity.

Hence, the correct agile action is to engage collaboratively at the point of need: D

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Understandingproduct vision and customer goalsis foundational to agile. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 2.1 Agile Mindset and Values), early engagement helps teamsconnect their work to real customer outcomes, which increasesmotivation, alignment, and value delivery.

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 2: Agile Principles and Mindset) also notes thatclear understanding of business goalsensures that team members build the right thing—not just build things right.

Option Ais correct: aligning the team with the product’s purpose drivesvalue-oriented thinking.

Option Bis secondary—understanding comes before acceptance.

Option Cis unrealistic and not the goal of this meeting.

Option Dmay occur, but the main benefit is deeper alignment with value.

The correct answer is C – Ask the team to restate the requirements and review them with the client.

Clear communication and shared understanding are core Agile values. The best way to resolve confusion is through direct collaboration. Restating and reviewing requirements with the client fosters alignment and transparency, which reduces rework and frustration.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages frequent interaction with stakeholders to clarify requirements and reduce misunderstanding. Requirements are best elaborated through collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Backlog Refinement)

Mike Griffiths supports:

“User stories and acceptance criteria should be understood by both team and stakeholders. If confusion arises, revisit and clarify together.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why not others?

A may boost morale but doesn’t resolve the confusion.

B is speculative and not customer-centric.

D risks building something without validation.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is D — Ensure that planning and prioritizing includes consideration of security requirements.

Non-functional requirements (such as security, performance, or compliance) must be included in backlog prioritization and planning sessions. Agile teams must incorporate these concerns into their definition of done and acceptance criteria to ensure continuous compliance and product integrity.

PMI Agile Practice Guide emphasizes:

“Non-functional requirements (NFRs) must be prioritized and planned for alongside functional user stories. They are not optional, and failure to include them early often leads to system failure or technical debt.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 — Planning Considerations)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile teams should treat NFRs as constraints that are baked into every sprint. Rather than isolating them, they should be considered in backlog refinement and story definition.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A may help, but meeting agendas alone are not sufficient for managing NFRs.

B may assist with knowledge, but it doesn’t guarantee prioritization.

C implies treating the NFR as a risk rather than a core requirement.

Answer: D

The goal of each iteration in Agile is to deliver working software frequently, typically at the end of each iteration. This allows the team to gather feedback early and make improvements quickly. The emphasis is on delivering usable software that provides value to the customer, rather than just completing tasks or preparing timelines. This approach aligns with the Agile principle of delivering working software frequently to ensure continuous progress and customer satisfaction.

The project lead should focus on creating a safe environment where all team members feel comfortable expressing their opinions without fear of judgment or repercussions. This can be achieved by encouraging open communication, showing appreciation for diverse perspectives, and actively ensuring that everyone's voice is heard. A safe environment fosters trust and collaboration, which is essential for the team's success. While other options may help in certain contexts, building a culture of safety and trust is the most effective long-term strategy to encourage team members to speak up.

A value stream map is an effective tool for identifying and visualizing the flow of work and the associated delays or handoffs in a process. By mapping out the entire value stream, the team can identify inefficiencies, waste, and bottlenecks, which helps them target areas for improvement. This allows the team to optimize the workflow by reducing unnecessary handovers and delays, which is in line with their goal of improving efficiency.

The principles of Extreme Programming (XP) focus on improving software quality and responsiveness to changing customer requirements. The key principles include:

Rapid feedback: Getting feedback quickly from customers or stakeholders to ensure that the development process is on track.

Assume simplicity: Focusing on simplicity in the design and code to avoid overengineering and to ensure the software is easy to understand and modify.

Incremental change: Delivering software in small, manageable increments that can be easily adjusted based on feedback.

Embrace change: Being flexible and adaptable, especially in response to new requirements or changes in technology or business needs.

Quality work: Ensuring high-quality software by emphasizing practices such as automated testing, continuous integration, and refactoring.

The correct answer is D – Encourage self-organization by communicating the importance of a collaborative approach in decision making about the requirements.

Agile teams thrive on collaboration and shared ownership. When conflicts arise between stakeholders and team members, the project manager (or Scrum Master) acts as a facilitator to encourage respectful discussion and team-driven decisions. Agile emphasizes self-organization, transparency, and frequent collaboration between customers and teams.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages ongoing stakeholder engagement and collaborative decision making. The Agile leader helps teams self-organize and resolve issues through direct communication and mutual respect.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“Agile promotes co-creation. The project manager’s role is to facilitate dialogue, not dictate requirements. The best outcomes come from collective decisions aligned with value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Other options explained:

A contradicts Agile principles of team and stakeholder collaboration.

B gives unilateral authority to the customer, which can disrupt team ownership.

C excludes the team from the conversation, weakening transparency.

Answer: D

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Capturing and reviewinglessons learnedis a vital practice in both agile and traditional environments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives)andPMBOK® Guide (Lessons Learned Register), continuous learning from project execution helps teams and organizationsimprove predictability, quality, and efficiency.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)highlights the importance of documenting insights and feeding them into future projects for organizational maturity.

Option Ais correct: creating and reviewing a lessons learned repository supportsorganizational learningand better delivery.

Option Bconfuses issue tracking with structured learning.

Option Cremoves responsibility from the team—agile encouragesteam ownership of improvement.

Option Dis helpful in some contexts but is not a repeatable organizational improvement tool like a lessons learned repository.

Agile teams evaluate new tools or technologies throughspikes—time-boxed research or experimentation tasks. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Spikes and Exploration)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), the appropriate way to introduce new technology is toengage the teamin the decision and create abacklog itemfor a spike to evaluate its viability.

Option Cis correct: it follows agile collaboration and backlog grooming practices.

Option Askips team consensus and formal prioritization.

Option Bcontradicts self-organizing team principles.

Option Dmay delay necessary action and is better suited for process discussions, not technical trials.

The team lead should facilitate a constructive discussion by restating both perspectives clearly, which can help ensure that all team members understand each other's viewpoints. Asking for more details about both approaches allows the team to analyze each method's pros and cons, fostering a collaborative, solution-focused discussion. Creating a chart of similarities and differences can provide a visual representation that helps the team make an informed decision, highlighting which elements from both approaches might be beneficial. This approach encourages open communication, avoids escalation, and leads to a productive exploration of options without dismissing either side.

Continuous delivery is a key practice in DevOps, ensuring that code is always in a deployable state. This practice allows for faster, more reliable releases, promoting automation and consistent feedback loops in the development process. It helps teams to iterate quickly and deploy changes frequently, which is a hallmark of DevOps.

Technical debtrefers to the accumulated cost of suboptimal design or code, often due to shortcuts or lack of refactoring. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.5 Quality and Technical Debt)recommends treating technical debt as animpedimentthat should be logged, tracked, and discussed openly so it can be prioritized and addressed.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)advises teams to be transparent about technical debt and elevate its visibility so that product owners and stakeholders can make informed decisions.

Option Cis correct: logging technical debt as animpedimentbrings visibility and ensures discussion.

Option Amay indicate a problem, but it’s indirect.

Option Bdistorts estimation metrics and is not advised.

Option Dcould help but does not communicate impact explicitly.

In Agile, the Definition of Done (DoD) typically requires that the feature be both developed and fully integrated into the release package before it is considered complete. Even though the feature was successfully tested and demonstrated by QA, if it is not included in the release package, it is not technically completed according to the DoD. Therefore, its story points should not be added to the burndown chart until it is actually part of the release. This ensures that the team’s progress is accurately tracked based on completed, released work.

