SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ Exam 2021 Questions and Answers

Cross-site scripting is a type of web application attack that involves injecting malicious code or scripts into a trusted website or application. The malicious code or script can execute in the browser of the victim who visits the website or application, and can perform actions such as stealing cookies, redirecting to malicious sites, displaying fake content, or compromising the system. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-cross-site-scripting https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pd f

A RAT (Remote Access Trojan) is a type of malware that allows an attacker to remotely access and control a compromised system without the user’s knowledge or consent. A RAT can perform various malicious activities on the system, such as stealing data, installing other malware, deleting files, modifying settings, capturing keystrokes, recording audio or video, etc. In this case, the attacker most likely used a RAT to gain administrative access to the network through a file downloaded from a social media site and subsequently installed it without the user’s knowledge

A tabletop exercise is a type of simulation exercise that involves discussing hypothetical scenarios and testing the incident response plan in a low-stress environment. A tabletop exercise can help an organization to improve its incident response process by identifying gaps, weaknesses, roles, responsibilities, communication channels, etc., and by evaluating the effectiveness and efficiency of the plan.

Implementing application execution in a sandbox for unknown software is the best defense against this scenario. A sandbox is a isolated environment that can run applications or code without affecting or being affected by other processes or systems. A sandbox can prevent malicious software from accessing or modifying sensitive data or resources, as well as limit its network communication and system privileges. A sandbox can also monitor and analyze the behavior and output of unknown software to determine if it is benign or malicious.

A smart card is a physical device that contains an embedded integrated circuit chip that can store and process data. A smart card can be used as a second authentication factor, in addition to a password, to verify the identity of a user who wants to log in to company-owned devices. A smart card requires a smart card reader to access the data on the chip, which adds an extra layer of security. A smart card meets the requirements of the company because it does not involve a smartphone or any other device that is not allowed at the desks

Dynamic resource allocation is a technique that allows cloud providers to adjust the amount and distribution of computing resources according to the changing demand and capacity of the cloud environment1. Dynamic resource allocation can improve the efficiency and utilization of available computing power, as well as reduce the cost and energy consumption of the cloud infrastructure1. Dynamic resource allocation can also enhance the system availability and reliability by avoiding potential denial-of-service situations caused by overloading or under-provisioning of resources1.

EDR stands for Endpoint Detection and Response, which is a technology that monitors, detects, and responds to cyber threats on endpoint devices, such as laptops, desktops, servers, or mobile devices. EDR collects and analyzes data from endpoints to identify suspicious or malicious activities, such as malware installation, file modification, registry changes, network connections, or user actions. EDR also provides tools and capabilities to respond to threats, such as isolating infected devices, blocking malicious processes, removing malware, or restoring files.

Historically, a company has had issues with users plugging in personally owned removable media devices into corporate computers. As a result, the threat of malware incidents is almost constant. EDR would best help prevent the malware from being installed on the computers by detecting the insertion of removable media devices and scanning them for any malicious code or files. EDR would also alert the security team of any potential infection and enable them to take immediate action to contain and remediate the threat.

Utilizing split tunneling so only traffic for corporate resources is encrypted would best maintain high-quality videoconferencing while minimizing latency when connected to the VPN. Split tunneling is a technique that allows a VPN user to access both the public internet and the private network simultaneously, without routing all traffic through the VPN. This can improve the performance and quality of videoconferencing applications that rely on low latency and high bandwidth, as well as reduce the load on the VPN server.

Communication protocols are the rules and standards that govern how devices communicate over a network. They are essential for ensuring security, reliability, and compatibility among different loT devices. Some examples of communication protocols for loT are MQTT, CoAP, HTTP, and Zigbee.

Impossible travel time is an anomaly detection that indicates a possible compromise of a user account. It occurs when the same user connects from two different countries and the time between those connections is shorter than the time it would take to travel from the first location to the second by conventional means. This suggests that a different user is using the same credentials or that a proxy or VPN is being used to mask the true location. The log activity shows that the user connected from two different IP addresses in different countries (US and Brazil) within a span of 37 minutes, which is impossible to achieve by normal travel. References: Detecting and Remediating Impossible Travel - Microsoft Community Hub; Anomaly detection policies - Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps; Understanding Microsoft 365 Impossible Travel Rules | Blumira

Segmentation is a security technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks or segments based on criteria such as function, role, location, etc. Segmentation can help mitigate the risk of unauthorized access or data leakage by isolating different segments from each other and applying different security policies and controls to each segment. Segmentation can help the security manager to implement a mitigation while maintaining alerting capabilities by separating the smart generator from the internal file server and allowing only necessary communication between them.

A transit gateway is a network transit hub that can be used to interconnect virtual private clouds (VPCs) and on-premises networks. A transit gateway can consolidate and forward inbound internet traffic to multiple cloud environments through a single firewall by offering the following features:

• Attachments that can connect one or more VPCs, a Connect SD-WAN/third-party network appliance, an AWS Direct Connect gateway, a peering connection with another transit gateway, or a VPN connection to a transit gateway.
• Transit gateway route table that can include dynamic and static routes that decide the next hop based on the destination IP address of the packet.
• Associations and route propagation that can link each attachment with a route table and dynamically propagate routes to or from a transit gateway route table. References: What is a transit gateway? - Amazon VPC; Network Gateway – AWS Transit Gateway – Amazon Web Services; Configure VPN gateway transit for virtual network peering; AWS — Difference between VPC Peering and Transit Gateway

A cold aisle and a hot aisle are design strategies for data centers that aim to improve the cooling efficiency and reduce the energy consumption. They involve lining up server racks in alternating rows with cold air intakes facing one side (the cold aisle) and hot air exhausts facing the other side (the hot aisle). This prevents the mixing of hot and cold air and creates a more uniform temperature distribution. The cold aisles receive cold air from the cooling units, while the hot aisles return hot air to the cooling units. This improves the performance and reliability of the IT equipment and lowers the cooling costs. References: Hot and Cold-Aisle Containment - Advantages & Disadvantages - AKCP; Hot Aisle Containment vs. Cold Aisle Containment: Which is Better for the Data Center? - Upsite; Aisle Containment Systems FAQ for Hot & Cold Aisle Solutions - Cool Shield; Hot and Cold Aisle Containment Differences - AKCP Monitoring; What is Hot Aisle/Cold Aisle? - Definition from Techopedia

A service level agreement (SLA) defines response time, escalation points, and performance metrics. An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that specifies the level and quality of service that will be delivered. An SLA typically includes metrics such as availability, reliability, throughput, latency, security, etc., as well as penalties or remedies for failing to meet them. An SLA also defines how issues will be reported and resolved, how often reviews will be conducted, and how changes will be communicated.

A USB data blocker is a device that prevents data transfer between a USB device and a host computer, while still allowing charging. This can prevent data breaches caused by malicious USB chargers or devices that may attempt to access or infect the phone’s data.

WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access 2) is a network security protocol that should be implemented to ensure the strongest encryption for a wireless network. WPA2 is an upgrade from the original WPA protocol, which was designed as a replacement for the older and less secure WEP protocol. WPA2 implements the mandatory elements of IEEE 802.11i standard, including CCMP, an AES-based encryption mode. WPA2 provides stronger security and data protection than WPS (Wi-Fi Protected Setup), WAP (Wireless Application Protocol), or HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure)

A security control objective cannot be met through a technical change, so the company implements a policy to train users on a more secure method of operation best describes a risk reduction technique. Risk reduction is a strategy that aims to lower the likelihood or impact of a risk by implementing controls or mitigations. For example, if a technical control is not feasible or cost-effective, a company can reduce the risk by educating users on how to avoid or handle the threat, such as using strong passwords, avoiding phishing emails, or reporting incidents.

Geolocation and time-of-day restrictions would be best to mitigate the CEO’s concerns about staff members working from high-risk countries while on holiday or outsourcing work to a third-party organization in another country. Geolocation is a technique that involves determining the physical location of a device or user based on its IP address, GPS coordinates, Wi-Fi signals, or other indicators. Time-of-day restrictions are policies that limit the access or usage of resources based on the time of day or week. Geolocation and time-of-day restrictions can help to enforce access control rules, prevent unauthorized access, detect anomalous behavior, and comply with regulations. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-geolocation https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

A web application firewall (WAF) is a security solution that monitors and filters the traffic between a web application and the internet. It can prevent code injection attacks by blocking malicious requests that contain code snippets or commands that could compromise the web application. A WAF can also enforce input validation rules and sanitize user inputs to prevent code injection. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 4: Implementing Secure Network Designs, page 194; 5 ways to prevent code injection in JavaScript and Node.js

tail is a Linux command that can be used to display the last part of a file. grep is a Linux command that can be used to search for a pattern in a file or input. The pipe symbol (|) is used to connect two commands and pass the output of one command as the input of another command. The best command for the analyst to use on the syslog server to search for recent traffic to the command-and-control website is tail -500 /logfiles/messages | grep www.comptia.com. This command would display the last 500 lines of the /logfiles/messages file and filter them by the pattern www.comptia.com, which is the domain name of the command-and-control website. This way, the analyst can see any syslog messages that contain the domain name of the malicious website and investigate them further.  2122 [23] References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 11: Explaining Digital Forensics Concepts, page 498; tail (Unix) - Wikipedia; grep - Wikipedia; [How To Use grep Command In Linux / UNIX - nixCraft]

The ability of code to target a hypervisor from inside a guest OS is known as VM escape. This is a serious security threat that can compromise the entire virtualized environment and allow an attacker to access other guest OSes or the host OS. VM escape can be achieved by exploiting vulnerabilities in the hypervisor software, the guest OS, or the virtual hardware devices4.

