220-1202 CompTIA A+ Core 2 (2026 Exam Update) Questions and Answers

When a technician exhausts all troubleshooting steps within their knowledge and the issue remains unresolved, the best practice is to escalate the issue to a higher-level technician or team. Additionally, the technician should clearly communicate the next steps to the customer to maintain transparency and reduce frustration. This ensures continuity of support and upholds customer satisfaction.

B. Dismissing the customer is unprofessional and violates proper customer service protocols.

C. Interrupting the customer and providing excuses escalates the tension and is inappropriate.

D. Continuing to ask questions without new troubleshooting steps wastes time and increases frustration.

BitLocker is Microsoft’s full disk encryption technology built into Windows Pro and Enterprise editions. It encrypts the entire drive, protecting data if the device is lost or stolen. BitLocker can use TPM (Trusted Platform Module) and can be configured with PINs or USB keys for added security.

A. Active Directory is for centralized user and policy management in domains.

B. NTFS is the file system format and doesn ' t provide encryption by itself.

C. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts individual files or folders, not the entire drive.

The correct answer is B. exFAT, because exFAT (Extended File Allocation Table) is designed to provide cross-platform compatibility between Windows and macOS while supporting large files and large storage devices. When an external hard drive must be readable and writable by both operating systems without additional drivers or configuration, exFAT is the preferred choice.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, exFAT was developed to overcome the limitations of FAT32, such as file size and volume size restrictions, while maintaining broad operating system support. Both Windows and macOS include native support for exFAT, making it ideal for removable storage devices.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that NTFS is fully supported on Windows but only has limited or read-only support on macOS by default. APFS is Apple’s proprietary filesystem and is not natively supported by Windows. XFS is a Linux filesystem and is incompatible with both Windows and macOS without third-party tools.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that for external drives shared across platforms, exFAT offers the best balance of compatibility, performance, and simplicity.

Therefore, exFAT is the best filesystem choice, making B the correct answer.

The correct answer is D. Roaming profiles, because roaming profiles allow users to log in to any domain-joined workstation and automatically access their personal settings, documents, and configuration without storing data locally on each machine. This is ideal for environments with hot-desking or shared workstations.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, roaming profiles store user data centrally on a server rather than on individual computers. When a user logs in, their profile is loaded; when they log out, changes are saved back to the server. This minimizes data duplication and reduces the risk of data being left behind on shared systems.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that roaming profiles improve security by preventing sensitive user data from being permanently stored on multiple endpoints. This also simplifies backup and recovery, since user data resides in a centralized location.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that portable drives introduce data loss risks, cloud email only addresses messaging data, and certificate storage does not manage user profiles or documents.

Because the goal is to maintain data security while allowing mobility and minimizing data transfer, roaming profiles are the most appropriate solution, making D the correct answer.

RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)provides centralized Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting (AAA) for users who connect and use a network service.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“RADIUS is a widely used protocol for implementing AAA in network environments, allowing centralized control over user access and accounting.”

An MSDS (Material Safety Data Sheet), now commonly referred to as SDS (Safety Data Sheet), is a document that provides detailed information on the properties of a particular substance. It includes safety guidelines and emergency procedures related to handling, exposure, fire hazards, and first aid—not installation or configuration instructions.

For a battery backup (UPS device), the MSDS would include emergency procedures such as what to do in case of a chemical spill, exposure to battery acid, or fire hazard due to overheating or chemical leakage. This ensures the safety of personnel and complies with hazardous materials handling regulations.

The correct answer is C. SSH (Secure Shell), because SSH is the standard method for secure, command-line-based remote management of network devices, including switches, routers, and firewalls. Network switches typically do not provide graphical interfaces, and administrators interact with them using a command-line interface (CLI).

