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Practitioner Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

Which statement is true about advanced persistent threats?

Options:

A.

They use script kiddies to carry out their attacks.

B.

They have the skills and resources to launch additional attacks.

C.

They lack the financial resources to fund their activities.

D.

They typically attack only once.

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Questions 5

In SecOps, what are two of the components included in the identify stage? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Initial Research

B.

Change Control

C.

Content Engineering

D.

Breach Response

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Questions 6

Which TCP/IP sub-protocol operates at the Layer7 of the OSI model?

Options:

A.

UDP

B.

MAC

C.

SNMP

D.

NFS

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Questions 7

Which of the following is a CI/CD platform?

Options:

A.

Github

B.

Jira

C.

Atom.io

D.

Jenkins

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Questions 8

What is a dependency for the functionality of signature-based malware detection?

Options:

A.

Frequent database updates

B.

Support of a DLP device

C.

API integration with a sandbox

D.

Enabling quality of service

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Questions 9

Which tool's analysis data gives security operations teams insight into their environment's risks from exposed services?

Options:

A.

IIDP

B.

IAM

C.

SIM

D.

Xpanse

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Questions 10

Which product from Palo Alto Networks extends the Security Operating Platform with the global threat intelligence and attack context needed to accelerate analysis, forensics, and hunting workflows?

Options:

A.

Global Protect

B.

WildFire

C.

AutoFocus

D.

STIX

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Questions 11

Which two services does a managed detection and response (MDR) solution provide? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Improved application development

B.

Incident impact analysis

C.

Periodic firewall updates

D.

Proactive threat hunting

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Questions 12

Which network firewall primarily filters traffic based on source and destination IP address?

Options:

A.

Proxy

B.

Stateful

C.

Stateless

D.

Application

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Questions 13

What is the recommended method for collecting security logs from multiple endpoints?

Options:

A.

Leverage an EDR solution to request the logs from endpoints.

B.

Connect to the endpoints remotely and download the logs.

C.

Configure endpoints to forward logs to a SIEM.

D.

Build a script that pulls down the logs from all endpoints.

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Questions 14

What is a purpose of workload security on a Cloud Native Security Platform (CNSP)?

Options:

A.

To provide automation for application creation in the cloud

B.

To secure serverless functions across the application

C.

To secure public cloud infrastructures only

D.

To provide comprehensive logging of potential threat vectors

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Questions 15

Which attacker profile acts independently or as part of an unlawful organization?

Options:

A.

cybercriminal

B.

cyberterrorist

C.

state-affiliated group

D.

hacktivist

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Questions 16

Which component of the AAA framework regulates user access and permissions to resources?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Allowance

C.

Accounting

D.

Authentication

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Questions 17

Which element of the security operations process is concerned with using external functions to help achieve goals?

Options:

A.

interfaces

B.

business

C.

technology

D.

people

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Questions 18

Which of the following is a service that allows you to control permissions assigned to users in order for them to access and utilize cloud resources?

Options:

A.

User-ID

B.

Lightweight Directory Access Protocol (LDAP)

C.

User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA)

D.

Identity and Access Management (IAM)

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Questions 19

Which MITRE ATT&CK tactic grants increased permissions to a user account for internal servers of a corporate network?

Options:

A.

Impact

B.

Privilege escalation

C.

Data exfiltration

D.

Persistence

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Questions 20

Which endpoint protection security option can prevent malware from executing software?

Options:

A.

Application allow list

B.

DNS Security

C.

URL filtering

D.

Dynamic access control

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Questions 21

Which IoT connectivity technology is provided by satellites?

Options:

A.

4G/LTE

B.

VLF

C.

L-band

D.

2G/2.5G

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Questions 22

In addition to local analysis, what can send unknown files to WildFire for discovery and deeper analysis to rapidly detect potentially unknown malware?

Options:

A.

Cortex XDR

B.

AutoFocus

C.

MineMild

D.

Cortex XSOAR

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Questions 23

What should a security operations engineer do if they are presented with an encoded string during an incident investigation?

Options:

A.

Save it to a new file and run it in a sandbox.

B.

Run it against VirusTotal.

C.

Append it to the investigation notes but do not alter it.

D.

Decode the string and continue the investigation.

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Questions 24

Which activities do local organization security policies cover for a SaaS application?

Options:

A.

how the data is backed up in one or more locations

B.

how the application can be used

C.

how the application processes the data

D.

how the application can transit the Internet

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Questions 25

Which technique uses file sharing or an instant messenger client such as Meebo running over Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP)?

Options:

A.

Use of non-standard ports

B.

Hiding within SSL encryption

C.

Port hopping

D.