The correct answer is D – Features should be prioritized and then teams should be organized around those priorities. In agile scaling and reorganization, forming feature teams allows for the creation of cross-functional, end-to-end value delivery units. This reduces dependencies and promotes customer-focused outcomes.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams are best organized around delivering customer value. When scaling or merging efforts, restructuring around features or customer priorities improves flow, minimizes handoffs, and supports agility at scale.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.5 – Agile Scaling Considerations)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile scaling favors organizing teams around features and capabilities rather than components. Feature teams are cross-functional and able to deliver end-to-end slices of functionality with minimal dependencies.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Scaling Agile and Team Formation)

Incorrect options:

A can lead to chaos without structure.

B reinforces siloed, component-based teams which increase integration risk.

C recreates functional silos rather than cross-functional teams.

Answer: D

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In Scrum, responsibilities are distributed among the product owner, scrum master, and development team to ensure clear accountability and efficient value delivery.

The product owner manages the product backlog, ensures alignment with business goals, and defines the priorities for the team.

The scrum master facilitates the Scrum process, removes impediments, and ensures adherence to Agile principles.

The development team owns the sprint backlog and is responsible for incremental delivery toward the sprint goal.

This division of responsibilities ensures that each role focuses on their core areas, fostering transparency, collaboration, and value-driven development.

The correct answer is B — Hold regular retrospectives and have team members commit to specific actions.

Regular retrospectives enable the team to continuously reflect and adapt their processes and product based on new challenges or insights. Commitment to specific action items ensures accountability and fosters a culture of learning and responsiveness.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Teams should hold regular retrospectives to identify areas for improvement and define concrete actions. These actions are tracked and reviewed in subsequent iterations.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.8 – Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths:

“Continuous improvement is a core agile value. Retrospectives allow teams to evaluate their performance and commit to actionable improvements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A is a waterfall mindset.

C lacks structured reflection and accountability.

D is a poor coding practice and anti-pattern.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is C – Non-functional requirements should have been added to the definition of done. Non-functional requirements such as performance, security, or usability criteria apply across stories and should be included in the Definition of Done (DoD) to ensure consistent delivery of quality attributes.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The definition of done should incorporate quality standards, including non-functional requirements. This ensures these standards are consistently applied across all deliverables.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Non-functional requirements are often best represented in the DoD so they’re applied universally. Without this, teams may deliver functionality that lacks necessary quality characteristics.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A would help but isn’t sufficient for global system qualities.

B is suitable for specific stories but doesn’t ensure consistency across the product.

D is helpful but doesn’t guarantee alignment with quality standards.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is C — Ask management to ensure that the resource is available to only one project at a time.

Agile promotes dedicated, stable teams over multitasking. Task-switching reduces productivity and leads to context-switching overhead. If a key resource is overburdened and switching between multiple projects, the best solution is to secure focused commitment by escalating to management for support.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams should be dedicated and work on one project at a time. Splitting attention across multiple efforts reduces velocity and quality due to context switching.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.1 – Team Composition)

Mike Griffiths highlights:

“Effective agile teams are stable, long-lived, and dedicated. Shared resources create bottlenecks, undermine predictability, and impair team dynamics.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A may solve bandwidth issues but not focus or ownership.

B addresses symptoms, not the core issue of divided focus.

D tolerates a harmful practice that contradicts agile team stability.

Answer: C

Spikes are valuable for reducing uncertainty, but agile discouragesspending multiple sprints solely on spikeswithout delivering value. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Spikes and Exploration)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), learning and delivery should occurconcurrentlywhenever possible. Teams should strive toinclude high-priority deliverables alongside spikes, particularly in early sprints, to build momentum and maintain stakeholder engagement.

Option Cis correct: executing high-priority stories in parallel with spikes promotes learning and value delivery.

Option AandDsupport spikes but ignore the risk ofdelayed value.

Option Bis valid but administrative; the better choice is to avoid needing prolonged spike sprints at all.

The role of a servant leader focuses on serving the team by removing obstacles, providing support, and ensuring that the team has what it needs to be successful. The agile coach is advising the project manager to adopt this mindset, which is central to Agile leadership. In this role, the project manager focuses on enabling the team’s success rather than taking a directive or authoritative approach.

The correct answer is C – Passive-aggressive. When a team delivers work but avoids open discussion or interaction, especially in meetings, it may indicate passive-aggressive behavior. This behavior might reflect unresolved tension, lack of engagement, or unwillingness to collaborate transparently.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“High-performing agile teams thrive on open communication and collaboration. Passive-aggressive behavior, where communication is avoided despite task completion, can hinder trust and team health.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Performance and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths warns:

“Silence or avoidance in agile teams may signal underlying issues. While work might be completed, lack of transparency and communication should be addressed early to maintain team cohesion.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A refers to real-time communication and is unrelated to emotional dynamics.

B is contradicted by the lack of vocal interaction.

D implies disorder or lack of structure, which is not evident here.

Answer: C

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Delivering value in agile depends onfrequent prioritization and real-time feedback. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Backlog and Prioritization), product owners and agile teams mustcontinuously reprioritize the backlogbased on changing stakeholder needs, market shifts, and feedback. Failure to do so can result in building the wrong product—even if it's "done."

Mike Griffiths (PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery) stresses thatvalue delivery is iterative and depends on current priorities, not static backlogs. It is vital that teams confirm that they're working on thehighest-value itemsbefore committing to a sprint.

Option Ais correct: proper backlog refinement and reprioritization ensures alignment with evolving stakeholder needs.

Option Bis an anti-pattern; agile welcomes change even late in development.

Option CandDare irrelevant or do not address the core issue of prioritization.

The correct answer is A — Coordinate a collaboration session so all the team members are involved in the solution process.

Agile encourages cross-functional collaboration and collective problem-solving. When technical uncertainty arises, the best course of action is to leverage the team’s combined knowledge through collaboration rather than working in isolation.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams rely on collaboration, especially when solving complex problems. A diversity of input and joint ownership leads to better and faster decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Communications and Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Agile practitioners should encourage collaborative decision-making. Technical decisions made in isolation can result in integration issues and delay. Collaboration unlocks shared ownership.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Other options:

B shifts focus away from current challenges.

C is long-term and not immediately actionable.

D may help, but it introduces external dependency instead of leveraging team knowledge.

Answer: A

—

To prevent the prioritization meeting from turning into a brainstorming session, the product owner should ensure that user stories are well-defined before they are added to the backlog. By reviewing the items with the product owner’s teammates (or stakeholders) beforehand, the product owner can clarify the details of the stories and ensure they are properly defined. This allows the team to focus on prioritization during the meeting, rather than spending time clarifying vague requests. This proactive approach improves the efficiency and effectiveness of the prioritization process.

The correct answer is B – How much money the organization will earn or save by having the MMF.

Minimally Marketable Features (MMFs) are the smallest set of functionality that deliver value and can be released to generate revenue or realize benefits. Prioritization of MMFs is typically done based on expected business value—such as cost savings, revenue potential, or customer satisfaction.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“MMFs help teams focus on delivering value early and frequently. They are prioritized based on expected value to the customer or organization, return on investment (ROI), and business impact.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Delivering Value Frequently)

Mike Griffiths also emphasizes:

“MMFs should be prioritized based on business value—how much benefit they bring to the customer or organization. Value-based prioritization ensures the right features are built first.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A refers to risk but doesn’t address business value.

C addresses stakeholder involvement, not delivery prioritization.

D refers to development time, which is considered but secondary to value.

Answer: B

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In Agile, collaboration is important, but it should not disrupt the team’s ability to focus on sprint goals. The Scrum Master can address this situation by designating a single team member to represent the team in external meetings, which reduces the impact on the rest of the team’s working time. Additionally, establishing a capacity buffer helps ensure that the team has enough time for their tasks while accounting for the time needed for meetings. This solution maintains both collaboration and productivity without overwhelming the development team.