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, SSH is widely used to securely access and manage network infrastructure devices. It encrypts all communication between the technician’s system and the remote device, protecting credentials and command output from interception.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide explains that SSH allows administrators to execute commands remotely and capture text-based output, which can easily be copied and shared for documentation or escalation. This makes it ideal for fulfilling requests that involve running commands and returning results.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that RDP and VNC are graphical desktop-sharing tools typically used for managing workstations or servers, not network switches. WinRM is used for Windows system management, not network hardware.

Because the task involves secure CLI access to a network switch, SSH is the correct and expected tool, making C the correct answer.

The best option is to provide temporary elevation rather than permanently increasing a user’s privileges. Quentin Docter explains the principle of least privilege: users should have “the fewest number of privileges that they need to do their job,” because administrative access increases the chance of misconfiguration and security compromise. He also describes how User Account Control (UAC) supports least privilege by logging an administrator in with minimal permissions and then allowing the user to “run as a standard user with the ability to escalate privileges.” That is the practical idea behind just-in-time access—grant admin rights only at the moment they are needed.

The All-in-One guide reinforces this by explaining that if you are logged in with a less-privileged account, you can elevate for installs by entering admin credentials or choosing Run as administrator. Adding the user to the local Administrators group (D) violates least privilege. Assigning Power User (B) is not reliable in modern Windows and still broad. Manual installation (C) doesn’t solve the permission requirement.

The correct answer is A. hostname . I corrected the wording from “OS name” to “host name” because, based on the answer choices, this question is testing the command that displays the computer’s host name. Quentin Docter’s Complete Study Guide explains that the hostname command returns the name of the host computer on which it is executed. This makes it appropriate for scripting because its output can be redirected to a file, such as hostname > computername.txt. The CompTIA A+ Core 2 objectives also list hostname , netstat , whoami , and winver as Windows command-line tools candidates should recognize. netstat displays active TCP/IP connections and network statistics, not the computer name. whoami displays the currently logged-in user account. winver displays Windows version information, but it opens a graphical dialog and is not the best option for writing simple script output to a file.

Virtualizationallows the legacy OS to be run in a virtual machine (VM) on top of the newer OS. This method provides backward compatibility without requiring outdated operating systems on physical hardware.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Using virtualization is a preferred method when legacy applications are needed after migrating to newer operating systems. It allows legacy environments to exist securely within a modern OS framework.”

A bollard is a sturdy physical barrier—often a steel or concrete post—designed to prevent vehicles or unauthorized individuals from ramming into or entering secure areas of a building. It provides physical security and is commonly used outside entrances to prevent forced entry.

A. PIV (Personal Identity Verification) cards are used for identity access control, not physical blocking.

B. Motion lighting may deter activity but doesn’t physically prevent entry.

C. Surveillance records activity but cannot stop a forced entry.

3G networks generally do not provide the bandwidth required for seamless HD video streaming. With only two signal bars and a 3G connection, the mobile device likely cannot maintain the necessary data throughput, resulting in timeouts or buffering failures. This is a classic symptom of insufficient network speed or signal strength.

A. Lack of Wi-Fi may contribute, but the root cause is the low mobile bandwidth, not the Wi-Fi state.

B. A website subscription lapse would return an account error, not a timeout.

D. Full device storage can affect downloads but not streaming from the internet.

The completed configuration:

1. Wireless AP (LAN side)

1. LAN IP: 192.168.10.1

2. Encryption: WPA2 PSK

2. Router (port-forward rule)

1. Allow TCP Any 3389

This forwards inbound RDP traffic (TCP/3389) from the Internet to the Windows PC, enabling Remote Desktop access.

3. Firewall (screened subnet side)

1. LAN IP: 10.100.0.1

4. Device placement

1. PC: place behind the router (where the port-forward rule points).

2. Game console: place on the Wireless AP (so it can use chat and extra services over WPA2 PSK).

3. Firewall: place in front of the screened subnet (with its 10.100.0.1 IP facing that subnet).

The Windows PC is placed in the screened subnet (behind the firewall) for enhanced security. Remote access to this PC requires port forwarding of TCP port 3389 (RDP), which is correctly configured through the router.