Tunneling within commonly used services

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Questions 26

What is the purpose of host-based architectures?

Options:

A.

They share the work of both clients and servers.

B.

They allow client computers to perform most of the work.

C.

They divide responsibilities among clients.

D.

They allow a server to perform all of the work virtually.

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Questions 27

Systems that allow for accelerated incident response through the execution of standardized and automated playbooks that work upon inputs from security technology and other data flows are known as what?

Options:

A.

XDR

B.

STEP

C.

SOAR

D.

SIEM

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Questions 28

Which action is unique to the security orchestration, automation, and response (SOAR) platforms?

Options:

A.

Prioritizing alerts

B.

Enhancing data collection

C.

Using predefined workflows

D.

Correlating incident data

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Questions 29

In which type of Wi-Fi attack does the attacker intercept and redirect the victim’s web traffic to serve content from a web server it controls?

Options:

A.

Evil Twin

B.

Emotet

C.

Meddler-in-the-middle

D.

Jasager

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Questions 30

Which network analysis tool can be used to record packet captures?

Options:

A.

Smart IP Scanner

B.

Wireshark

C.

Angry IP Scanner

D.

Netman

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Questions 31

Which pillar of Prisma Cloud application security does vulnerability management fall under?

Options:

A.

dynamic computing

B.

identity security

C.

compute security

D.

network protection

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Questions 32

Which two network resources does a directory service database contain? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Services

B.

/etc/shadow files

C.

Users

D.

Terminal shell types on endpoints

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Questions 33

Match each description to a Security Operating Platform key capability.

Options:

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Questions 34

In a traditional data center what is one result of sequential traffic analysis?

Options:

A.

simplifies security policy management

B.

reduces network latency

C.

causes security policies to be complex

D.

improves security policy application ID enforcement

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Questions 35

Which core component is used to implement a Zero Trust architecture?

Options:

A.

VPN Concentrator

B.

Content Identification

C.

Segmentation Platform

D.

Web Application Zone

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Questions 36

Which statement describes a host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS)?

Options:

A.

It analyzes network traffic to detect unusual traffic flows and new malware.

B.

It scans a Wi-Fi network for unauthorized access and removes unauthorized devices.

C.

It is placed as a sensor to monitor all network traffic and scan for threats.

D.

It is installed on an endpoint and inspects the device.

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Questions 37

A user is given access to a service that gives them access to cloud-hosted physical and virtual servers, storage, and networking.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

Options:

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Questions 38

The seventy of an attack needs to be escalated.

What needs to be in place in order for the security operations team to properly inform various units within the enterprise of the issue?

Options:

A.

Interface Agreement

B.

FAO Incident Site —

C.

Corporate Executive Listserv

D.

Security Breach Blog

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Questions 39

Based on how much is managed by the vendor, where can CaaS be situated in the spread of cloud computing services?

Options:

A.

between PaaS and FaaS

B.

between IaaS and PaaS

C.

between On-Prem and IaaS

D.

between FaaS and Serverless

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Questions 40

What type of area network connects end-user devices?

Options:

A.

Wide Area Network (WAN)

B.

Campus Area Network (CAN)

C.

Local Area Network (LAN)

D.

Personal Area Network (PAN)

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Questions 41

Which type of portable architecture can package software with dependencies in an isolated unit?

Options:

A.

Containerized

B.

Serverless

C.

Air-gapped

D.

SaaS

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Questions 42

Which type of system is a user entity behavior analysis (UEBA) tool?

Options:

A.

Correlating

B.

Active monitoring

C.

Archiving

D.

sandboxing

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Questions 43

Which IPsec feature allows device traffic to go directly to the Internet?

Options:

A.

Split tunneling

B.

Diffie-Hellman groups

C.

d.Authentication Header (AH)

D.

IKE Security Association

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Questions 44

Which security component should you configure to block viruses not seen and blocked by the perimeter firewall?

Options:

A.

endpoint antivirus software

B.

strong endpoint passwords

C.

endpoint disk encryption

D.

endpoint NIC ACLs

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Questions 45

Which three services are part of Prisma SaaS? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Data Loss Prevention

B.

DevOps

C.

Denial of Service

D.

Data Exposure Control

E.

Threat Prevention

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Questions 46

What is the purpose of SIEM?

Options:

A.

Securing cloud-based applications

B.

Automating the security team’s incident response

C.

Real-time monitoring and analysis of security events

D.

Filtering webpages employees are allowed to access

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Questions 47

What is used to orchestrate, coordinate, and control clusters of containers?

Options:

A.

Kubernetes

B.

Prisma Saas

C.

Docker

D.

CN-Series

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Questions 48

Under which category does an application that is approved by the IT department, such as Office 365, fall?