Kanban is continuous and can lead toburnout or low moraledue to lack of visible milestones. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7: Flow-based Agile)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)suggest thatrecognizing and celebrating milestones or delivery pointsis essential to maintain motivation, especially in long-running Kanban teams.

Option Ais correct:celebrating completed workgives the team a sense of closure and achievement, improving engagement.

Option Bmight help temporarily but doesn’t address theroot motivational issue.

Option Cadds pressure and is counterproductive.

Option Dmay improve flow but doesn't directly address thelack of visible progress recognition.

The Definition of Done (DoD) is a shared understanding of what it means for work to be considered complete. It is typically defined by the project sponsor and project team in collaboration. The DoD outlines the criteria that must be met for user stories, features, or tasks to be considered done, ensuring alignment between stakeholders and the development team. While the product owner, Scrum master, and stakeholders may influence the criteria, the final agreement on what constitutes "done" is determined by the project team and sponsor.

Agile emphasizestransparency and team self-organization. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Self-Organizing Teams)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), a common practice is tomake work and issues visible to everyoneand allow the team to collaboratively manage their workflow. Using ashared workspace or boardhelps prevent redundant efforts and improves efficiency.

Option Dis correct: shared visibility and self-allocation promote team ownership.

Option Amisuses the backlog—issues aren't typically prioritized by customers.

Option Bis directive and may reduce collaboration.

Option Cfocuses on analysis, not immediate resolution or coordination.

As a servant leader, one of the key responsibilities is to protect the team from external distractions and interruptions that could affect their ability to focus and deliver value. This allows the team to work in a productive environment and maintain their focus on the important tasks, such as delivering the minimum viable product (MVP). By removing impediments and guarding against distractions, the servant leader enables the team to be more effective and efficient.

The correct answer is B — Create a spike story to analyze the impact of the threshold requirement on current stories.

A “spike” is a research activity used in Agile to investigate a technical or functional uncertainty. In this case, the performance threshold requires exploration to understand its impact on multiple backlog items. Creating a time-boxed spike allows the team to analyze without prematurely committing to changes.

PMI Agile Practice Guide describes spikes as:

“A spike is a user story for time-boxed research or exploration. Teams use spikes when they need more information to estimate or deliver a story.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 — Types of Backlog Items)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“When a new requirement introduces uncertainty, such as performance constraints, creating a spike helps the team determine scope, risk, and impact before incorporating it into backlog stories.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 — Adaptive Planning)

Other options:

A prematurely alters acceptance criteria before understanding the impact.

C leans toward big upfront design (non-agile).

D skips the exploration phase and directly breaks into tasks.

Answer: B

—

To promote transparency in an agile environment, the scrum master should ensure that key information about the team's work, progress, and velocity is easily accessible and visible to everyone. Radiating information in a common area, such as a team room or workspace, fosters openness and ensures that all team members and stakeholders can quickly understand the status of the project. This encourages shared understanding and promotes collaborative problem-solving.

Story point estimation in agile is acollaborative team activity, and consensus is critical. Techniques likePlanning Pokerare designed to reveal differences in understanding. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Estimating Techniques)andMike Griffiths (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), when there's adiscrepancy in estimates, it is essential todiscuss and understand the rationalebehind differing views.

Option Cis correct: the team shoulddiscuss and clarifyto reach a shared understanding.

Option Aignores potential misunderstandings.

Option Bunnecessarily delays estimation.

Option Dis incorrect—the team, not the customer, estimates the effort.

The correct answer is B — Balance risk reduction and value-adding activities in the next iteration.

Agile recommends actively managing risks as part of iteration planning. While delivering customer value remains a top priority, severe risks should be mitigated as early as possible. The team should consider allocating capacity in the next sprint to reduce risk while still maintaining delivery focus.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“Agile teams incorporate risk mitigation work into iteration planning. Teams should prioritize high-impact risks early and balance risk management with delivering customer value.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Agile Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Agile does not separate risk management into a different process—it is embedded within backlog prioritization. Addressing risk early can prevent downstream impacts, and teams must weigh risk vs. value regularly.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A disrupts current iteration goals and contradicts agile time-boxing.

C ignores the severity of the risk.

D escalates unnecessarily—agile promotes team-level decision-making first.

Answer: B

—

Velocity is a measure of how much work a team completes in a given sprint, typically measured in story points or other units of effort. While velocity can be useful for tracking progress and forecasting future work, it has some limitations when it comes to accurate capacity planning.

Velocity can vary from sprint to sprint due to multiple factors, such as the complexity of the tasks, interruptions, or even external influences. This variability can make it difficult to predict how much work a team can handle in future sprints, leading to inaccurate capacity planning.

The correct answer is C – Conduct retrospectives at the end of every sprint.

According to the Agile framework, regular retrospectives are a key practice to inspect and adapt the process. If team members have concerns about the Scrum Master's processes, the appropriate time and space to bring up and resolve such issues is the Sprint Retrospective.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Retrospectives are a time-boxed event that enables the team to inspect itself and create a plan for improvements to be enacted during the next iteration. It provides a structured opportunity for feedback and reflection.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.5, Iteration Retrospectives)

Mike Griffiths further adds:

“Teams must take ownership of their process. The role of the agile leader, such as a Scrum Master, is to facilitate improvement via mechanisms like retrospectives. They are not responsible for enforcing process, but for enabling continuous improvement.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A may undermine the team's self-organization and brings hierarchy into team-level process adjustments.

B may address some confusion, but doesn’t actively involve the team in process improvement.

D is inappropriate—sprint planning is for work planning, not process feedback.

Therefore, the most agile-appropriate and validated solution is: C

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Agile empowers teams to beself-organizing and self-managing. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6)andMike Griffiths' PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution), the agile coach or Scrum Master facilitates the process but shouldencourage the team to resolve internal issues themselves. This develops ownership, team maturity, and accountability.

The team coach’s role is tosupport, not solve. Escalating issues unnecessarily or bypassing the team undermines agile principles. Therefore,Option Cis correct: the coach should encourage the team to address and resolve the issue internally, stepping in only if the team cannot resolve it themselves.

Stated understanding of the release goal

The release goal provides clarity on the purpose and objectives of the release. It helps stakeholders understand the value the team aims to deliver.

List of the user stories that will be part of the next releases

A well-defined list of user stories ensures that stakeholders know which features and functionalities are planned for upcoming releases.

Step 1: Identify Total Story Points in the Backlog

From the backlog table:

Total story points = 6 + 4 + 8 + 4 + 21 + 7 + 5 + 9 + 3 + 5 = 72

Step 2: Determine the Team's Velocity

The risk register mentions a burn reduction of 1 story point per sprint from sprint 4 to sprint 6 due to a holiday schedule. However, assuming a normal velocity of 5 story points per sprint, we can estimate sprint completion.

Normal sprint velocity: 5 story points per sprint

Reduced velocity for sprints 4-6: 4 story points per sprint

Step 3: Calculate Total Sprints Needed

First 3 sprints: 5 points per sprint → 5 × 3 = 15 story points completed

Sprints 4-6: 4 points per sprint → 4 × 3 = 12 story points completed

Remaining story points after sprint 6: 72 - (15 + 12) = 45 story points

Remaining sprints needed at normal velocity (5 story points per sprint): 45 ÷ 5 = 9 sprints

Total Sprints Required

Sprints 1-6: Already planned.

Additional 9 sprints needed.

Total sprints to complete the backlog: 6 + 9 = 15 sprints.

A team charter with clearly defined norms, rules, and agreements is a critical tool for promoting trust and collaboration, especially in a globally distributed team. It establishes a shared understanding of how the team will work together, addresses potential communication challenges, and helps create a collaborative and respectful environment. By having these norms in place, team members from different cultures and time zones can align their expectations and behaviors, which is essential for overcoming challenges and preventing conflicts. This approach helps to foster a positive and productive team dynamic.