Intellectual property is a type of data that is proprietary and unique to an organization. It includes trade secrets and other information that the organization does not want to share with third parties or competitors. Employees in the research and development business unit are most likely to use intellectual property in their day-to-day work activities, as they are involved in creating new products, services, or processes for the organization. Intellectual property data requires a high level of security and protection, as it can provide a competitive advantage or disadvantage if leaked or stolen.

Encrypted data is not a type of data, but a state of data. Encryption is a method of transforming data into an unreadable format using a key, so that only authorized parties can access it. Encryption can be applied to any type of data, such as intellectual property, critical data, or data in transit.

Critical data is a type of data that is essential for the operation and continuity of an organization. It includes information such as customer records, financial transactions, employee details, and so on. Critical data may or may not be intellectual property, depending on the nature and source of the data. Critical data also requires a high level of security and protection, as it can affect the reputation, performance, or legal compliance of the organization.

Data in transit is not a type of data, but a state of data. Data in transit refers to data that is moving from one location to another over a network, such as the internet, a LAN, or a WAN. Data in transit can be vulnerable to interception, modification, or theft by malicious actors. Data in transit can also be any type of data, such as intellectual property, critical data, or PII.

CSRF stands for Cross-Site Request Forgery, which is an attack that forces an end user to execute unwanted actions on a web application in which they are currently authenticated1. In this case, the attacker may have tricked the user into clicking a malicious link or visiting a malicious website that sends forged requests to the web server of the bank, using the user’s session cookie or other credentials. The web server then performs the money transfer requests as if they were initiated by the user, without verifying the origin or validity of the requests.

A. SQLi. This is not the correct answer, because SQLi stands for SQL Injection, which is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application’s database layer, where malicious SQL statements are inserted into an entry field for execution2. The output of the web server log does not show any SQL statements or commands.

B. CSRF. This is the correct answer, because CSRF is an attack that exploits the trust a web server has in a user’s browser, where malicious requests are sent to the web server using the user’s credentials1. The output of the web server log shows multiple GET requests with different account numbers and amounts, which may indicate a CSRF attack.

C. Spear phishing. This is not the correct answer, because spear phishing is an attack that targets a specific individual or organization with a personalized email or message that contains a malicious link or attachment3. The output of the web server log does not show any email or message content or headers.

D. API. This is not the correct answer, because API stands for Application Programming Interface, which is a set of rules and specifications that allow software components to communicate and exchange data. API is not an attack method, but rather a way of designing and developing software applications.

A Web Application Firewall (WAF) is a security solution that protects web applications from various types of attacks such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting (XSS), and others. It is typically deployed in front of web servers to inspect incoming traffic and filter out malicious requests.

To protect the company’s website from malicious web requests over SSL, a decryption certificate is needed to decrypt the SSL traffic before it reaches the WAF. This allows the WAF to inspect the traffic and filter out malicious requests.

Explanation: Awareness training should be implemented to educate users on the risks of clicking on malicious URLs. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 9

Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP) is used to validate a certificate when it is presented to a user. OCSP is a protocol that allows a client or browser to query the status of a certificate from an OCSP responder, which is a server that maintains and provides the revocation status of certificates issued by a certificate authority (CA). OCSP can help to verify the authenticity and validity of a certificate and prevent the use of revoked or expired certificates. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-ocsp https://www.c ertblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

A threat actor who used a sophisticated attack to breach a well-known ride-sharing company and posted on social media that this action was in response to the company’s treatment of its drivers is most likely a hacktivist. A hacktivist is a person who uses hacking skills to promote a social or political cause, such as human rights, environmentalism, or anti-corporatism5.

To prevent such a breach in the future, the BEST control to use would be Password complexity.

Password complexity is a security measure that requires users to create strong passwords that are difficult to guess or crack. It can help prevent unauthorized access to systems and data by making it more difficult for attackers to guess or crack passwords.

The best control to use to prevent a breach like the one shown in the logs is password complexity. Password complexity requires users to create passwords that are harder to guess, by including a mix of upper and lowercase letters, numbers, and special characters. In the logs, the attacker was able to guess the user's password using a dictionary attack, which means that the password was not complex enough. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives - Exam SY0-601

Facial recognition is a type of biometric authentication that uses the unique features of a person’s face to verify their identity. Facial recognition is not something you know or have, but something you are, which is one of the three factors of authentication. Facial recognition can use various methods and technologies, such as 2D or 3D images, infrared sensors, machine learning and more, to capture, analyze and compare facial data. Facial recognition can provide a convenient and secure way to authenticate users on personal mobile devices, as it does not require any additional hardware or input from the user. Facial recognition can also be used in conjunction with other factors, such as passwords or tokens, to provide multi-factor authentication. Verified References:

• Biometrics - SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.4 - Professor Messer IT Certification Training Courses https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/biometrics/ (See Facial Recognition)
• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 2: Architecture and Design, Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, implement identity and access management controls.)
• Biometric and Facial Recognition - CompTIA Security+ Certification (SY0-501) https://www.oreilly.com/library/view/comptia-security-certification/9781789953091/video9_6.html (See Biometric and Facial Recognition)

The company is implementing privileged access management, which provides just-in-time permissions for administrative functions.

The Service Level Agreement (SLA) is a contract between the cloud service provider and the organization that stipulates the exact requirements for the cloud provider. It outlines the level of service that the provider must deliver, including the minimum uptime percentage, support response times, and the remedies and penalties for failing to meet the agreed-upon service levels.

HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption. HSMaas allows the organization to use its own keys or generate new ones, and to control and manage them centrally regardless of where the data is stored or processed. HSMaas also reduces the latency and complexity of managing multiple encryption keys across different cloud providers, as well as the cost and maintenance of deploying physical HSM devices.

A. Trusted Platform Module. This is not the correct answer, because a Trusted Platform Module (TPM) is a hardware chip that provides secure storage and generation of cryptographic keys on a device, such as a laptop or a server. A TPM does not offer a cloud-based solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

B. laaS. This is not the correct answer, because laaS stands for Infrastructure as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networks, over the internet. laaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

C. HSMaas. This is the correct answer, because HSMaas stands for Hardware Security Module as a Service, which is a cloud-based service that provides secure and scalable key management and cryptographic operations for data encryption and decryption across multiple cloud providers.

D. PaaS. This is not the correct answer, because PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud computing model that provides a platform for developing and deploying applications over the internet. PaaS does not provide a specific solution for key management and encryption across multiple cloud providers.

This is the best course of action for the help desk technician because it can help prevent a potential social engineering attack. Social engineering is a technique that involves manipulating or deceiving people into revealing sensitive information or performing actions that compromise security. The caller may be impersonating a member of the organization’s cybersecurity incident response team to obtain the network’s internal firewall IP address, which could be used for further attacks. The help desk technician should not provide any information over the phone without verifying the caller’s identity and authorization. The help desk technician should also report the incident to the organization’s cybersecurity officer for investigation and response. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/social-engineering-explained https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

Jailbreaking is the vulnerability that the organization is addressing by adding a clause to its AUP that states employees are not allowed to modify the operating system on mobile devices. Jailbreaking is the process of removing the restrictions or limitations imposed by the manufacturer or carrier on a mobile device, such as an iPhone or iPad. Jailbreaking can allow users to install unauthorized applications, customize settings, or access system files. However, jailbreaking can also expose the device to security risks, such as malware, data loss, or warranty voidance. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-jailbreaking https://www.cert blaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

The user input credentials into a pop-up window that was not part of the trusted website. This suggests that the attacker was able to forge a certificate and present a fake website that looked like the legitimate one. This is a type of attack known as certificate forgery, which exploits the trust relationship between users and websites that use SSL/TLS encryption2.

Hashing is a process that applies a mathematical algorithm to a data set, such as a file or a message, and produces a fixed-length string of characters called a hash or a digest. Hashing helps to demonstrate integrity during a forensics investigation because it can verify that the data has not been altered, corrupted, or tampered with. By comparing the hash values of the original and the copied data, investigators can ensure that they are identical and authentic. If the hash values are different, it means that the data has been modified in some way

Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that are implemented when the primary or preferred controls are not feasible or effective. Compensating controls can provide a similar level of protection or reduce the risk to an acceptable level until a proper fix is released. For example, if a vulnerability exists in a web server that allows remote code execution, a compensating control could be to restrict access to the web server by using a firewall or an IPS.

An on-path attack is an attack that took place when an attacker was eavesdropping on a user who was shopping online and was able to spoof the IP address associated with the shopping site. An on-path attack is a type of network attack that involves intercepting or modifying traffic between two parties by placing oneself in the communication path. An on-path attack can also be called a man-in-the-middle attack or a session hijacking attack. An on-path attacker can steal sensitive information, such as credit card details, or redirect the user to a malicious website. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-man-in-the-middle-attack https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam-Objectives-1.0.pdf

Account audits are periodic reviews of user accounts to ensure that they are being used appropriately and that access is being granted and revoked in accordance with the organization's policies and procedures. If the compliance team had been conducting regular account audits, they would have identified the users who left the company six months ago and ensured that their access was revoked in a timely manner. This would have prevented the compliance violation caused by these users still having access to the company's systems.