The Game Console is placed on the Wireless AP LAN, using WPA2 PSK for a secure wireless connection. Game consoles typically use peer-to-peer chat and online services that require open access without firewall restrictions, which is why the console is not placed behind the firewall.

CompTIA A+ 220-1102 Reference Points:

Objective 3.4: Given a scenario, implement best practices associated with data and device security.

Objective 2.4: Given a scenario, use appropriate tools to support and configure network settings.

Study Guide Reference: CompTIA A+ Core 2 guides recommend using screened subnets (a type of DMZ) for systems needing controlled external access, such as remote desktops, while placing gaming and media devices on less restricted networks for full functionality.

Ticket #8675310

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig /renew

For the Low priority ticket #8675310 (“A small yellow triangle appeared in the taskbar. I am no longer able to access network resources.”), the Windows yellow triangle on the network icon is the classic indicator of limited connectivity (often caused by a bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, missing default gateway, or DNS info not being assigned).

Correct PBQ Selections (Ticket #8675310)

Issue

Limited network connectivity

Why (CompTIA logic):

That yellow warning triangle means the NIC is connected at Layer 2 (link is up), but the system likely doesn’t have valid Layer 3 config (IP/gateway/DNS), so it can’t reach network resources.

Resolution

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

When a Windows PC can’t access network resources and shows “limited connectivity,” the fastest, lowest-risk fix is to renew DHCP so the PC can pull:

a valid IP address

default gateway

DNS servers

This directly resolves the most common root cause behind that icon.

Verify / Resolve

ipconfig /renew

Why this is the correct verification/remediation command:

ipconfig /renew is the direct command to request a fresh DHCP lease. After renewal, the user should regain access to network resources if DHCP was the issue.

What this fixes (what you’d expect to see)

Before the fix, the attachment (Output.txt) in these PBQs typically shows symptoms like:

169.254.x.x (APIPA) → DHCP failed

Missing/blank Default Gateway

DNS not present or incorrect

After ipconfig /renew, you should see a normal private IP (like 192.168.x.x / 10.x.x.x / 172.16-31.x.x) and a valid gateway/DNS.

1st CLI Resolution

copy " C:\Program Files\Testing\msvcp100.dll " " User-PC02\C$\Windows\System32 " /v /y

2nd CLI Resolution

regsvr32 msvcp100.dll

Why These Are the Correct Choices (Exam Logic)

Why the COPY command is first

The error explicitly states MSVCP100.dll is missing

Other users can run the app → the DLL exists on another system

The fastest, least disruptive fix (preferred by CompTIA) is to:

Copy the known-good DLL into C:\Windows\System32

The /v switch verifies the copy, and /y suppresses prompts — both are enterprise-safe defaults

This restores the missing runtime dependency immediately.

Why REGSVR32 is second

After copying a DLL, Windows may not recognize or properly load it

regsvr32 registers the DLL with the operating system

This ensures:

The Testing application can properly call the runtime library

The fix persists after reboot

Inbox mail 1 -Account Locked- Phishing - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 2 -Share your feedback - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 3 –Employee orientation - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

Inbox mail 4 –Security Update – Spam - Report email to Information Security

Inbox mail 5 –Interview - Legitimate - Perform no additional actions

—

Issue: Limited network connectivity

Resolution: Refresh DHCP

Verify/Resolve: ipconfig

Issue (drop-down)

Limited network connectivity

Why this matches:

“Internet Down” most commonly indicates the workstation has lost valid Layer 3 connectivity (bad/expired DHCP lease, APIPA address, wrong gateway, etc.). In CompTIA A+ terms, this aligns best with limited connectivity symptoms (can’t reach internet resources).

Resolution (drop-down)

Refresh DHCP

Why this is the most efficient fix:

If the client has:

an expired lease

an APIPA address (169.254.x.x) because DHCP failed

an incorrect IP/gateway from a bad lease

…then the fastest first remediation is to renew DHCP to obtain a correct IP address, default gateway, and DNS servers. This is a standard CompTIA A+ troubleshooting action (quick, low-risk, high-success).