Kanban is an approach that focuses on visualizing and managing work in process (WIP) to ensure that there is minimal waste and that teams only work on what they can handle at any given time. It provides a flexible framework for continuous improvement, without the overhead of time-boxed iterations like in Scrum. Kanban allows teams to focus on limiting work in process, streamlining workflows, and improving efficiency while avoiding waste. This approach aligns with the organization's desire to minimize overhead and control WIP to maximize flow and productivity.

The correct answer is D – Implement a spike to enhance creativity by experimenting with new techniques and process ideas in order to discover more efficient and effective ways of working.

A spike is a time-boxed research or prototyping activity used to explore uncertainty, investigate a technology, or gain deeper knowledge of an implementation. Spikes are especially useful when a team lacks familiarity with certain technologies, as they reduce risk and support better estimation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Spikes are a type of exploration that agile teams use when they are uncertain about a technology or technique. They are time-boxed research efforts aimed at reducing risk and improving future delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Spikes allow the team to gain knowledge needed to understand a technical or design problem. They are particularly useful when the team lacks domain or technical experience and are often used to improve estimation accuracy.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options fall short:

A and B manipulate iteration length without addressing the core problem (lack of technical knowledge).

C increases overhead without solving the learning gap or preventing the root cause (rework).

Answer: D

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answers and comprehensive explanations drawn from authoritative sources including the PMI Agile Practice Guide, PMBOK® Guide, Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, and Andy Crowe’s PMI-ACP Exam materials.

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The correct answer is B – Suggest the Product Owner prioritize the work items by feature to maximize value.

In Agile, the Product Owner is responsible for backlog prioritization. When multiple stakeholders have differing priorities, it is the Product Owner’s job to evaluate business value and ROI to determine which features deliver the most value and should be addressed first.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Product Owner works closely with stakeholders to ensure that the most valuable work is prioritized in the backlog. When multiple stakeholders have competing interests, the Product Owner helps mediate and prioritize based on value delivery.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Based Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Agile avoids trying to define all requirements up front. Instead, the backlog is groomed regularly, and the Product Owner ensures that the team is working on the highest value features.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options are less effective:

A contradicts Agile principles by suggesting complete upfront requirement definition.

C puts responsibility on the customer instead of the empowered Product Owner.

D implies a waterfall approach by requiring clarity before starting.

Answer: B

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The correct answer isB – Review possible options and make an informed decision to cut losses based on delivered business value.In agile, decisions arecontinuously evaluatedbased onvalue delivery,inspect-and-adapt principles, andbusiness justification.

From thePMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile projects emphasize delivering the highest value features early and frequently. When new information emerges—such as the high risk of failure of a critical feature—the product owner must evaluate the cost-benefit, assess remaining value, and make a business-based decision.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Value-Driven Delivery)

“The agile mindset embraces failure as a learning opportunity but also encourages continuous evaluation of whether a project should continue. It is better to stop a project early based on value delivery assessments than to continue wasteful efforts.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 2.3 – Fail Fast to Learn Quickly)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Booknotes:

“Agile teams reassess business value frequently. If remaining features do not justify additional investment due to technical, market, or cost concerns, the product owner may decide to stop the project and preserve resources. This decision should always be informed by the value already delivered versus expected benefits.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

Ais a possible outcome, but prematurely terminating without analyzing value delivery is hasty.

C(bringing in experts) may increase costs and still not solve the fundamental issue of failing value.

Dignores the significance of the critical feature and assumes it can be deferred without impact—this may not be viable.

Answer: B

The correct answer is D – Work with the team to ensure that acceptance criteria is being properly defined and understood.

Incomplete work that fails to meet stakeholder expectations often results from unclear or misunderstood acceptance criteria. Clarifying the definition of “done” and ensuring alignment between the Product Owner and development team can drastically reduce rework and defects.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Clear and testable acceptance criteria help ensure shared understanding. Quality issues frequently stem from misaligned expectations or vague requirements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Definition of Done and Acceptance Criteria)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Teams must understand what success looks like for each story. Poorly defined or misunderstood acceptance criteria are a major cause of defects and missed expectations.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Other options explained:

A (spike) is used for research or uncertainty—not fixing misunderstood requirements.

B (burndown chart) helps track progress, not resolve defects.

C may help indirectly but doesn't address the core problem of unclear requirements.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is C – Meet with the team to discuss the issue and identify specific actions to reduce or eliminate the issue. Agile coaches facilitate team self-management, guide reflection, and encourage the team to solve performance issues collaboratively. Open discussion fosters ownership and accountability.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile coaches guide teams through self-reflection and help them identify root causes of issues. Coaches support team-driven resolutions to behavioral and performance problems.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Agile Coaching and Team Performance)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Effective agile leadership involves enabling the team to identify and resolve their own challenges. Top-down directives may harm morale and self-organization.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance and Coaching)

Incorrect options:

A and B bring in external control, undermining team autonomy.

D is punitive and contradicts agile principles of empowerment and trust.

Answer: C

The correct answer is D – Encourage the team member to use experimentation/spikes for continuous improvement and help the team understand why it is important. Agile encourages learning and experimentation through techniques like spikes (time-boxed research or exploration activities).

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile encourages teams to experiment and learn continuously. Time-boxed spikes can be used to investigate alternative designs, reduce uncertainty, and support informed decisions.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Spikes and Uncertainty Reduction)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“Spikes are short, time-limited investigations into a design or technical approach. They are a vital part of agile development for reducing risk, exploring alternatives, and enabling innovation.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A and C discourage innovation and agility.

B defers action rather than enabling real-time learning.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A – Facilitate a team discussion to identify knowledge gaps and determine the best way to address them.

The agile coach's role is to foster team ownership and encourage collaborative problem solving. When knowledge gaps are uncovered, the first step is to create transparency and engage the team in identifying how to resolve the gap—through pairing, mentoring, spikes, or backlog adjustments.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders coach teams to self-identify impediments and explore solutions collaboratively. Coaching helps teams build awareness and take ownership of their development and process improvements.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Rather than providing direct solutions, agile coaches should help teams uncover their own improvements through retrospection, facilitated discussion, and group problem solving.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement / Coaching)

Why the other options fall short:

B & C externalize the problem instead of building team capability.

D may be part of the solution, but the team should explore it collectively—not as a unilateral decision.

Answer: A

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To create a high-performing team, the project manager should foster an environment where the team is aligned on a shared vision and empowered to make decisions collaboratively. Promoting consensus-driven decision-making helps team members feel involved and respected, and a shared vision ensures that everyone is working towards the same goal. This approach encourages teamwork, open communication, and collective ownership of the project’s success, which is crucial for a high-performing team.

The correct answer is A – Work with the team to improve collaboration by fostering group decision-making and conflict resolution techniques.

One of the core principles of Agile is self-organizing teams. Teams must learn to make decisions collaboratively. If they are struggling, the Scrum Master or Agile Coach should facilitate improved team dynamics, encouraging consensus-building and effective conflict resolution techniques such as consensus, dot voting, or facilitation.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams are empowered to make decisions. Coaches support this by teaching group decision-making techniques and fostering a culture of psychological safety and collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching the Agile Team)

Mike Griffiths highlights:

“When teams hesitate to make decisions, the coach’s role is to facilitate better team dynamics—not to make decisions for them. Group decision-making leads to greater commitment and alignment.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Why other options fall short:

B gives decision-making power to the Product Owner inappropriately for technical matters.

C fragments accountability and may cause misalignment.

D may help in leadership development but doesn’t guarantee collaborative decision-making.