To prevent this compliance violation, the company should implement account audits. An account audit is a regular review of all user accounts to ensure that they are being used properly and that they are in compliance with the company's security policies. By conducting regular account audits, the company can identify inactive or unused accounts and remove access for those users. This will help to prevent compliance violations and ensure that only authorized users have access to the company's systems and data.

Hacktivists are hackers who use their skills to promote a political or social cause, such as human rights, environmentalism, anti-censorship, etc. Hacktivists may target organizations or individuals who oppose their views or agendas, and launch cyberattacks such as defacement, denial-of-service, data theft, or sabotage. In this case, the security manager should consider hacktivists as a potential threat actor who may launch cyberattacks in response to the CEO’s controversial opinion article.

A false positive is a result that indicates a problem when there is no actual problem. In this case, the vulnerability scan flagged the domain controller with a critical vulnerability, but the domain controller does not run the application that is vulnerable. Therefore, the scan result is inaccurate and should be documented as a false positive.

A. Ensure the scan engine is configured correctly. This is not the next step, because the scan engine may be configured correctly and still produce false positives due to various factors, such as outdated signatures, network latency, or misconfigured devices.

B. Apply a patch to the domain controller. This is not the next step, because applying a patch to a system that does not have the vulnerability may cause unnecessary problems or conflicts.

C. Research the CVE. This is not the next step, because the systems administrator already researched the vulnerability and discovered that it does not affect the domain controller.

D. Document this as a false positive. This is the correct answer, because documenting false positives helps to improve the accuracy and efficiency of future scans and audits.

The attacker is most likely attempting a watering-hole attack. A watering-hole attack is a type of attack that targets a specific group of users by compromising a website that they frequently visit. The attacker then installs malware on the website that infects the visitors’ devices or redirects them to malicious sites. The attacker hopes to gain access to the users’ credentials, data, or networks by exploiting their trust in the legitimate website2.

The log entry shows the IP address for "www.example.com " being changed to a different IP address, which is likely the result of DNS poisoning. DNS poisoning occurs when an attacker is able to change the IP address associated with a domain name in a DNS server's cache, causing clients to connect to the attacker's server instead of the legitimate server. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.2 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) providers offer a la carte services, including cloud backups, VM elasticity, and secure networking. With IaaS, businesses can rent infrastructure components such as virtual machines, storage, and networking from a cloud service provider. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, pages 233-234

A purple team combines both offensive and defensive testing techniques to protect an organization’s critical systems. A purple team is a type of cybersecurity team that consists of members from both the red team and the blue team. The red team performs simulated attacks on the organization’s systems, while the blue team defends against them. The purple team facilitates the collaboration and communication between the red team and the blue team, and provides feedback and recommendations for improvement. A purple team can help the organization identify and remediate vulnerabilities, enhance security controls, and increase resilience. References: https://w ww.comptia.org/blog/red-team-blue-team-purple-team https://www.certblaster.com/wp-content/uploads/2020/11/CompTIA-Security-SY0-601-Exam -Objectives-1.0.pdf

The issue is DNS spoofing, where the DNS resolution has been compromised and is pointing to a malicious IP address. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7

The best backup strategy for minimizing the number of backups that need to be restored in case of data loss is full backups followed by incremental backups. This strategy allows for a complete restoration of data by restoring the most recent full backup followed by the most recent incremental backup. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Guide, Third Edition (Exam SY0-601) page 126

laaS (Infrastructure as a Service) allows the creation of virtual networks, automation, and scripting to reduce the area utilized in a datacenter. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4

Data sovereignty refers to the legal concept that data is subject to the laws and regulations of the country in which it is located. International operations can impact data sovereignty as companies operating in multiple countries may need to comply with different laws and regulations. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 5

To determine the total risk an organization can bear, a technician should review the organization's risk tolerance, which is the amount of risk the organization is willing to accept. This information will help determine the organization's "cloud-first" adoption strategy. References: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601)

Data loss prevention (DLP) is a technology used to actively monitor for specific file types being transmitted on the network. DLP solutions can prevent the unauthorized transfer of sensitive information, such as credit card numbers and social security numbers, by monitoring data in motion.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 2: Technologies and Tools, pp. 99-102.

Detailed Explanation: WPA2-Enterprise can accommodate all of the requirements listed. WPA2-Enterprise uses 802.1X authentication to differentiate between users, supports the use of RADIUS for authentication, and allows for the use of dynamic encryption keys that can be changed without disrupting the users or requiring reauthentication. Additionally, WPA2-Enterprise does not allow for open SSIDs.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 7: Securing Networks, p. 317

Identification is the first step in the incident response process, which involves recognizing that an incident has occurred. Containment is the second step, followed by eradication, recovery, and lessons learned.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 10: Incident Response and Recovery, pp. 437-441.

The order of volatility is the order of how quickly data can be lost or changed in a system. The order of volatility is important for digital forensics and evidence collection, as it determines the priority and sequence of data preservation. The correct order of volatility from most to least volatile is cache, memory, temporary filesystems, disk, archival media. Cache is the fastest and most volatile type of memory that stores frequently used data. Memory is the main memory or RAM that stores data for active processes. Temporary filesystems are files that are created and deleted during normal system operations, such as swap files, print spool files, etc. Disk is the permanent storage device that stores data on magnetic or solid-state media. Archival media are devices that store data for long-term preservation, such as optical disks, tapes, etc.

The network analyst should enable Wi-Fi Protected Setup (WPS) to allow users to connect to the wireless access point securely without having to remember passwords. WPS allows users to connect to a wireless network by pressing a button or entering a PIN instead of entering a password.

Organized crime is a term that describes groups of criminals who operate in a coordinated and systematic manner to pursue illicit activities for profit. Organized crime groups often use sophisticated tools and techniques to evade law enforcement and exploit vulnerabilities in various sectors, such as finance, transportation, or healthcare. Organized crime groups may also collaborate with other criminal groups or actors to share resources, information, or expertise.

Ransomware as a service (RaaS) is an example of a business model used by organized crime groups to conduct ransomware and extortion attacks. RaaS is an arrangement between an operator, who develops and maintains the tools to power extortion operations, and an affiliate, who deploys the ransomware payload. When the affiliate conducts a successful ransomware and extortion attack, both parties profit. The RaaS model lowers the barrier to entry for attackers who may not have the skill or technical wherewithal to develop their own tools but can manage ready-made penetration testing and sysadmin tools to perform attacks12.

Insider threat is a term that describes individuals who have legitimate access to an organization’s systems or data and use it for malicious purposes, such as theft, sabotage, or espionage. Insider threats may be motivated by various factors, such as greed, revenge, ideology, or coercion. Insider threats may also be unintentional, such as when an employee falls victim to phishing or social engineering.

Hacktivist is a term that describes individuals or groups who use hacking or cyberattacks to promote a political or social cause. Hacktivists may target governments, corporations, or other entities that they perceive as oppressive, corrupt, or unethical. Hacktivists may also use cyberattacks to expose information, disrupt services, or deface websites.

Nation-state is a term that describes a sovereign state that has a centralized government and a defined territory. Nation-state actors are individuals or groups who conduct cyberattacks on behalf of or with the support of a nation-state. Nation-state actors may target other states, organizations, or individuals for various reasons, such as espionage, sabotage, influence, or retaliation.

Staging is an environment in the software development lifecycle that is used to test a modified version of the actual data, current version configurations, and code. This environment compares user-story responses and workflow before the software is released to the production environment. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, Sybex, pg. 496

The most likely cause of the issue is that the S/MIME plug-in is not enabled. S/MIME stands for Secure/Multipurpose Internet Mail Extensions, which is a standard that allows email users to encrypt and digitally sign their messages. S/MIME uses public key cryptography and certificates to ensure confidentiality, integrity, authenticity, and non-repudiation of email communications. However, S/MIME requires both the sender and the receiver to have compatible email clients and plug-ins that support S/MIME functionality. If the receiver does not have the S/MIME plug-in enabled, they will not be able to decrypt or verify the encrypted message.

Visitor logs are records of who enters and exits a facility, when, and for what purpose. They can help hold staff accountable while escorting unauthorized personnel by providing evidence of their identity, authorization, and activities. Visitor logs can also help with auditing, incident response, and compliance.

The Center for Internet Security (CIS) uses six initial steps that provide basic control over system security, including hardware and software inventory, vulnerability management, and continuous monitoring to minimize risk in all network environments. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 1.1: Compare and contrast different types of security concepts.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 15-16

The security engineer is an example of a data custodian. A data custodian is a person who is responsible for implementing and maintaining the security controls for the data, such as encryption, backup, access control, etc. A data custodian acts on behalf of the data owner, who is the person who has the authority and accountability for the data. A data controller is a person who determines the purposes and means of processing the data, such as a company or an organization. A data processor is a person who processes the data on behalf of the data controller, such as a service provider or a vendor1.

A Raspberry Pi device connected to an Ethernet port could be configured as a rogue access point, allowing an attacker to intercept and analyze network traffic or perform other malicious activities. References: CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives: 3.2 Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.

A Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) system is a tool that collects and analyzes security-related data from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 5

Reviewing the email event logs can support an investigation for fraudulent submission, as these logs can provide details about the history of emails, including the message content, timestamps, and sender/receiver information. Reference: CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives, Exam SY0-601, 3.2 Given a scenario, implement appropriate data security and privacy controls.

Vulnerability scanning is a proactive security measure used to identify vulnerabilities in the network and systems. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide 601, Chapter 4

PKI certificates are digital certificates that use public key infrastructure (PKI) to verify the identity and authenticity of a sender and a receiver of data1. PKI certificates can be used to secure web applications with HTTPS, which is a protocol that encrypts and protects the data transmitted over the internet1.

One of the properties of PKI certificates is the domain name, which is the name of the website or web application that the certificate is issued for2. The domain name can be either a specific name, such as app1.comptia.org, or a wildcard name, such as *.comptia.org2. A wildcard name means that the certificate can be used with multiple subdomains of a domain, such as payment.comptia.org or contact.comptia.org2.

Another property of PKI certificates is the validity period, which is the time span during which the certificate is valid and can be used3. The validity period is determined by the certificate authority (CA) that issues the certificate, and it usually ranges from one to three years3. The validity period can be checked by looking at the valid from and valid to dates on the certificate3.

Based on these properties, the certificate that will meet the requirements of rotating annually and only containing wildcards at the secondary subdomain level is A. HTTPS://*.comptia.org, Valid from April 10 00:00:00 2021 - April 8 12:00:00 2022. This certificate has a wildcard character (*) at the secondary subdomain level, which means it can be used with any subdomain of comptia.org2. It also has a validity period of one year, which means it needs to be rotated annually3.

WAP stands for wireless access point, which is a device that allows wireless devices to connect to a wired network using Wi-Fi or Bluetooth. WAP placement refers to where and how WAPs are installed in a building or area.

WAP placement should be closely coordinated between the technology, cybersecurity, and physical security departments because it affects several aspects of network performance and security, such as:

• Coverage: WAP placement determines how well wireless devices can access the network throughout the building or area. WAPs should be placed in locations that provide optimal signal strength and avoid interference from other sources.
• Capacity: WAP placement determines how many wireless devices can connect to the network simultaneously without affecting network speed or quality. WAPs should be placed in locations that balance network load and avoid congestion or bottlenecks.
• Security: WAP placement determines how vulnerable wireless devices are to eavesdropping or hacking attacks from outside or inside sources. WAPs should be placed in locations that minimize exposure to unauthorized access and maximize encryption and authentication methods.

Graphical user interface, application, website, Teams Description automatically generated

Graphical user interface, text, application Description automatically generated

The company can use a wildcard certificate to secure its website if it is concerned with convenience and cost. A wildcard certificate can secure multiple subdomains, which makes it cost-effective and convenient for securing the various registered domains.

The retail company should use a wildcard certificate if it is concerned with convenience and cost12. A wildcard SSL certificate is a single SSL/TLS certificate that can provide significant time and cost savings, particularly for small businesses. The certificate includes a wildcard character (*) in the domain name field, and can secure multiple subdomains of the primary domain1

The responsibilities of ensuring backups are properly maintained and implementing technical controls to protect data are the responsibilities of the data custodian role. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 7: Securing Hosts and Data, Data Custodian

Choose Your Own Device (CYOD) is a deployment model that allows employees to select from a predefined list of devices. It provides employees with flexibility in device preference while allowing the company to maintain control and security over company data and infrastructure. CYOD deployment model provides a compromise between the strict control provided by Corporate-Owned, Personally Enabled (COPE) deployment model and the flexibility provided by Bring Your Own Device (BYOD) deployment model. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Chapter 6: Securing Application, Data, and Host Security, 6.5 Implement Mobile Device Management, pp. 334-335

To prevent attacks where the main website is directed to the attacker's web server and allowing the attacker to harvest credentials from unsuspecting customers, the company should implement SSL/TLS (Secure Sockets Layer/Transport Layer Security) to encrypt the communication between the web server and the clients. This will prevent attackers from intercepting and tampering with the communication, and will also help to verify the identity of the web server to the clients.

The researcher is most likely using the MITRE ATT&CK framework. MITRE ATT&CK is a globally accessible knowledge base of adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) based on real-world observations. It helps security teams better understand and track adversaries by creating a named group, which aligns with the scenario described in the question. The framework is widely recognized and referenced in the cybersecurity industry, including in CompTIA Security+ study materials. References: 1. CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives (SY0-601): https://www.comptia.jp/pdf/Security%2B%20SY0-601%20Exam%20Objectives.pdf 2. MITRE ATT &CK: https://attack.mitre.org/

MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base of adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that are observed in real-world cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK provides a common framework and language for describing and analyzing cyber threats and their behaviors. MITRE ATT&CK also allows security researchers to create named groups that track specific adversaries based on their TTPs.

The other options are not correct because:

• A. The Cyber Kill Chain is a model that describes the stages of a cyberattack from reconnaissance to exfiltration. The Cyber Kill Chain does not provide a way to create named groups based on adversary TTPs.
• B. The incident response process is a set of procedures and guidelines that defines how an organization should respond to a security incident. The incident response process does not provide a way to create named groups based on adversary TTPs.
• C. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis is a framework that describes the four core features of any intrusion: adversary, capability, infrastructure, and victim. The Diamond Model of Intrusion Analysis does not provide a way to create named groups based on adversary TTPs.

According to CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Exam Objectives 1.1 Compare and contrast different types of social engineering techniques:

“MITRE ATT&CK is a knowledge base of adversary tactics, techniques, and procedures (TTPs) that are observed in real-world cyberattacks. MITRE ATT&CK provides a common framework and language for describing and analyzing cyber threats and their behaviors.”

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://attack.mitre.org/

To observe the continued network-based transaction between a callback domain and the malware running on an enterprise PC while reducing the risk of lateral spread and the risk that the adversary would notice any changes, the best technique to use is to emulate the malware in a heavily monitored DMZ segment. This is a secure environment that is isolated from the rest of the network and can be heavily monitored to detect any suspicious activity. By emulating the malware in this environment, the activity can be observed without the risk of lateral spread or detection by the adversary. References: https://www.sans.org/blog/incident-response-fundamentals-why-is-the-dmz-so-important/

Input sanitization can help prevent attackers from learning the service account name by removing potentially harmful characters from user input, reducing the likelihood of successful injection attacks. References:

• CompTIA Security+ Certification Exam Objectives 2.2: Given a scenario, implement secure coding techniques.
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition, pages 72-73

The most likely cause of the document-scanning software program not responding when launched by the end user is that the software was not added to the application whitelist. An application whitelist is a list of approved software applications that are allowed to run on a system. If the software is not on the whitelist, it may be blocked from running by the system's security policies. Adding the software to the whitelist should resolve the issue and allow the program to run. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/31541/application-whitelisting

Detailed Explanation: Data Loss Prevention (DLP) can help prevent employees from stealing data by monitoring and controlling access to sensitive data. DLP can also detect and block attempts to transfer sensitive data outside of the organization, such as via email, file transfer, or cloud storage.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 10: Managing Identity and Access, p. 465

Access control vestibules, also known as mantraps or airlocks, are physical security features that require individuals to pass through two or more doors to enter a secure area. They are effective at preventing tailgating, as only one person can pass through each door at a time.

References:

• https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/what-is-a-mantrap
• CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Sixth Edition (SY0-601), page 222

Running a vulnerability scan is the final step to be performed prior to promoting a system to production. This allows any remaining security issues to be identified and resolved before the system is put into production. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, Exam SY0-601, 4th Edition, Chapter 3

The scenario describes a Man-in-the-Middle (MitM) attack where the attacker intercepts traffic and downgrades the secure SSL/TLS connection to an insecure HTTP connection. This type of attack is commonly known as SSL/TLS downgrade attack or a stripping attack. The attacker is able to see and modify the communication between the client and server.

Vishing is a social engineering attack that uses phone calls or voicemail messages to trick people into divulging sensitive information, such as financial information or login credentials.

A biometric scanner uses physical characteristics such as fingerprints to identify an individual user. It is used to ensure that only the authorized user is present when gaining access to a secured area.

Detailed Explanation: The attack being attempted is directory traversal, which is a web application attack that allows an attacker to access files and directories outside of the web root directory. A WAF can help mitigate this attack by detecting and blocking attempts to access files outside of the web root directory.

References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-601, Chapter 4: Securing Application Development and Deployment, p. 191

Smishing is a type of phishing attack which begins with an attacker sending a text message to an individual. The message contains social engineering tactics to convince the person to click on a malicious link or send sensitive information to the attacker. Criminals use smishing attacks for purposes like:

Learn login credentials to accounts via credential phishing

Discover private data like social security numbers

Send money to the attacker

Install malware on a phone

Establish trust before using other forms of contact like phone calls or emails

Attackers may pose as trusted sources like a government organization, a person you know, or your bank. And messages often come with manufactured urgency and time-sensitive threats. This can make it more difficult for a victim to notice a scam.

Phone numbers are easy to spoof with VoIP texting, where users can create a virtual number to send and receive texts. If a certain phone number is flagged for spam, criminals can simply recycle it and use a new one.