Verify/Resolve (drop-down)

ipconfig

Why this is the correct verification tool:

ipconfig is the primary Windows CLI tool to:

check current IP settings (ipconfig /all)

release/renew DHCP (ipconfig /release and ipconfig /renew)

confirm you received a valid IP + gateway + DNS, which is required for internet access.

What you would do (mapped to those choices)

Using ipconfig to complete “Refresh DHCP” and confirm the fix:

Check current addressing

ipconfig /all

Look for:

Valid IPv4 (not 169.254.x.x)

Valid Default Gateway

DNS servers present

Refresh the DHCP lease

ipconfig /release

ipconfig /renew

Verify outcome

Run ipconfig again to confirm:

You now have a correct IP for the network

Default gateway is populated

If the gateway/DNS populate correctly, internet access typically returns.

First Chat Response:When the user mentions setting up a new router, the best initial response to maintain a helpful and professional tone is:

> Select reply: " I am happy to assist you today. "

Second Chat Response:When the user states that they need to set up basic security settings:

> Select reply: " Is this the first router in your office? "

Third Chat Response:After learning it ' s a replacement router and the user is logged into the router ' s web page:

> Select reply: " The first thing you need to do is change the default password. "

Fourth Chat Response:For the response about password settings:

> Select reply: " Create a new password with an uppercase, a lowercase, and a special character. "

Fifth Chat Response:When the router prompts to reboot:

> Select reply: " Yes, reboot please. "

Study Guide Reference: The CompTIA A+ Core 2 guide highlights the importance of changing default credentials and using strong password policies, particularly in SOHO environments where routers are often targeted.

Host 2, Host 3, Host 4 , Host 5 ,Host 6, Host 7, Host 8 , Media Server - Stop All unwanted and malicious service (Persistance.j1zpxn Installer Service) from all the listed host and Media servers

Refer screenshot below on the required service started/stopped on host2, same service to be started and stopped across all host servers.

A screenshot of a computer AI-

A screenshot of a computer AI-

The correct answer is C. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol), because RDP is the default remote access technology for Windows servers. It allows technicians to remotely connect to the graphical desktop environment of a Windows server to verify services, logs, and system status.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, RDP is built into Windows operating systems and is commonly used by administrators to manage Windows servers and workstations. It provides full access to the desktop, making it ideal for checking whether services such as IIS (Internet Information Services) are running properly.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that while SSH is commonly used for Linux and network devices, Windows servers typically rely on RDP for administrative access. VNC is a third-party remote desktop solution and is not enabled by default on Windows systems.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual reinforces that SPICE is primarily used in virtualized environments and is not a standard Windows remote access tool.

Because the technician needs to verify a Windows web server’s operational status using a built-in method, RDP is the most appropriate and likely technology, making C the correct answer.

Online collaboration tools (for example, Microsoft 365/OneDrive, Google Workspace/Drive) typically store documents in cloud storage and rely on a sync client to make those files appear locally on each device. If the user can’t see the document on the laptop, the most direct remediation is to synchronize the remote (cloud) folder so the document downloads to the laptop and stays consistent across devices. The All-in-One guide explains that productivity platforms are “designed to be synchronized across multiple devices,” allowing work to be paused on one device and resumed on another, and that many sync problems come down to configuration or a partial sync that leaves data not fully downloaded. It also notes that enabling/adjusting synchronization settings is often the fix. Quentin Docter similarly describes synced files becoming accessible through File Explorer once server/client synchronization is configured and highlights “Documents” as a common sync data type. Mike Meyers reinforces that file services like OneDrive/Google Drive use an installed app on each device to specify what gets synchronized.

BitLocker To Go is a Microsoft encryption feature specifically designed for removable drives such as USB flash drives and external hard drives. It allows users to protect the data on these devices by requiring a password to decrypt the contents, thereby preventing unauthorized access in the event the device is lost or stolen.