Answer: A

The correct answer is B – Create a team norms document to set participation guidelines. Establishing team norms improves psychological safety, trust, and collaborative behavior. It provides a structured way to handle differences of opinion and ensure equal contribution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Team norms or working agreements are guidelines created by the team to set expectations for behavior, participation, and communication. These norms are agreed upon early and revisited as needed to support healthy collaboration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Charter and Working Agreements)

Mike Griffiths elaborates:

“High-performing agile teams create shared agreements that clarify roles, expectations, and behavior. When team conflict or disconnects arise, practitioners should guide the team to revisit or develop such norms.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A lacks structure and may not address the root issue.

C delays resolution and misuses the stand-up’s purpose.

D waits too long to act; issues should be addressed immediately, not deferred.

Answer: B

‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾‾

After the product vision is communicated, the product owner should ensure thatthe product backlog is prioritizedso the team canfocus on delivering the most valuable features first. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1 Product Backlog and Vision Alignment), prioritizing the backlog helps teams understand the product roadmap and plan their efforts accordingly.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)reinforces that the product owner’s key responsibility isbacklog prioritization, not task management or detailed design.

Option Cis correct: prioritizing the backlog enables the team to understand and plan the roadmap.

Option AandBare too detailed for the product owner and move into the team's domain.

Option Dis ateam responsibility, not the product owner’s.

In Scrum, theproduct owneris the primary point of contact betweenstakeholders and the development team. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 3.3: Roles and Responsibilities), the Scrum Master ensures thatcommunications flow properlyand protects the team from distractions.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes the importance of having asingle point of contactfor stakeholder feedback to avoid miscommunication and overload.

Option Ais correct: redirecting communication through the product owner keeps the team focused and the backlog structured.

Option Bis unprofessional and discourages stakeholder engagement.

Option Cbypasses review and prioritization—backlog management should be intentional.

Option Dcould blur roles and bypass proper channels.

Once the team has clarity on the user stories and agrees they are ready, the next step in agile planning is toestimatethem. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Estimating)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), agile estimation techniques likestory pointsorPlanning Pokerhelp the teamgain a shared understanding of effort, complexity, and delivery time.

Option Ais correct: estimating comes before development and guides prioritization and planning.

Option Bprematurely dives into task-level detail before effort is understood.

Option Cskips planning and development entirely.

Option Drefers to retrospective, which comes after execution, not before.

In this situation, the Scrum Master observes that the developer is confused about a business rule during the daily coordination meeting. The best approach is to address the issue directly with the developer after the meeting. This ensures that the developer receives the clarification they need without disrupting the flow of the meeting or drawing unnecessary attention to the issue during the daily standup.

Agile promotescross-functional teamsandreducing bottlenecksthrough knowledge sharing and skill development. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Cross-functional Teams)recommends that team members developT-shaped skillsto handle more types of work. Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance)advocates forskill broadeningto improve team throughput and resilience.

Option Ais correct: cross-training removes dependencies and improves flow.

Option Bdelays action and prolongs the issue.

Option Creduces delivery capacity rather than addressing the root cause.

Option Darbitrarily limits scope and doesn’t resolve the underlying skill gap.

The scrum master should first remind the team of the purpose and goals of each scrum event (such as the daily standup, sprint planning, sprint review, and retrospective) to ensure that they remain focused on their intended outcomes. The scrum master can then implement a policy that ensures discussions that deviate from the scope of the event are stopped. This approach keeps the team on track, prevents time-wasting conversations, and helps maintain the efficiency of the events.

This method empowers the team to stay focused on what is essential for each event and encourages self-management while still providing room for relevant discussions. In doing so, the team can achieve the desired outcomes of each scrum event without unnecessary delays.

The correct answer is D — Explain to the team the importance of reducing team size by reducing specializations and bottlenecks and that every team member plays an equal part.

Agile promotes cross-functional, self-organizing teams where all members are responsible for delivering a working product increment. Avoiding specialized silos reduces bottlenecks and improves overall flow. Everyone contributes based on team needs, not personal preferences or status.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams minimize individual silos by encouraging cross-functional collaboration. Everyone contributes to the team goal, even if the task is outside their core skillset.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.1 – Team Composition)

Mike Griffiths:

“Specialization often becomes a bottleneck in agile teams. Agile promotes generalizing specialists—team members who are willing to stretch outside their expertise to help the team meet its goals.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A promotes a command-and-control model—contrary to Agile servant leadership.

B reinforces silos and inefficiency.

C contradicts Agile’s emphasis on team ownership.

Answer: D

—

The correct answer is B – Recommend an Agile delivery approach and provide information to the stakeholders on Agile values and principles.

Agile enables early and continuous delivery of valuable software, short feedback loops, and faster time to market. When competitive advantage and speed are critical, introducing Agile principles allows the organization to remain flexible, respond to change, and deliver increments faster.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile approaches provide quicker feedback, faster time to market, and more opportunity to deliver business value early. They are ideal in dynamic environments with evolving customer needs.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 1.3 – When to Use Agile)

Mike Griffiths states:

“Agile emphasizes early and continuous delivery, allowing organizations to test, learn, and adjust quickly to changes—critical for achieving business agility and competitive advantage.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 1 – Agile Mindset)

Why other options are not optimal:

A suggests a predictive mindset and planning before implementation.

C focuses only on Scrum roles, which may be too narrow for organizational-level change.

D relies on traditional governance structures that may resist Agile change.

Answer: B

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Agile promotes maintaining theintegrity of the sprint commitmentonce it begins. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.4: Sprint Planning and Managing Change), new requirements discovered mid-sprint should beadded to the product backlogand reprioritized for a future sprint unless they arecritical blockers.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Problem Detection and Resolution)explains that backlog management is key to handling emerging work. Agile teams should not reactively shift focus, as it disrupts flow and predictability.

Option Bis correct: placing the new requirement in the backlog respects sprint boundaries and ensures proper prioritization.

Option Adisrupts sprint scope mid-course.

Option Cis unnecessary unless the issue is blocking progress.

Option Dviolates the principle of sprint focus and planning discipline.

In this scenario, the team faced delays due to the absence of a single tester. To prevent similar issues in the future, the team should work on becoming more cross-functional, where team members are skilled in multiple areas (e.g., testing multiple data sources). Encouraging team members to become general specialists reduces bottlenecks and dependency on a single individual, ensuring that the team can continue to make progress even if someone is unavailable. This fosters greater flexibility and resilience within the team, improving overall efficiency and minimizing disruptions in future implementations.

The correct answer is B – Break the story up and focus on the most valuable parts. Agile promotes progressive elaboration, and large or complex stories (epics) should be broken down into smaller, testable user stories. This practice enables clarity, faster feedback, and more accurate planning.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Large stories (epics) should be split into smaller user stories to enable understanding, estimation, and incremental delivery. Stories should be small enough to be completed within an iteration.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – User Stories and Story Splitting)

Mike Griffiths states:

“When a user story is too large or unclear, the team should break it down into smaller pieces, focusing on the most valuable parts first. Story splitting is a key agile practice.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A discourages collaboration and learning.

C delays the resolution unnecessarily.

D avoids solving the actual problem and abandons valuable work.

Answer: B

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In agile, work is considered “done” only when it meets the agreed-uponDefinition of Done (DoD), which includes all aspects like coding, review, testing, and documentation. If there's disagreement about completion, thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.3 Sprint Review and Acceptance)recommends revisiting and aligning the DoD between the team and product owner.

Mike Griffiths in hisPMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)explains that without aclear and shared Definition of Done, misunderstandings about completion status can occur, especially with quality-related tasks like testing.

Option Ais correct because aligning on the DoD resolves current and future misunderstandings.

Option Bintroduces unnecessary escalation.

Option Cpostpones resolution and does not solve the core issue.

Option Dincorrectly assumes testing isn’t part of the story’s completion criteria.