The technique of gaining access to a dual-homed multifunction device and then gaining shell access on another networked asset is an example of pivoting. References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide by Emmett Dulaney, Chapter 8: Application, Data, and Host Security, Enumeration and Penetration Testing

Salting is a technique that adds random data to user credentials before hashing them. This makes the hashed credentials more secure and resistant to brute-force attacks or rainbow table attacks. Salting also ensures that two users with the same password will have different hashed credentials.

A company that has more computing power can consider using salting to ensure user credentials are being transmitted and stored more securely. Salting can increase the complexity and entropy of the hashed credentials, making them harder to crack or reverse.

Access control vestibules are physical security controls that consist of two sets of doors or gates that create a small enclosed space between them. Only one door or gate can be opened at a time, and only one person can enter or exit the vestibule at a time. Access control vestibules can prevent multiple people from using a unique card swipe and being admitted to a secure entrance, as they require each person to authenticate individually and prevent tailgating or piggybacking.

NAC stands for network access control, which is a security solution that enforces policies and controls on devices that attempt to access a network. NAC can help prevent unauthorized devices from accessing the internal network by verifying their identity, compliance, and security posture before granting them access. NAC can also monitor and restrict the activities of authorized devices based on predefined rules and roles.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-network-access-control-nac.html

Directory traversal is an attack that exploits a vulnerability in a web application or a file system to access files or directories that are outside the intended scope. The attacker can use special characters, such as …/ or …\ , to navigate through the directory structure and access restricted files or directories.

Mitigating controls are designed to reduce the impact or severity of an event that has occurred or is likely to occur. They do not prevent or detect the event, but rather limit the damage or consequences of it. For example, a backup system is a mitigating control that can help restore data after a loss or corruption.

In this case, the company is focused on reducing risks from removable media threats, which are threats that can compromise data security, introduce malware infections, or cause media failure123. Removable media threats can be used to bypass network defenses and target industrial/OT environments2. The company cannot prohibit removable media entirely because of certain primary applications that require them, so it implements mitigating controls to lessen the potential harm from these threats.

Some examples of mitigating controls for removable media threats are:

• Encrypting data on removable media
• Scanning removable media for malware before use
• Restricting access to removable media ports
• Implementing policies and procedures for removable media usage and disposal
• Educating users on the risks and best practices of removable media

A UPS (uninterruptible power supply) device is a battery backup system that can provide consistent power levels in case of brownouts or voltage spikes. It can also provide a minimum of 30 minutes runtime following a power outage, depending on the size and load of the device. A network-connected UPS device can also communicate with critical systems and trigger graceful shutdowns if the battery level is low or the power is not restored. 

The correct order of evidence from most to least volatile in forensic analysis is based on how quickly the evidence can be lost or altered if not collected or preserved properly. CPU cache is the most volatile type of evidence because it is stored in a small amount of memory on the processor and can be overwritten or erased very quickly. Memory is the next most volatile type of evidence because it is stored in RAM and can be lost when the system is powered off or rebooted. Temporary filesystems are less volatile than memory because they are stored on disk, but they can still be deleted or overwritten by other processes or users. Disk is the least volatile type of evidence because it is stored on permanent storage devices and can be recovered even after deletion or formatting, unless overwritten by new data. References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-volatility-in-digital -forensics

This is an attempt to redirect traffic to an attacking host by sending an ARP packet that contains the forged address of the next hop router. The attacker tricks the victim into believing that it is the legitimate router by sending a spoofed ARP reply with its own MAC address. This causes the victim to send all its traffic to the attacker instead of the router. The attacker can then intercept, modify, or drop the packets as they please.

Shoulder surfing is a social engineering technique that involves looking over someone’s shoulder to see what they are typing, writing, or viewing on their screen. It can be used to steal passwords, PINs, credit card numbers, or other sensitive information. In this scenario, the contractor used shoulder surfing to overhear the customer’s credit card number during a phone call.

Isolating the device is the first thing that a security analyst should do if they suspect that a user’s device might be compromised. Isolating the device means disconnecting it from the network or placing it in a separate network segment to prevent further communication with potential attackers or malicious hosts. Isolating the device can help contain the incident, limit the damage or data loss, preserve the evidence, and facilitate the investigation and remediation.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/incident-response-process/

Patch management is classified as a corrective control because it is used to correct vulnerabilities or weaknesses in systems and applications after they have been identified. It is a reactive approach that aims to fix problems that have already occurred rather than prevent them from happening in the first place.

After the root cause of a security incident has been identified, it is important to take the time to analyze what went wrong and how it could have been prevented. This process is known as “lessons learned” and allows organizations to identify potential improvements to their security processes and protocols. Lessons learned typically involve a review of the incident and the steps taken to address it, a review of the security systems and procedures in place, and an analysis of any potential changes that can be made to prevent similar incidents from occurring in the future.

SQLi stands for SQL injection, which is a type of web security vulnerability that allows an attacker to execute malicious SQL statements on a database server. SQLi can result in data theft, data corruption, denial of service, or remote code execution.

The attacker in the web server log is trying to exploit a SQLi vulnerability by sending a malicious GET request that contains a UNION ALL SELECT statement. This statement is used to combine the results of two or more SELECT queries into a single result set. The attacker is attempting to retrieve user login, user pass, and user email from the wp users table, which is a WordPress database table that stores user information. The attacker may use this information to compromise the WordPress site or the users’ accounts.

A privileged access management (PAM) system is a solution that helps protect organizations against cyberthreats by monitoring, detecting, and preventing unauthorized privileged access to critical resources12. A PAM system can meet the requirements of the project by providing features such as:

• Check-in/checkout of credentials: A PAM system can store and manage privileged credentials in a secure vault, and allow authorized users to check out credentials when needed and check them back in when done. This reduces the risk of credential theft, misuse, or sharing23.
• The ability to use but not know the password: A PAM system can enable users to access privileged accounts or resources without revealing the actual password, using methods such as password injection, session proxy, or single sign-on23. This prevents users from copying, changing, or sharing passwords2.
• Automated password changes: A PAM system can automatically rotate and update passwords for privileged accounts according to predefined policies, such as frequency, complexity, and uniqueness23. This ensures that passwords are always strong and unpredictable, and reduces the risk of password reuse or compromise2.
• Logging of access to credentials: A PAM system can record and audit all activities related to privileged access, such as who accessed what credentials, when, why, and what they did with them23. This provides visibility and accountability for privileged access, and enables detection and investigation of anomalies or incidents2.

A PAM system is different from OAuth 2.0, which is an authorization framework that enables third-party applications to obtain limited access to an HTTP service on behalf of a resource owner4. OAuth 2.0 does not provide the same level of control and security over privileged access as a PAM system does.

A PAM system is also different from a secure enclave, which is a hardware-based security feature that creates an isolated execution environment within a processor to protect sensitive data from unauthorized access or modification5. A secure enclave does not provide the same functionality as a PAM system for managing privileged credentials and access.

A PAM system is also different from an OpenID Connect authentication system, which is an identity layer on top of OAuth 2.0 that enables users to verify their identity across multiple websites using a single login6. OpenID Connect does not provide the same scope and granularity as a PAM system for controlling and monitoring privileged access.

A standard naming convention policy would provide guidelines on how to label new network devices as part of the initial configuration. A standard naming convention policy is a document that defines the rules and formats for naming network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, or printers. A standard naming convention policy can help an organization achieve consistency, clarity, and efficiency in network management and administration.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/solutions/Enterprise/Network_Virtualization/PathIsolationDesignGuide/PathIsolationDesignGuide.pdf

A log collector can collect logs from various sources, such as servers, devices, applications, or network components, and forward them to a central source for analysis and storage23.

The scenario describes preventive controls, which are designed to stop malicious actors from gaining access to the organization's servers. This includes using multiple access points, such as a lobby, an access control vestibule, and multiple doors leading to the server floor, as well as caging the organization's hardware. According to the CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 document, preventive controls are "designed to stop malicious actors from performing a malicious activity or gaining access to an asset." These controls can include technical solutions, such as authentication and access control systems, physical security solutions, such as locks and barriers, and administrative solutions such as policy enforcement.

A business continuity plan (BCP) is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its critical functions during and after a disruptive event, such as a natural disaster, pandemic, cyberattack, or power outage. A BCP typically covers topics such as business impact analysis, risk assessment, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, communication plan, testing and training, and maintenance and review. A BCP can help the organization’s executives determine their next course of action by providing them with a clear framework and guidance for managing the crisis and resuming normal operations.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.ready.gov/business-continuity-plan

The most likely cause for the high number of findings is that the vulnerability scanner was not properly configured and generated a high number of false positives. False positive results occur when a vulnerability scanner incorrectly identifies a non-vulnerable system or application as being vulnerable. This can happen due to incorrect configuration, over-sensitive rule sets, or outdated scan databases.

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/sy0-601-comptia-security-plus-course/

zero trust is a security strategy that assumes breach and verifies each request as though it originates from an untrusted network12. A zero trust policy is a set of “allow rules” that specify conditions for accessing certain resources3.

According to one source4, the first step in implementing a zero trust policy is to identify and classify all data and assets in the organization. This helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.

Classifying all data on the file servers is the first step in implementing a zero trust policy because it helps to determine the level of sensitivity and risk associated with each resource and apply appropriate access controls.