Options:

A.

unsanctioned

B.

prohibited

C.

tolerated

D.

sanctioned

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Questions 49

Which type of attack involves sending data packets disguised as queries to a remote server, which then sends the data back to the attacker?

Options:

A.

DDoS

B.

DNS tunneling

C.

Command-and-control (C2)

D.

Port evasion

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Questions 50

Which technology helps Security Operations Center (SOC) teams identify heap spray attacks on company-owned laptops?

Options:

A.

CSPM

B.

ASM

C.

EDR

D.

CVVP

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Questions 51

From which resource does Palo Alto Networks AutoFocus correlate and gain URL filtering intelligence?

Options:

A.

Unit 52

B.

PAN-DB

C.

BrightCloud

D.

MineMeld

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Questions 52

Which characteristic of serverless computing enables developers to quickly deploy application code?

Options:

A.

Uploading cloud service autoscaling services to deploy more virtual machines to run their application code based on user demand

B.

Uploading the application code itself, without having to provision a full container image or any OS virtual machine components

C.

Using cloud service spot pricing to reduce the cost of using virtual machines to run their application code

D.

Using Container as a Service (CaaS) to deploy application containers to run their code.

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Questions 53

In an IDS/IPS, which type of alarm occurs when legitimate traffic is improperly identified as malicious traffic?

Options:

A.

False-positive

B.

True-negative

C.

False-negative

D.

True-positive

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Questions 54

What are two disadvantages of Static Rout ng? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Manual reconfiguration

B.

Requirement for additional computational resources

C.

Single point of failure

D.

Less security

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Questions 55

Which characteristic of advanced malware makes it difficult to detect?

Options:

A.

Data decompression

B.

Registered certificates

C.

Morphing code

D.

Low traffic volumes

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Questions 56

Which option is a Prisma Access security service?

Options:

A.

Compute Security

B.

Firewall as a Service (FWaaS)

C.

Virtual Private Networks (VPNs)

D.

Software-defined wide-area networks (SD-WANs)

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Questions 57

How can local systems eliminate vulnerabilities?

Options:

A.

Patch systems and software effectively and continuously.

B.

Create preventative memory-corruption techniques.

C.

Perform an attack on local systems.

D.

Test and deploy patches on a focused set of systems.

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Questions 58

What does SOAR technology use to automate and coordinate workflows?

Options:

A.

algorithms

B.

Cloud Access Security Broker

C.

Security Incident and Event Management

D.

playbooks

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Questions 59

What is the definition of a zero-day threat?

Options:

A.

The amount of time it takes to discover a vulnerability and release a security fix

B.

The period between the discovery of a vulnerability and development and release of a patch

C.

The day a software vendor becomes aware of an exploit and prevents any further hacking

D.

A specific day during which zero threats occurred

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Questions 60

Match the IoT connectivity description with the technology.

Options:

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Questions 61

Which tool automates remediation of a confirmed cybersecurity breach?

Options:

A.

SIEM

B.

EDR

C.

SOAR

D.

ISIM

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Questions 62

Which model would a customer choose if they want full control over the operating system(s) running on their cloud computing platform?

Options:

A.

SaaS

B.

DaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

IaaS

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Questions 63

A user is provided access over the internet to an application running on a cloud infrastructure. The servers, databases, and code of that application are hosted and maintained by the vendor.

Which NIST cloud service model is this?

Options:

A.

IaaS

B.

SaaS

C.

PaaS

D.

CaaS

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Questions 64

Which Palo Alto Networks product provides playbooks with 300+ multivendor integrations that help solve any security use case?

Options:

A.

Cortex XSOAR

B.

Prisma Cloud

C.

AutoFocus

D.

Cortex XDR

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Questions 65

What are two common lifecycle stages for an advanced persistent threat (APT) that is infiltrating a network? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Lateral movement

B.

Communication with covert channels

C.

Deletion of critical data

D.

Privilege escalation

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Questions 66

Which key component is used to configure a static route?

Options:

A.

router ID

B.

enable setting

C.

routing protocol

D.

next hop IP address

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Questions 67

What are three benefits of the cloud native security platform? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Increased throughput

B.

Exclusivity

C.

Agility

D.

Digital transformation

E.

Flexibility

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Questions 68

What are the two most prominent characteristics of the malware type rootkit? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

It encrypts user data.

B.

It cannot be detected by antivirus because of its masking techniques.

C.

It takes control of the operating system.

D.

It steals personal information.

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Exam Code: Practitioner
Exam Name: Palo Alto Networks Cybersecurity Practitioner (PCCP)
Last Update: Dec 13, 2025
Questions: 227
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