When transitioning to an iterative development lifecycle, it’s crucial to ensure that user stories are written with clear, testable acceptance criteria that define the desired outcomes. The agile lead should explain to the project sponsor that the subject matter expert (SME) needs to collaborate with the team, including developers, testers, and the product owner, to ensure everyone has a shared understanding of the requirements and the solution. This collaboration is essential for defining and refining the user stories to ensure that they deliver value and meet the needs of the stakeholders.

The team lead should work to resolve the conflict by negotiating with the project director. Since the lead developer cannot complete their work due to the request for a detailed testing plan, the team lead should seek to limit the scope of the documentation request. By negotiating for fewer details or a reduced scope of testing documentation, the team can continue their work on the iteration while still meeting the project director's needs. This approach balances the need to progress with development and address the request without causing significant delays.

Kaizen is a Japanese term that means "continuous improvement," which is a fundamental principle in Agile. It focuses on making incremental, continuous improvements to enhance processes and quality. Standup meetings and retrospective meetings are common Agile practices that support Kaizen. Standup meetings provide a daily check-in to ensure the team is aligned, while retrospectives allow the team to reflect on the sprint, identify areas for improvement, and make adjustments. Continuous improvement is at the core of Kaizen, and these practices enable the team to refine their processes over time, leading to better product quality and customer satisfaction.

Agile teams areself-organizingand responsible for determining how to deliver their commitments. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.3: Self-Organizing Teams)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), the best course of action is tosupport the team in evaluating trade-offs—especially when innovation like a spike canenhance efficiency. The project leader shouldenable, not dictatedecisions.

Option Ais correct: it respects team autonomy while supporting innovation.

Option Bdiscourages innovation and learning.

Option Cmay delay needed improvement and demotivates team initiative.

Option Dremoves the team's ability to decide and self-manage priorities.

Tounderstand the needs of different user types, agile teams usepersonasandextreme charactersto represent a range of users, including edge cases. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2: Requirements and Personas)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning), personas help teams build empathy and ensure that stories reflect actual user roles—not just generic assumptions.

Option Dis correct: personas and extreme characters ensureinclusive and realistic story coverage.

Option AandBfocus on communication and sequencing but not user diversity.

Option C(process flows) is more technical and doesn’t solve the misalignment with user perspectives.

The correct answer is B – Evaluate the impact of the change request and let the team and Product Owner decide and reprioritize based on value. Agile allows for mid-iteration changes only in exceptional cases where business value is at risk. Such changes must be evaluated collaboratively.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams may allow scope changes mid-iteration if the benefit clearly outweighs the cost. In such cases, the Product Owner and team collaboratively assess and decide whether to accommodate the change.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Iteration Planning and Scope Flexibility)

Mike Griffiths also explains:

“While mid-iteration changes are discouraged, if the change is critical to business value, the team and Product Owner may replan collaboratively. Agile encourages flexibility with customer-focused decision-making.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and D bypass collaborative evaluation.

C is too extreme for a small but valuable change.

Answer: B

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The correct answer is A – Add risk mitigation tasks to the backlog, then prioritize in current and upcoming sprints. In Agile, risk is actively managed and addressed as part of the backlog. When the risk threshold is exceeded, the team should explicitly identify risk-related tasks and bring them into visibility for planning and execution.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams manage risk by incorporating risk mitigation tasks directly into the backlog and addressing them early. Risk exposure is reviewed frequently, and responses are prioritized based on value and urgency.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.7 – Risk Management)

Also from the PMBOK® Guide (6th Edition):

“Risks should be integrated into project activities. Agile teams identify, analyze, and prioritize risks continuously and handle them as regular backlog items.”

(PMBOK® Guide, Section 11.5 – Risk Response Planning)

Mike Griffiths further supports this by noting:

“Agile teams track risks visually and use backlog prioritization techniques to ensure they’re addressed appropriately.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

B suggests padding estimates, which is an anti-pattern.

C is arbitrary and not recommended.

D delays risk response and contradicts proactive risk management.

Answer: A

The correct answer is C – Risk-value quadrant. This technique is a prioritization matrix that helps teams identify and rank backlog items by evaluating their business value against their risk. This ensures early delivery of high-value and high-risk features, supporting fail-fast learning and reducing uncertainty.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The risk-value matrix helps prioritize features by plotting them based on business value and implementation risk. High-value/high-risk items are often addressed first.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 3.4 – Prioritization Techniques)

Mike Griffiths emphasizes:

“The risk-value quadrant is a powerful tool to guide agile prioritization. It ensures the most valuable and uncertain items are tackled early to deliver insights quickly.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A is used for estimation, not prioritization.

B is a scheduling concept, not a prioritization method.

D refers to story quality (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable), not prioritization.

Answer: C

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The correct answer is D – Break non-functional requirements into those that can be delivered in the given sprint. Agile teams apply the principle of incremental and iterative delivery not only to functional requirements but also to non-functional ones. Large or complex work—including non-functional requirements—should be decomposed into smaller, manageable items.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Work items, including non-functional requirements, should be split to fit within a sprint’s capacity. Teams use story-splitting techniques and prioritize parts that provide the most value or enable further development.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Adaptive Planning and Story Sizing)

Mike Griffiths reinforces:

“If a user story or requirement is too large for a sprint, it should be broken down. Even performance and security requirements can often be delivered incrementally.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A ignores important non-functional quality attributes.

B is not in line with agile's sustainable pace and team stability.

C deflects ownership without attempting a solution.

Answer: D

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TheMoSCoW method(Must have, Should have, Could have, Won’t have) is aprioritization techniquecommonly used in agile to determine which stories deliver the most value. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.1: Prioritization Techniques)lists MoSCoW as one of the methods used by product owners and teams toprioritize backlog items.

Option Ais correct: MoSCoW is a proven agile prioritization method.

Option Bis used forestimation, not prioritization.

Option Cis not a standard agile prioritization method.

Stakeholder participation, especially during sprint reviews, iscritical to agile success. ThePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 7.2: Stakeholder Engagement)emphasizes the importance ofactively engaging stakeholdersthroughout the project lifecycle, particularly during key ceremonies like sprint reviews, where feedback shapes the product.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 4: Stakeholder Engagement)states that stakeholders need tounderstand the value of their inputand how it influences product direction. The agile practitioner or Scrum Master should educate and influence stakeholders bydemonstrating the tangible impact of their participation.

Option Dis correct: aligning stakeholders with thebenefits of engagementfosters participation.

Option A,B, andCare passive substitutes and don’t address the root issue of stakeholder disengagement.

The correct answer is D — Suggest an iterative approach including timely engagement of all key stakeholders and hold regular review meetings.

Engaging stakeholders continuously and using iteration reviews to validate deliverables ensures that misunderstandings are addressed early. This is especially critical in situations where expectations were not met in previous projects. Agile thrives in environments that require responsiveness to feedback.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Early and continuous stakeholder engagement and regular reviews help ensure alignment and satisfaction, especially when past experiences were negative.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths:

“Agile promotes iterative delivery and early validation, minimizing the risk of misaligned expectations and unmet requirements.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

A and C are useful, but don’t directly prevent recurrence of the problem.

B is vague and lacks concrete action.

Answer: D

The correct answer is A – Conduct frequent demos and obtain feedback from users throughout the development of the next release. Agile is feedback-driven. Regular demonstrations (e.g., sprint reviews) help gather customer input to continuously enhance the product and optimize value.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Frequent demonstrations and validation with stakeholders ensure that teams deliver value continuously and adapt the product based on real-time feedback.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Feedback and Product Review)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Customer feedback loops are vital to agile. Demos provide a mechanism for validating delivered functionality, identifying improvement opportunities, and maximizing product value.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Incorrect options:

B contradicts continuous delivery and customer collaboration.