Rainbow table is a type of attack that should concern a security administrator when reviewing the /etc/shadow file. The /etc/shadow file is a file that stores encrypted passwords of users in a Linux system. A rainbow table is a precomputed table of hashes and their corresponding plaintext values that can be used to crack hashed passwords. If an attacker obtains a copy of the /etc/shadow file, they can use a rainbow table to find the plaintext passwords of users.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.geeksforgeeks.org/rainbow-table-in-cryptography/

bluejacking is the sending of unsolicited messages over Bluetooth to Bluetooth-enabled devices such as mobile phones, PDAs or laptop computers. Bluejacking does not involve device hijacking, despite what the name implies. In this context, a human might say that the best answer to the question is B. BluJacking, because it is a method that can insert contacts without having physical access to the device.

PKI is a security technology that enables secure communication between two parties by using cryptographic functions. It consists of a set of components that are used to create, manage, distribute, store, and revoke digital certificates. PKI provides a secure way to exchange data between two parties, as well as a trust provider to ensure that the data is not tampered with. It also helps to create a highly scalable solution, as the same certificate can be used for multiple parties.

According to the CompTIA Security+ Study Guide, “PKI is a technology used to secure communications between two external parties. PKI is based on the concept of digital certificates, which are used to authenticate the sender and recipient of a message. PKI provides a trust provider to ensure that the digital certificate is valid and has not been tampered with. It also provides a scalable solution, as multiple parties can use the same certificate.”

An evil twin attack is when an attacker sets up a fake Wi-Fi network that looks like a legitimate network, but is designed to capture user data that is sent over the network. In this case, the user's laptop is constantly disconnecting and reconnecting to the Wi-Fi network, indicating that it is connecting to the fake network instead of the legitimate one. Once the user connects to the fake network, they are unable to access shared folders or other network resources, as those are only available on the legitimate network.

The reason for this is that older versions of Windows may have known vulnerabilities that have been patched in more recent versions. If a company is not regularly patching their systems, they are leaving those vulnerabilities open to exploit, which can allow malware to infect the systems.

It is important to regularly update and patch systems to address known vulnerabilities and protect against potential malware infections. This is an important aspect of proper security management.

Here is a reference to the CompTIA Security+ certification guide which states that "Properly configuring and maintaining software, including patch management, is critical to protecting systems and data."

Graphical user interface, application Description automatically generated

A security administrator needs to add fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage. Which of the following is the best choice to achieve this objective?

A. Multipathing

B. RAID

C. Segmentation

D. 8021.1

Answer: A

to achieve the objective of adding fault tolerance and load balancing to the connection from the file server to the backup storage is multipathing1. Multipathing is a technique that allows a system to use more than one path to access a storage device1. This can improve performance by distributing the workload across multiple paths, and also provide fault tolerance by switching to an alternative path if one path fails1. Multipathing can be implemented using software or hardware solutions1.

PEAP stands for Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol, which is a protocol that can provide secure authentication for wireless networks. PEAP can use certificates to authenticate the server and the client, or only the server. PEAP can also use other methods, such as passwords or tokens, to authenticate the client. PEAP can ensure only employees with a valid certificate can authenticate to the network.

RADIUS and Kerberos are two protocols that can be used to integrate Active Directory accounts and groups with network and remote-access devices. RADIUS is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and accounting for network access. It can use Active Directory as a backend database to store user credentials and group memberships. Kerberos is a protocol that provides secure authentication and encryption for network services. It is the default authentication protocol for Active Directory and can be used by remote-access devices that support it.

Typosquatting is a type of cyberattack that involves registering domains with deliberately misspelled names of well-known websites. The attackers do this to lure unsuspecting visitors to alternative websites, typically for malicious purposes. Visitors may end up at these alternative websites by inadvertently mistyping the name of popular websites into their web browser or by being lured by a phishing scam. The attackers may emulate the look and feel of the legitimate websites and trick users into entering sensitive information or downloading malware.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/what-is-typosquatting

A logic bomb is a type of malware that executes malicious code when certain conditions are met. A logic bomb can be triggered by various events, such as a specific date or time, a user action, a system configuration change, or a command from an attacker. A logic bomb can perform various malicious actions, such as deleting files, encrypting data, displaying messages, or launching other malware.

The snippet of Python code shows a logic bomb that executes a function called delete_all_files() when the current date is December 25th. The code uses the datetime module to get the current date and compare it with a predefined date object. If the condition is true, the code calls the delete_all_files() function, which presumably deletes all files on the system.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.kaspersky.com/resource-center/definitions/logic-bomb

This option is the most likely reason for preventing the IT manager at the hospital from upgrading the specialized OS. The MRI scanner is a complex and sensitive device that requires a specific OS to control and operate it. The MRI vendor may not have developed or tested newer versions of the OS for compatibility and functionality with the scanner. Upgrading the OS without the vendor’s support may cause the scanner to malfunction or stop working altogether.

A digital forensics chain-of-custody form is a document that records the chronological and logical sequence of custody, control, transfer, analysis, and disposition of digital evidence. A digital forensics chain-of-custody form should include the following information:

• The provenance of the artifacts: The provenance of the artifacts refers to the origin and history of the digital evidence, such as where, when, how, and by whom it was collected, handled, analyzed, or otherwise controlled.
• The date and time: The date and time refer to the specific moments when the digital evidence was collected, handled, analyzed, transferred, or disposed of by each person involved in the chain of custody.

Other information that may be included in a digital forensics chain-of-custody form are:

• The identification of the artifacts: The identification of the artifacts refers to the unique identifiers or labels assigned to the digital evidence, such as serial numbers, barcodes, hashes, or descriptions.
• The signatures of the custodians: The signatures of the custodians refer to the names and signatures of each person who had custody or control of the digital evidence at any point in the chain of custody.
• The location of the artifacts: The location of the artifacts refers to the physical or logical places where the digital evidence was stored or processed, such as a lab, a server, a cloud service, or a device.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/topic/chain-of-custody-in-digital-forensics/

There are three main models for cloud computing: Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS), Platform as a Service (PaaS), and Software as a Service (SaaS)12. Each model represents a different part of the cloud computing stack and provides different levels of control, flexibility, and management.

According to one source1, a public cloud is a type of cloud deployment where the cloud resources (such as servers and storage) are owned and operated by a third-party cloud service provider and delivered over the Internet. A public cloud can be shared with multiple organizations or users who pay for the service on a subscription or pay-as-you-go basis.

 A jump server is a device that acts as an intermediary between users and other devices on a network. A jump server can provide a secure and controlled access point to the legacy devices without exposing them directly to the network. A jump server can also enforce authentication, authorization, logging, and auditing policies.

Cuckoo is a sandbox that is specifically written to run programs inside and identify any malware. A sandbox is a virtualized environment that isolates the program from the rest of the system and monitors its behavior. Cuckoo can analyze files of various types, such as executables, documents, URLs, and more. Cuckoo can provide a report of the files’ activity against known threats, such as network traffic, file operations, registry changes, API calls, and so on.

A security operations center can implement Cuckoo to execute files to test for malicious activity and generate a report of the analysis. Cuckoo can help the security operations center to detect and prevent malware infections, investigate incidents, and perform threat intelligence.

IPSec (Internet Protocol Security) is a technology that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting traffic and authenticating it at both the sender and receiver. It can be used to create secure tunnels between two or more devices, allowing users to access resources securely and privately.

SSL VPN (Secure Sockets Layer Virtual Private Network) is a type of VPN that uses an SSL/TLS connection to encrypt traffic between two or more devices. It is a secure and reliable solution for providing remote access, as all traffic is encrypted and authenticated. Additionally, SSL VPNs can also be used to restrict access to certain websites and services, making them a secure and robust solution for remote access.

Three-factor authentication combines three types of authentication methods: something you know (password), something you have (physical token), and something you are (fingerprint scan). Option C satisfies these requirements, as it uses a password (something you know), a physical token (something you have), and a fingerprint scan (something you are) for authentication.

Thin clients are devices that have minimal hardware and software components and rely on a remote server to provide access to computing resources, an operating system, and centralized configuration and data. Thin clients can reduce the cost, complexity, and security risks of managing multiple devices.