A is correct because BitLocker To Go is directly tied to password-protecting removable media.

B and C are unrelated to BitLocker To Go; Secure Boot and VPN encryption are entirely different security layers.

D applies to BitLocker (not BitLocker To Go) and full disk encryption on internal drives using TPM.

Credential managers or password vaults (e.g., Windows Credential Manager, KeePass, or LastPass) store passwords securely. The integrity of such tools heavily depends on the strength of the master password protecting the vault. If compromised, all saved credentials could be exposed. Therefore, setting a secure master password is crucial.

A. Login time restrictions are general user account settings, not specific to credential managers.

C. TPM is used more commonly for full disk encryption, not specifically required for password managers.

D. The lock screen protects general access but does not protect stored credentials alone.

When Task Manager repeatedly fails to open, that’s a strong red flag for system tampering—especially malware designed to block diagnostic and remediation tools. Quentin Docter explains that stealth malware attempts to avoid detection by “masking itself from applications” and can redirect commands around itself to avoid detection. That behavior fits the symptom of a core troubleshooting utility (Task Manager) not launching when an administrator needs it.

Docter also reinforces that the correct process in suspected malware cases begins with “identify and verify the malware symptoms,” followed by containment and remediation steps. If a key system tool is blocked, that itself is a “verify symptoms” indicator that the system is compromised and needs malware-handling procedures.

The other choices don’t explain the symptom well: a dev app running would not normally prevent Task Manager from launching; Windows Update set to manual wouldn’t block Task Manager; and a moved pagefile might affect performance but not typically stop Task Manager from opening at all. Therefore, malware infection is the most likely cause.

The correct answer is C because the representative should first verify what the warranty covers and then handle the customer professionally by reviewing available repair or replacement options. Liquid damage is commonly treated differently from normal product defects. The Mike Meyers/Mark Soper material explains that liquid contact indicators are often used so a carrier or manufacturer can determine whether water damage is covered or refused under warranty. The All-in-One Exam Guide also states that technicians should offer repair or replacement options as needed and allow the customer to decide among valid options. CompTIA’s Core 2 objectives include setting expectations, communicating status, offering repair/replacement options, and providing proper documentation. Therefore, automati cally replacing the laptop is not appropriate, but immediately declining or escalating to legal/manufacturer support is premature unless the warranty or store policy requires it.

The correct answer is C. XDR (Extended Detection and Response), which is designed to provide holistic security visibility across endpoints, networks, servers, cloud workloads, and email systems. Unlike traditional endpoint-only solutions, XDR correlates data from multiple security layers to detect and respond to advanced threats.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, XDR expands upon EDR by integrating telemetry from network traffic, firewalls, identity systems, and cloud platforms. This enables detection of threats that move laterally or originate outside a single host.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that XDR is specifically designed to detect attacks that bypass endpoint protections by analyzing network-level behavior, command-and-control traffic, and cross-system activity.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual contrasts XDR with other options: RADIUS is an authentication protocol, UAC is a local Windows privilege control, and antivirus focuses only on known malware signatures at the host level. None of those provide network-wide visibility and coordinated response.

Because the question explicitly mentions traffic outside the host and at the network level, XDR is the only technology designed to meet that requirement, making C the correct answer.

Once the system is cleaned, the next priority is toeducate the useron safe practices to prevent recurrence.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Post-malware remediation should include user education to prevent reinfection and identify how the malware was introduced.”

A patch released outside the normal schedule for a critical flaw is an out-of-band update, but proper operational procedure still requires controlled testing before broad production rollout. Quentin Docter explains that vendors release patches “usually every month and sometimes outside of the normal release cycle,” and that “out-of-band patches” are often responses to “a critical vulnerability.” Because an urgent patch can also cause outages or incompatibilities, you should validate it in a safe environment first. Docter’s change management best practices emphasize sandbox testing: “Sandbox testing is extremely useful when you want to test a change before placing it into production.”