C may help with scale, but doesn’t directly address value improvement.

D is more about process quality than business value.

Answer: A

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Predictable flow in agile is achieved byreducing variabilityin story size and complexity. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.7: Flow-based Agile and Kanban), working withsmall, similarly sized user storiesincreases throughput predictability and improves cycle time.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Value-Driven Delivery)supports breaking large stories into smaller, testable chunks as a way tostabilize delivery and forecasting.

Option Ais correct:small user storiesreduce variability and support predictable flow.

Option Bsupports testability but doesn’t directly improve flow.

Option CandDare too broad or conceptual to specifically improve predictability.

The correct answer is B – Prioritizing stories.

The MoSCoW method is a prioritization technique used in Agile to categorize requirements and backlog items based on their business value. It helps stakeholders and teams agree on what is essential to deliver versus what is desirable or optional.

MoSCoW stands for:

M – Must have

S – Should have

C – Could have

W – Won’t have (this time)

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The MoSCoW prioritization method helps stakeholders classify backlog items based on their criticality and desired delivery timing. This enables better alignment with business objectives.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.2 – Prioritization)

Mike Griffiths explains:

“MoSCoW is a simple but effective method for clarifying which features are essential and which can be deferred. It enhances transparency during prioritization discussions.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A – Estimating story size involves techniques like planning poker or T-shirt sizing.

C – Product validation is done via demos, acceptance criteria, and stakeholder feedback.

D – Progress tracking uses tools like burndown charts or cumulative flow diagrams.

Answer: B

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Agile emphasizesjust enough detailto start work and adapt through ongoing conversation. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.2 Requirements and User Stories), stories should beclear enough for estimation and discussion, but not over-specified. The INVEST model (Independent, Negotiable, Valuable, Estimable, Small, Testable) supports this.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)reiterates that stories should not contain exhaustive detail up front; rather, they evolve throughcollaborative dialoguewith the product owner.

Option Cis correct because it supports collaboration and adaptive planning.

Option AandBlead to over-specification and undermine agility.

Option Daddresses testing but doesn’t resolve confusion about appropriate story detail.

When the team is facing difficulties in estimating the scope of work due to unclear or ambiguous requirements, the product owner should collaborate closely with the client to ensure that the requirements are clear and well-defined. By refining the product backlog with more detailed and clarified requirements, the product owner can help the team generate more accurate estimates and better understand the scope of work. This is a fundamental step in ensuring the team can properly plan and execute the project on time.

When significant architectural flaws are discovered, agile teamsinspect and adapt. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6: Retrospectives and Adaptation), the product owner and team shouldcollaboratively reassess priorities and rewrite backlog itemsto reflect the rework needed. This is aligned with agile’sincremental delivery and continuous adaptation.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 6: Adaptive Planning)stresses that rework should be handled through backlog refinement and collaborative planning—not panic or reactive decisions.

Option Cis correct: reassessing the backlog with stakeholders aligns with agile practices.

Option Aabdicates product responsibility.

Option Bis too rigid for agile, unless the risk matrix is already very mature and agile-focused.

Option Dcancels value delivery and is unnecessarily drastic.

The correct answer is D – Add a variety of users, such as business analysts and domain experts, to the team.

When direct access to a true end-user is not possible, Agile teams can maintain strong customer representation by including subject matter experts, business analysts, or domain experts who have a deep understanding of user needs. This helps maintain focus on value delivery and minimizes the risk of developing the wrong product.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“If actual customers are not available to participate, the team may rely on proxies, such as product owners, subject matter experts, or business analysts who can effectively represent the voice of the customer.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths supports this:

“In the absence of true users, teams can engage stakeholders who are closest to the user’s experience—such as domain experts or business analysts—to ensure continuous feedback and guidance.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery / Stakeholder Engagement)

Why the other options fall short:

A increases output speed but doesn’t address misalignment with user value.

B adds technical depth but not business perspective or user empathy.

C changes cadence but doesn’t improve customer representation.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is B – Have team members work in pairs to learn from each other and develop new skills. Pairing encourages collaboration, knowledge sharing, and skill development, which helps reduce dependency on specific individuals and enhances engagement through variety.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Pair programming and other collaborative work methods help reduce repetition, promote learning, and improve motivation. These techniques allow for shared ownership and skill diversity.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Continuous Learning and Team Development)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“Cross-training and pairing reduce boredom, eliminate knowledge silos, and increase team flexibility. They are effective responses to reduced motivation from repetitive work.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 7 – Continuous Improvement)

Incorrect options:

A may temporarily help morale but doesn’t address the root cause.

C is more suitable for analyzing inefficiencies, not directly resolving monotony.

D adds cost and doesn’t solve the underlying engagement problem.

Answer: B

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Sprint reviews are a crucial Scrum event for obtaining early feedback from stakeholders, which allows the team to inspect the progress and adapt the product accordingly. By skipping sprint reviews in favor of only release reviews, the team loses the opportunity to make adjustments and improvements throughout the project. The scrum master should emphasize the importance of regular feedback and ensure the team stays aligned with Scrum principles for continuous improvement and value delivery.

In this scenario, the development team is working closely with different business units to deliver value early and often. This aligns with the agile value of delivering working software frequently, with a preference for shorter timescales. By collaborating with business units, the team is enabling early feedback and adapting to changing requirements, which is a core principle of agile methodologies like Scrum.

The correct answer is D — Create a space on the board to prioritize the threats, along with an update on the actions that are in progress and what still needs to be done.

Agile promotes visual management and transparency. By using a dedicated section on the team board (information radiator), risks can be prioritized, tracked, and made visible to the entire team, enabling ongoing awareness and proactive response.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Information radiators can be used to display risk burndown charts, prioritization, and mitigation plans, allowing teams to manage and address risk openly.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 7.3 – Risk Management)

Mike Griffiths:

“Making risks visible and tracking them alongside features fosters collective ownership and ensures proactive handling.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 6 – Problem Detection and Resolution)

Incorrect options:

A is reactive and lacks persistent visibility.

B may create fatigue and be seen as micromanagement.

C involves the sponsor unnecessarily and doesn’t address day-to-day risk management.

Answer: D

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As a servant leader, it is important to address the root cause of the disruption, which in this case is the director's repeated visits and distracting conversations. Coaching the company director on agile practices and good communication helps them understand the need to minimize interruptions and foster a productive environment for the team. This approach will help align the director's behavior with Agile principles, ensuring that the team can focus on delivering value without unnecessary distractions. By educating the director, the servant leader can improve overall team dynamics and project efficiency.

The correct answer is B – Discuss the situation with the functional manager. The Scrum Master serves as a facilitator and servant leader, helping resolve impediments that interfere with the team’s ability to deliver. When conflicting assignments arise, the Scrum Master should facilitate communication with functional managers to clarify priorities and reinforce team commitments.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“The Scrum Master removes impediments and facilitates collaboration with stakeholders, including functional managers, to ensure the team can focus on sprint goals.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Agile Leadership and Stakeholder Collaboration)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“When external interference affects team performance, the Scrum Master should engage in dialogue with stakeholders to clarify roles and commitments, promoting alignment and removing blockers.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A is extreme and not within the Scrum Master's authority.

C is unnecessarily escalatory.

D is confrontational and undermines collaboration.

Answer: B

In the scenario described, the team is discussing the root causes of the technical problems that led to delayed deliverables, which indicates they are being proactive. One of the agile principles is to deliver working software frequently and adapt to change, and this situation shows the team is reflecting on their issues to improve future performance by identifying ways to balance the demands placed on the team (workload, deadlines, etc.) with their available capacity and necessary competencies.