Syslogs are log files that are generated by devices on the network and contain information about network activity, including user logins, device connections, and other events. By analyzing these logs, the IT security team can identify the source of the threatening voicemail messages and take the necessary steps to address the issue

Nmap is a tool that is used to scan IP addresses and ports in a network and to detect installed applications. Nmap can help a security administrator determine the services running on a server by sending various packets to the target and analyzing the responses. Nmap can also perform various tasks such as OS detection, version detection, script scanning, firewall evasion, and vulnerability scanning.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://nmap.org/

SOC2 is a type of audit report that provides assurance on the security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy of a service organization’s systems. It is based on the Trust Services Criteria developed by the American Institute of Certified Public Accountants (AICPA). A SOC2 report can provide proof that customer data is being appropriately protected by the hosted data provider1

https://www.csagroup.org/store/product/50072454/  3: https://www.csagroup.org/store/product/50072454os/  1: https://cloudsecurityalliance.org/blog/2021/08/20/star-testimonial-c sa-star-soc2-from-readiness-to-attestation/

Third-party applications are applications that are developed and provided by external vendors or sources, rather than by the organization itself. Third-party applications may introduce security risks if they are not properly vetted, configured, or updated. One of the most likely causes of vulnerability scanners flagging several hosts after the completion of the patch process is that third-party applications are not being patched. Patching is the process of applying updates or fixes to software to address bugs, vulnerabilities, or performance issues. Patching third-party applications is essential for maintaining their security and functionality, as well as preventing attackers from exploiting known flaws.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.csoonline.com/article/2124681/why-third-party-security-is-your-security.html

Lessons learned is a process that would most likely help an organization that has conducted an incident response exercise to improve performance and identify challenges. Lessons learned is a process that involves reviewing and evaluating the incident response exercise to identify what went well, what went wrong, and what can be improved. Lessons learned can help an organization enhance its incident response capabilities, address any gaps or weaknesses, and update its incident response plan accordingly.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.sans.org/reading-room/whitepapers/incident/incident-handlers-handbook-33901

 DLP stands for data loss prevention, which is a set of tools and processes that aim to prevent unauthorized access, use, or transfer of sensitive data. DLP can help mitigate the risk of data exfiltration by disgruntled employees or external attackers by monitoring and controlling data flows across endpoints, networks, and cloud services. DLP can also detect and block attempts to copy, transfer, or upload sensitive data to a USB drive or other removable media based on predefined policies and rules.

References: https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security#examdetails https://www.comptia.org/content/guides/comptia-security-sy0-601-exam-objectives https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/security/business/security-101/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp

This command creates an inbound access list that denies any IP traffic from the source IP address of 10.1.4.9/32 to any destination IP address (0.0.0.0/0). It blocks the originating source of malicious traffic from accessing the organization’s network. 

Site-to-site VPN is a type of VPN solution that connects two or more networks or sites across the public internet in a secure and encrypted way. Site-to-site VPN can be implemented using VPN appliances, such as firewalls or routers, that can establish and maintain the VPN tunnel between the sites. Site-to-site VPN can support multiple users or devices that need to access resources on the other site without requiring individual VPN clients or software. Site-to-site VPN is the best solution to support the new remote office, as it can provide secure and seamless connectivity between the office network and the main network of the organization. Verified References:

• Virtual Private Networks – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 3.3 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/virtual-private-networks-sy0-601-comptia-security-3-3/ (See Site-to-Site VPN)
• VPN Technologies – CompTIA Security+ SY0-501 – 3.2 https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-501/vpn-technologies/ (See Site-to-Site VPN)
• Security+ (Plus) Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications https://www.comptia.org/certifications/security (See Domain 3: Architecture and Design, Objective 3.3: Given a scenario, implement secure network architecture concepts.)

Containment is an incident response strategy that aims to isolate and prevent the spread of an attack or compromise within a network or system. It can resolve the issue of unauthorized software detected on a small number of machines in a lab as quickly as possible while causing minimal disruption to the researchers by stopping the software from communicating with external sources using HTTPS and SMS and preventing it from infecting additional machines outside of the lab

Data entropy is a measure of the randomness or unpredictability of data. High data entropy means that the data has more variation and less repetition, making it harder to guess or crack. It can increase cryptographic security by making the encryption keys and ciphertext more complex and resistant to brute-force attacks, frequency analysis, etc

Virtual machines are software-based simulations of physical computers that run on a host system and share its resources. They can provide resiliency for legacy information systems that cannot be migrated to a newer OS due to software compatibility issues by allowing OS patches to be installed in a non-production environment without affecting the production environment. They can also create backups of the systems for recovery by taking snapshots or copies of the virtual machine files.

A business continuity plan is a document or a process that outlines how an organization can continue its critical operations and functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. It can include strategies and procedures for recovering or relocating resources, personnel, data, etc., to ensure minimal downtime and impact. The organization will most likely consult the business continuity plan when setting up offices in a temporary work space after its corporate offices were destroyed due to a natural disaster.

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a set of security standards and requirements for organizations that store, process, or transmit payment card data. It aims to protect cardholder data and prevent fraud and data breaches. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is a regulation that governs the collection, processing, and transfer of personal data of individuals in the European Union. It aims to protect the privacy and rights of data subjects and impose obligations and penalties on data controllers and processors. These are the frameworks that the security officer should map the existing controls to, as they are relevant for a credit card transaction company that has a new office in Europe

Reputation is the perception or opinion that customers, partners, investors, etc., have about a company or its products and services. It can affect the revenue and profitability of a company after a network breach, even if no intellectual property or customer information was stolen, because it can damage the trust and confidence of the stakeholders and reduce their willingness to do business with the company

Badges are physical security controls that provide a way to identify and authenticate authorized individuals who need to access a building or a restricted area. Badges can also be used to track the entry and exit times of people and monitor their movements within the premises. Badges can help deter unauthorized access by requiring people to present a valid credential before entering or leaving the office. Badges can also help prevent tailgating, which is when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person through a door or gate. Badges can be integrated with other security systems, such as locks, alarms, cameras, or biometrics, to enhance the level of protection.

CIS benchmarks are best practices and standards for securing various operating systems, applications, cloud environments, etc. They are developed by a community of experts and updated regularly to reflect the latest threats and vulnerabilities. They can be used to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations to ensure compliance and reduce risks. 

A full inventory of all hardware and software would help ensure a security analyst is able to accurately measure the overall risk to an organization when a new vulnerability is disclosed, as it would allow the analyst to identify which systems and applications are affected by the vulnerability and prioritize the remediation efforts accordingly. A full inventory would also help the analyst to determine the impact and likelihood of a successful exploit, as well as the potential loss of confidentiality, integrity and availability of the data and services. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/risk-analysis/
• https://resources.infosecinstitute.com/certification/security-plus-risk-management-processes-and-concepts/
• https://www.comptia.org/landing/securityplus/index.html
• https://www.comptia.org/blog/complete-guide-to-risk-management

A network DLP (Data Loss Prevention) solution is a tool that monitors and controls the data that is transmitted over a network. It can inspect in-transit files on the enterprise network to search for PII (Personally Identifiable Information), credit card data, and classification words by using predefined rules and policies, and then block, encrypt, quarantine, or alert on any sensitive data that is detected or leaked. 

CIS benchmarks are best practices and standards for securing various operating systems, applications, cloud environments, etc. They are developed by a community of experts and updated regularly to reflect the latest threats and vulnerabilities. They can be used to update and reconfigure the OS-level security configurations to ensure compliance and reduce risks

Pseudo-anonymization is a technique of replacing sensitive data with artificial identifiers or pseudonyms that preserve some characteristics or attributes of the original data. It can protect employee data while allowing the companies to successfully share this information by removing direct identifiers such as names, addresses, etc., but retaining indirect identifiers such as job roles, pay scales, etc., that are relevant for the comparison.

Jamming is a type of denial-of-service attack that involves interfering with or blocking the wireless signal using a device that emits radio waves at the same frequency as the wireless network. It can cause the wireless network to be down and users to be unable to connect to it, especially if they are working in a building near the parking lot where someone could easily place a jamming device.

A SHA 2 signature is a cryptographic hash function that produces a unique and fixed-length output for any given input. It can provide non-repudiation during a forensics investigation by verifying the integrity and authenticity of a drive image and proving that it has not been altered or tampered with since it was created

OWASP (Open Web Application Security Project) is a non-profit organization that provides resources and guidance for improving the security of web applications. It can be the best resource for a software developer who is looking to improve secure coding practices for web applications by offering various tools, frameworks, standards, cheat sheets, testing guides, etc., that cover various aspects of web application security development and testing

A screenshot of a computer Description automatically generated with medium confidence

Mimikatz is a tool that can extract plaintext credentials from memory on Windows systems. A malicious flash drive can bypass the GPO blocking the flash drives by using techniques such as autorun.inf or HID spoofing to execute Mimikatz on the target system without user interaction or consent. This can cause AV alerts indicating Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems and also reduce the storage capacity of the flash drives to only 512KB by creating hidden partitions or files on them. 

Wireshark is a tool that can analyze pcap files, which are files that capture network traffic. Wireshark can display the packets, protocols, and other details of the network traffic in a graphical user interface. Nmap is a tool that can scan networks and hosts for open ports and services. CURL is a tool that can transfer data from or to a server using various protocols. Neat is a tool that can test network performance and quality.

A distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attack is an attempt to make a computer or network resource unavailable to its intended users. This is accomplished by overwhelming the target with a flood of traffic from multiple sources.

In the scenario described, the security analyst identified a source IP address and blocked it from communicating with the network. However, the attack was still ongoing and coming from a large number of different source IP addresses. This indicates that the attack was a DDoS attack.

Privilege escalation is an attack that allows an attacker to gain unauthorized access to a system or network. DNS poisoning is an attack that modifies the DNS records for a domain name, causing users to be redirected to a malicious website. A buffer overflow is an attack that occurs when a program attempts to store more data in a buffer than it is designed to hold.

Therefore, the most likely type of attack in the scenario described is a DDoS attack.

A single point of failure is a component or element of a system that, if it fails, will cause the entire system to fail or stop functioning. It can pose a high risk and impact for business continuity and availability. A high availability pair is a configuration that involves two identical devices or systems that operate in parallel and provide redundancy and failover capabilities. It can remove the single point of failure by ensuring that if one device or system fails, the other one can take over its functions without interruption or downtime. 