The All-in-One guide defines sandbox testing as using an isolated environment to test changes “without putting the systems and data you depend on at risk,” typically via virtualization/snapshots. That aligns exactly with deploying to a small pilot group/lab first.

So the best first action is to test the patch on a limited set of systems in a lab/pilot (D), then expand deployment after validation and rollback planning.

The correct answer is A. Reinstalling the application, because the issue appears to be application-specific rather than system-wide. The problem only affects one game, the operating system is fully updated, and there are no storage constraints. These indicators strongly suggest corrupted application data or a faulty app installation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, when a single application crashes repeatedly, the first recommended troubleshooting step is to remove and reinstall the app. This clears corrupted files, resets application settings, and ensures the latest compatible version is installed.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide emphasizes that factory resets should only be used as a last resort, as they are disruptive and erase user data. Disabling background applications may help performance issues but does not typically resolve persistent crashes tied to one specific app.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual further clarifies that date and time misconfiguration usually affects authentication or certificate validation, not game stability.

Because the symptoms are isolated to a single application and basic system factors have already been ruled out, reinstalling the application is the most appropriate first troubleshooting step, making A the correct answer.

A blue screen or sudden shutdown generates diagnostic records that persist after reboot, and the primary Windows tool to review those records is Event Viewer . Quentin Docter states: “ Event Viewer should be the first place you look when you are trying to solve a problem whose solution is not evident ,” because the system and applications “will often create an entry… that can be used to… diagnose problems.” He also specifically notes for unexpected shutdowns: “ The first place to check is Event Viewer on the System tab ,” where kernel and EventLog entries help determine whether the system lost power or shut down abnormally.

Mike Meyers reinforces that Event Viewer is how you read Windows logs (Application, Security, Setup, System) and that the details pane shows information about the selected event, which is exactly what you need when the on-screen error flashes too quickly. Performance Monitor is for counters/trends, Device Manager focuses on hardware status/drivers, and System Information shows configuration—not the crash/shutdown event details. Hence, Event Viewer (C) is correct.

A management profile is used to enforce corporate policies on Apple devices. These profiles are installed via an MDM (Mobile Device Management) solution and control access, restrictions, Wi-Fi settings, app installations, and more. They’re critical for managing devices in a business environment.

A. The App Store allows software downloads but doesn’t control policies.

B. VPN configuration is used for secure remote connections, not enforcement of restrictions.

C. Apple ID is for personal account access to Apple services, not corporate device management.

The requirement is that vendor users can work only during certain times , which is enforced by setting logon-hour restrictions on the accounts. Quentin Docter explicitly describes this control under “Setting Time Restrictions,” stating: “Configure user accounts so that logins can occur only during times that the user can be expected to be working,” and explains that in Active Directory you can open the user account and click Logon Hours to configure permitted and denied hours. This directly matches option D.

Option C (account expiration) is useful for contractors, and Docter even notes account expiration is “best used on contractor accounts,” but that controls the end date of access, not daily working hours . Alerts (B) would only notify after the fact, and timeout policies (A) are about inactivity/session controls rather than restricting when logons are allowed. Mike Meyers also lists “login time restrictions” as an account management best practice, reinforcing that restricting logon times is a valid security control.

MDR (Managed Detection and Response)provides outsourced threat monitoring and response using multiple tools. The use of athird-party providerfor protection and incident handling confirms MDR.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“MDR provides 24/7 threat detection and response through outsourced experts using advanced tools across client environments.”

Cryptominersexploit system resources to mine cryptocurrency, often without user consent, leading to high CPU and GPU usage.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide:

“Cryptomining malware can cause significant performance degradation by monopolizing system resources like CPU and GPU to mine digital currency.”