Agile relies onregular retrospectivesto reflect, adapt, andimplement improvements. According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 5.6 Retrospectives), teams should continuouslyinspect their processandcollectively own the changesneeded to improve. This supports a culture of learning and accountability.

Mike Griffiths in thePMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 7: Continuous Improvement)encourages frequent retrospectives that includeopen discussion and shared responsibilityfor change implementation.

Option Ais correct: holding retrospectives and collaborating on actions promotes ownership and progress.

Option Bneglects process change.

Option Climits transparency and team collaboration.

Option Daddresses trust but not the recurring problems.

The correct answer is A – Be transparent with all the stakeholders and make them aware of the issues encountered and the current project's status.

Agile encourages transparency and regular stakeholder engagement to ensure alignment and avoid surprises. Even if a stakeholder prefers minimal involvement, it is the team’s responsibility to raise issues that could impact delivery, especially if they introduce risk or require input.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile promotes transparency and ongoing stakeholder engagement. Teams should proactively communicate risks and emerging issues to build trust and enable timely decision-making.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.2 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Mike Griffiths notes:

“Transparency is one of the pillars of Agile. Teams must keep stakeholders informed—even those who prefer limited involvement—to ensure that value is continuously delivered.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 3 – Stakeholder Engagement)

Other options explained:

B is a secondary action; transparency should come first.

C risks late discovery and undermines agile values.

D removes responsibility from the team, which contradicts self-management.

Answer: A

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To identify the features that offer the maximum value, the product owner should focus on understanding the needs and priorities of the product's end users. By identifying the users and their key activities, the product owner can ensure that the features included in the roadmap directly address the most important user needs and deliver the highest value. This user-centric approach ensures that the product delivers tangible benefits to its intended audience and aligns with their requirements.

Thestorming phase(from Tuckman’s model: Forming–Storming–Norming–Performing) is marked byconflict and role negotiation. Theagile coach or Scrum Masterplays a critical role in guiding teams through this phase withstructured facilitation and conflict-resolution techniques.

According to thePMI Agile Practice Guide (Section 4.3.2: Team Development Stages)andMike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book (Chapter 3: Team Performance), the agile coach must providesupport, guidance, and toolsto help the team evolve toward self-organization and maturity.

Option Bis correct: effective facilitation helps the team progress toward high performance.

Option Apromotes dysfunction.

Option Crisks escalating unresolved conflict.

Option Dis overly individual-focused and not team-centric.

The correct answer is D – Ask the team to decide if the task should be reassigned. In agile, the Scrum Master serves as a servant leader and facilitator, not a manager. Task decisions are made by the team through collaboration and self-organization.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile teams self-organize and make decisions collaboratively. The Scrum Master facilitates discussion and decision-making but does not dictate task assignments.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 4.3 – Team Empowerment and Self-Organization)

Mike Griffiths adds:

“The Scrum Master’s role is to empower the team to find their own solutions and make informed decisions that support sprint goals. When adjustments are needed, the team should decide how to proceed.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 4 – Team Performance)

Incorrect options:

A undermines self-management and may create fear or pressure.

B implies outside control instead of team autonomy.

C ignores opportunity for improvement and team input.

Answer: D

A value stream map is a tool used to visualize the flow of materials and information through a process, identifying areas of waste and inefficiency. In this case, the business analyst's key observations will include wait times (delays between steps) and cycle times (time taken to complete each step in the process). By analyzing these, the business analyst can identify opportunities to streamline the process, reduce delays, and improve overall efficiency in delivering healthcare services.

The correct answer is C — Conducted an end-of-phase demonstration.

Agile emphasizes continuous feedback. Regular demonstrations (e.g., sprint reviews or product demos) allow stakeholders, including the customer, to inspect the product increment and provide real-time feedback. Had the team demoed the product, they might have discovered the deficiencies before release.

PMI Agile Practice Guide states:

“A demo or review allows stakeholders to inspect the product increment and provide feedback. Demonstrations reduce the risk of unmet expectations and confirm that the team is building the right product.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.7 – Reviews and Demos)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Agile avoids large, end-of-phase validations. Instead, customer feedback is solicited at the end of every iteration through structured demos. This allows for early course correction and alignment with expectations.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 3 – Value-Driven Delivery)

Other options:

A is a waterfall artifact and not aligned with agile workflows.

B is analysis-heavy and doesn’t ensure real stakeholder feedback.

D (retrospective) improves process, not product validation.

Answer: C

The correct answer isC – Initiate an estimation sessionbecause agile planning isiterative and collaborative. When delivery timing is in question, especially during a release planning session, the team must firstestimatethe size of the work (epics and user stories). Once estimates are made (often using story points or relative sizing techniques), velocity can be used to forecast delivery timelines.

From thePMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Estimation is typically performed at the beginning of a release or iteration planning session to determine how much work can be completed. Teams use estimation to size items and then apply their known or projected velocity to forecast completion.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation and Velocity)

Mike Griffiths’ PMI-ACP Exam Prep Bookalso states:

“Before making any delivery commitments, teams should first engage in collaborative estimation to understand the scope and effort of the work. These estimates then inform velocity-based forecasting.”

(Mike Griffiths, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why the other options are incorrect:

A– Scrum Masters do not estimate work; estimation is a team activity.

B– You cannot determine deliverables based on velocity until the work has been estimated.

D– Historical data can support forecasting but must be preceded by proper estimation of current backlog items.

Answer: C

The correct answer is D – Estimating the relative size of stories by using story points.

Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique used in Agile to assign relative size (often using story points) to product backlog items. Each team member selects a card to indicate their estimate, and the group discusses discrepancies to reach agreement.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Planning poker is a consensus-based estimation technique that helps teams estimate the size of user stories using story points. It supports collaboration and shared understanding.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.3 – Estimation Techniques)

Mike Griffiths writes:

“Planning poker helps teams perform relative sizing using a modified Fibonacci sequence. The goal is not precision, but shared understanding and relative complexity comparison.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep Book, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Why other options are incorrect:

A describes analogy-based estimation, not planning poker.

B refers to “bucket system” estimation, a separate technique.

C refers to dot voting, which is a prioritization—not estimation—tool.

Answer: D

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The correct answer is A — Practicing the servant leadership style of working with an agile team.

Servant leadership is foundational to Agile. The agile project leader serves the team by removing impediments, supporting their needs, and promoting transparency. Using information radiators and being involved in team progress reflects servant leadership in action.

PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Agile leaders act as servant leaders. They support the team, remove obstacles, and foster a transparent, collaborative environment.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 6.2 – Coaching and Servant Leadership)

Mike Griffiths:

“Servant leadership is about enabling the team to succeed. Agile leaders serve by ensuring the team has what it needs, while maintaining visibility through information radiators.”

(PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 1 – Agile Principles and Mindset)

Incorrect options:

B and C are valid Agile behaviors but not the most specific or complete match.

D references feedback loops but not leadership style.

Answer: A

—

The correct answer is D – Facilitate a product development roadmap workshop. Engaging stakeholders early through a roadmap workshop helps align expectations, prioritize outcomes, and build shared understanding around value delivery.

From the PMI Agile Practice Guide:

“Product roadmaps provide a high-level view of deliverables and timing. Facilitating roadmap workshops ensures that all stakeholders contribute to and align with the vision.”

(PMI Agile Practice Guide, Section 5.4 – Product Roadmap and Planning)

Mike Griffiths further explains:

“Roadmap workshops allow stakeholders to discuss release priorities and business goals, ensuring engagement in the planning process and continuous alignment throughout the project.”

(Mike Griffiths, PMI-ACP Exam Prep, Chapter 5 – Adaptive Planning)

Incorrect options:

A reflects a waterfall mindset.

B involves team-level planning, not broad stakeholder engagement.

C is informative but not collaborative or sufficient for planning.

Answer: D

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