SED stands for Self-Encrypting Drive, which is a type of hard drive that automatically encrypts and decrypts data using a built-in hardware encryption engine1. SEDs do not require any additional software or configuration, and they do not affect the performance or usability of the laptop2. SEDs also have a feature called Instant Secure Erase, which allows the user to quickly and securely wipe the data on the drive by deleting the encryption key1.

Web serverBotnet Enable DDoS protectionUser RAT Implement a host-based IPSDatabase server Worm Change the default application passwordExecutive KeyloggerDisable vulnerable servicesApplication Backdoor Implement 2FA using push notification

A screenshot of a computer program Description automatically generated with low confidence

A hacktivist is a threat actor who is most likely to be motivated by ideology. A hacktivist is a person or group who uses hacking skills and techniques to promote a political or social cause. Hacktivists may target government, corporate, or religious entities that they disagree with or oppose. Hacktivists may use various methods to achieve their goals, such as defacing websites, leaking sensitive data, launching denial-of-service attacks, or spreading propaganda. Hacktivists are not motivated by financial gain or personal benefit, but rather by their beliefs and values. References:

• https://www.uscybersecurity.net/hacktivist/
• https://www.fortinet.com/resources/cyberglossary/what-is-hacktivism

SaaS (Software as a Service) is a cloud model that provides clients with applications and software that are hosted and managed by a cloud provider over the internet. It can move email services to the cloud by allowing clients to access and use email applications without installing or maintaining them on their own devices or servers

Tailgating is a physical security threat that occurs when an unauthorized person follows an authorized person into a restricted area without proper identification or authorization. It can cause unauthorized individuals to roam the hallways after gaining access through badge readers installed for building access.

An evil twin is a type of wireless network attack that involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. It can trick users into connecting to the rogue access point instead of the real one, and then intercept or modify their traffic, steal their credentials, launch phishing pages, etc. In this packet capture, the analyst can see that there are two access points with the same SSID (CoffeeShop) but different MAC addresses (00:0c:41:82:9c:4f and 00:0c:41:82:9c:4e). This indicates that one of them is an evil twin that is trying to impersonate the other one. 

An evil-Twin attack is a type of wireless network attack that involves setting up a rogue access point that mimics a legitimate one. It can trick users into connecting to the rogue access point instead of the real one, and then intercept or modify their traffic, steal their credentials, launch phishing pages, etc. It is the most likely cause of the issue that users are experiencing slow speeds, unable to connect to network drives, and required to enter their credentials on web pages when working in the section of the building that is closest to the parking lot, where an external access point could be placed nearby.

Data owner is the role that is responsible for defining the protection type and classification type for a given set of files. Data owner is a person in the organization who is accountable for a certain set of data and determines how it should be protected and classified. General counsel is the role that provides legal advice and guidance to the organization. Risk manager is the role that identifies, analyzes, and mitigates risks to the organization. Chief Information Officer is the role that oversees the information technology strategy and operations of the organization

https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/data-roles-and-responsibilities/

Disabling access is an automation use case that can enhance the security posture of an organization by rapidly updating permissions when employees leave a company or change job roles internally. It can prevent unauthorized access and data leakage by revoking or modifying the access rights of employees based on their current status and role.

SSH key is a pair of cryptographic keys that can be used for authentication and encryption when connecting to a remote Linux server via SSH protocol. SSH key authentication does not require a password and is more secure than password-based authentication. SSH key authentication also does not require additional software installation on the client or the server, as SSH is a built-in feature of most Linux distributions. A business partner can generate an SSH key pair on their own computer and send the public key to the company, who can then add it to the authorized_keys file on the Linux server. This way, the business partner can access the Linux server without entering a password or installing any software

Lighting and fencing are physical security countermeasures that can deter or stop intruders from accessing a facility or an asset. Lighting can increase visibility and reduce hiding spots for intruders, while fencing can create a physical barrier and limit access points for intruders.

Salting and hashing are techniques that can improve the security of passwords stored in a database by making them harder to crack or reverse-engineer by hackers who might access the database12.

Salting is the process of adding a unique, random string of characters known only to the site to each password before it is hashed2. Hashing is the process of converting a password into a fixed-length string of characters, which cannot be reversed3. Salting and hashing ensure that the encryption process results in a different hash value, even when two passwords are the same1. This makes it more difficult for an attacker to use pre-computed tables or dictionaries to guess the passwords, or to exploit duplicate hashes in the database4.

Port 53 is the default port for DNS traffic. If the firewall is blocking port 53, then users will not be able to resolve domain names and will receive errors stating that the website could not be located.

The other options would not correct the issue. Setting an explicit deny to all traffic using port 80 instead of 443 would block all HTTP traffic, not just web traffic. Moving the implicit deny from the bottom of the rule set to the top would make the deny rule more restrictive, which would not solve the issue. Configuring the first line in the rule set to allow all traffic would allow all traffic, including malicious traffic, which is not a good security practice.

Therefore, the best way to correct the issue is to ensure that port 53 has been explicitly allowed in the rule set.

Here are some additional information about DNS traffic:

• DNS traffic is used to resolve domain names to IP addresses.
• DNS traffic is typically unencrypted, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping.
• There are a number of ways to secure DNS traffic, such as using DNS over HTTPS (DoH) or DNS over TLS (DoT).

Federation is an access management concept that allows users to authenticate once and access multiple applications or services that trust the same identity provider. Open authentication is a standard protocol that enables federation by allowing users to use their existing credentials from one service to access another service. The company is most likely using federation and open authentication to safeguard intranet accounts and grant access to multiple sites based on a user’s intranet account. For example, the company could use an identity provider such as Azure AD or Keycloak to manage the user identities and credentials for the intranet account, and then use open authentication to allow the users to access other company-owned websites without having to log in again. References:

• https://www.keycloak.org/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/hybrid/connect/whatis-fed

Privilege escalation describes the exploitation of an interactive process to gain access to restricted areas. It is a type of attack that allows a normal user to obtain higher privileges or access rights on a system or network, such as administrative or root access. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a vulnerability, design flaw, or misconfiguration in the system or application. Privilege escalation can allow an attacker to perform unauthorized actions, such as accessing sensitive data, installing malware, or compromising other systems. References:

• https://www.professormesser.com/security-plus/sy0-601/sy0-601-video/privilege-escalation-3/
• https://www.linkedin.com/learning/comptia-security-plus-sy0-601-cert-prep-2-secure-code-design-and-implementation/privilege-escalation

MFA (Multi-Factor Authentication) is a method of verifying a user’s identity by requiring two or more factors or attributes that belong to different categories. The categories are something you know (such as a password or a PIN), something you have (such as a token or a smart card), something you are (such as a fingerprint or an iris scan), something you do (such as a gesture or a voice command), and somewhere you are (such as a location or an IP address). In this case, the user enters a password (something you know) and then receives an authentication code (something you have) to log in to a workstation.

Smishing is a type of social engineering technique that involves sending fraudulent or malicious text messages (SMS) to a user’s mobile phone. It can trick the user into providing personal or financial information, clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity.

A false positive is a type of alert that indicates a security incident when there is none. It can be caused by misconfigured or overly sensitive security tools or systems that generate false or irrelevant alerts. In this case, the alert from the company’s SIEM that Mimikatz attempted to run on the remote systems was a false positive because it was triggered by a legitimate vulnerability scanning tool that uses Mimikatz as part of its functionality.

CVSS (Common Vulnerability Scoring System) is a framework and a metric that provides a standardized and consistent way of assessing and communicating the severity levels of vulnerabilities. It assigns a numerical score and a vector string to each vulnerability based on various factors, such as exploitability, impact, scope, etc. It can help communicate to the leadership team the severity levels of the organization’s vulnerabilities by providing a quantitative and qualitative measure of the risks and the potential impacts. 

A turnstile is a physical security control that regulates the entry and exit of people into a facility or an area. It can prevent unauthorized access, tailgating, etc., by requiring valid credentials or tokens to pass through

A compensating control is a type of security control that is implemented in lieu of a recommended security measure that is deemed too difficult or impractical to implement at the present time. A compensating control must provide equivalent or comparable protection for the system or network and meet the intent and rigor of the original security requirement. An example of a compensating control is using a host-based firewall on a legacy Linux system to allow connections from only specific internal IP addresses, as it can provide a similar level of defense as a network firewall that may not be compatible with the system. References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/whatis/definition/compensating-control
• https://reciprocity.com/resources/whats-the-difference-between-compensating-controls-and-mitigating-controls/

SPIM (Spam over Internet Messaging) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves sending unsolicited or fraudulent messages over an internet messaging service, such as Skype or WhatsApp. It can trick users into clicking on malicious links, downloading malware, providing personal or financial information, etc., by impersonating a legitimate entity or creating a sense of urgency or curiosity. Vishing (Voice Phishing) is a type of VoIP-associated vulnerability that involves making unsolicited or fraudulent phone calls over an internet telephony service, such as Google Voice or Vonage. It can trick users into disclosing personal or financial information, following malicious instructions, transferring money, etc., by using voice spoofing, caller ID spoofing, or interactive voice response systems. 

A legal hold is a process that requires an organization to preserve electronically stored information and paper documents that are relevant to a pending or anticipated litigation or investigation. It suspends the normal retention and destruction policies and procedures for such information and documents until the legal hold is lifted or released.