When a Windows service suddenly stops and then fails to start manually, one of the first places to confirm why it cannot start is the service logon context. A very common root cause is that the account configured on the service cannot authenticate anymore—often because the password changed or the account is locked. Quentin Docter notes that if the service fails due to misconfiguration, “the most likely cause is the user account the service is configured to start with,” and you should ensure “the user account is not locked out.” This aligns with standard service troubleshooting: check Event Viewer (Service Control Manager events) for login failures, then validate the service’s Log On tab configuration and the account state.

The All-in-One guide also reinforces validating services via the Services console and correcting service settings when services fail to start.

Therefore, the best cause given the options is that the service account is locked out (C).

Smishing (SMS phishing) is a type of social engineering attack where attackers send fraudulent text messages to trick users into revealing sensitive information or downloading malware. These messages often impersonate banks, delivery services, or official institutions to lure the victim into clicking malicious links.

A. Impersonation is an in-person or voice-based tactic.

B. Vishing refers to voice phishing over phone calls.

C. Spear phishing is a targeted email-based phishing method.

UPS batteries are heavy and often located at the bottom of racks to maintain balance. Safe removal requires the use of correct lifting techniques to avoid injury. OSHA and workplace safety standards emphasize ergonomic handling when dealing with heavy equipment.

A. Fire suppression readiness is important for fire safety but not specifically relevant to battery removal.

C. Antistatic bags are for electronic components, not heavy battery modules.

D. A face mask is not generally necessary unless there is a chemical leak, which is not indicated here.

The first step in the IT change management process is to identify and propose the change. In this case, the technician notices a need (end-of-life network switches), so the appropriate action is to formally propose a change. This proposal would be documented and submitted for approval before any planning or implementation occurs.

According to the CompTIA A+ 220-1102 objectives under Operational Procedures (Domain 4.0), the change management process follows these typical steps:

Submit a change request (Propose the change)

Review and approval (Approve the change)

Planning and scheduling (Schedule the change)

Implementation

Documentation and review

Therefore, proposing the change is the correct first step in accordance with standard ITIL-based change management practices.

Image deployment is the fastest and most efficient method for installing operating systems on multiple machines. It involves creating a pre-configured image of an OS and deploying it across systems using tools like Windows Deployment Services (WDS) or third-party imaging solutions. This method saves time and ensures consistency across all devices.

A. Physical media is slow and not scalable.

B. Mountable ISOs are useful but still require manual installation.

C. Manual installation is time-consuming and not suitable for large-scale deployment.

The recurring print issue suggests theprint spooler service is not set to start automatically, causing it to stop between sessions. Ensuring it is set tostart automaticallyand manuallystarting the servicewill resolve the issue.

FromMark Soper – Mike Meyers ' Lab Manual:

“The print spooler is essential for print services. If it isn’t configured to start automatically, users may experience recurring failures.”

“Manually starting the service or setting it to ' Automatic ' in the Services panel resolves persistent print availability problems.”

The best first step is to leverage existing documentation: check whether the issue was previously recorded and resolved, and reuse that known fix (or confirm conditions). Mike Meyers explains ticketing systems capture key information needed to resolve issues, including “ problem description ,” “ progress notes ,” and “ problem resolution ,” and stresses that “ Clear, concise writing is critical ” because you “won’t be the only tech responding to every ticket.” That is exactly why you review prior tickets first—so you can quickly see what was done previously and apply it consistently.

The All-in-One guide reinforces the same ticketing-system concept and lists the same essential elements (description, notes, resolution) used to streamline troubleshooting and escalation. Consulting the prior technician (A) may be impossible (the employee is gone) and slower than checking documented history. Opening a new case (D) is important, but the question asks what to do first —review the prior occurrence details, then document your current case using what you find.

BSOD after driver installation suggests a compatibility issue.Safe Mode allows rollback of driversthat may be causing the crash.

FromTravis Everett – CompTIA A+ All-in-One Exam Guide:

“If a BSOD occurs after a driver update, boot into Safe Mode and roll back to the previous driver version to restore system stability.”

The correct answer is D. Chain of custody process, because chain of custody ensures that evidence collected during an incident response is tracked, preserved, and legally defensible. It documents who collected the evidence, when it was collected, how it was stored, and who accessed it throughout the investigation.

According to the Quentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Complete Study Guide, chain of custody is essential when evidence may be used in disciplinary actions, audits, or legal proceedings. Any gap in documentation can render evidence inadmissible.

The Travis Everett & Andrew Hutz – All-in-One Exam Guide explains that chain of custody provides accountability and prevents claims of evidence tampering. Each transfer of evidence must be logged and verified.

The Mike Meyers / Mark Soper Lab Manual clarifies that while order of volatility determines the sequence of data collection, it does not track ownership or handling. Data integrity best practices ensure evidence is not altered, but they do not provide a record of custody.

Because the question focuses on handling and accountability, the required process is chain of custody, making D the correct answer.

In a domain environment, printers are typically deployed via a print server. Users can browse available printers on the server and install them directly.

All-in-One Exam Guidementions:

“In a corporate domain, printers are managed via a centralized print server. Users can select the desired printer from the server’s shared list.”

This scenario involves a mismatch in device time settings, which can affect synchronization and authentication across the network. Using a Network Time Protocol (NTP) server ensures all networked devices maintain accurate and synchronized clocks.

From Travis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“NTP servers keep all devices on a network in sync. This prevents time drift, which can cause authentication issues with domain logins, certificates, and applications.” .

Memory usage is critically high, suggesting many applications or background processes. Closing unnecessary programs will immediately free up RAM.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“High memory usage with moderate CPU load usually means too many applications are open. Close unnecessary apps or use Task Manager to end processes.”

This scenario is phishing delivered through a QR code (scan an image to reach a portal), which is best described as quishing . Quentin Docter defines phishing as a social engineering method where the attacker makes a message look legitimate and convinces the user to click a link to “correct” an account problem; after the click, the victim is taken to a site controlled by the attacker and asked for credentials. A QR code in a message is simply an alternate way to deliver that same malicious “link” without showing the URL clearly.

The Mike Meyers Lab Manual distinguishes related social engineering types: vishing is done by phone calls, and whaling targets high-level executives. Smishing is phishing delivered via SMS text messages, but the prompt specifically centers on scanning an image (QR-style workflow), not a text-message attack vector.

Docter also notes QR codes are commonly used in authentication workflows (for example, adding accounts to authenticator apps), which is why attackers mimic this behavior to make the scam seem normal. Therefore, QR-based phishing is best labeled quishing .

These symptoms strongly suggest malware activity—likely from the newly installed app. The first action should be torun a malware scanto detect and isolate malicious software.

FromQuentin Docter – CompTIA A+ Study Guide:

“Signs of malware infection include rapid battery drain and overheating. The first step should be a malware scan using trusted mobile antivirus apps.”

Apps like GPS or roaming services often drain battery during travel.Checking app utilizationhelps identify battery drain sources.

FromQUENTIN DOCTER - COMPTIA A+ COMPLETE study GUIDE:

“Monitoring app activity can reveal high-power usage apps running in the background, especially when mobile data or GPS is active.”

Public Wi-Fi networks often usecaptive portals, which require accepting terms or authenticating via the pop-up page before full access is granted. Closing it prematurely stops full connection.

FromTravis Everett – All-in-One Exam Guide:

“Captive portals intercept the first HTTP request and present a login or acknowledgment screen. Without completing it, access is denied.”

A low-level format (also referred to as a zero-fill or full format) writes over every sector on a storage device, effectively destroying the existing data and making recovery nearly impossible. Unlike degaussing, which renders the drive unusable, a low-level format maintains the integrity of the device, allowing it to be repurposed or reused.

A. Deleting partitions does not fully erase data; it only removes references in the partition table.

B. EFS (Encrypting File System) encrypts files but does not securely wipe them.

D. Degaussing destroys the magnetic structure of a drive, making it inoperable and not reusable.