CAS-004 CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Exam Questions and Answers

Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process’ memory location. Execute never (also known as XN or NX) is a feature that marks certain memory regions as non-executable, meaning that they cannot be used to run code. This prevents malware from exploiting buffer overflows or other memory corruption vulnerabilities to inject malicious code into another process’ memory space.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 295]

A static code analyzer is a tool that analyzes computer software without actually running the software. A static code analyzer can help developers find and fix vulnerabilities, bugs, and security risks in their new applications while the source code is in its ‘static’ state. A static code analyzer can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities by checking the code against a set of coding rules, standards, and best practices. A static code analyzer can also help improve the code quality, performance, and maintainability.

A. An open-source automation server is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. An open-source automation server is a tool that automates various tasks related to software development and delivery, such as building, testing, deploying, and monitoring. An open-source automation server can help speed up the CI/CD pipeline, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

C. Trusted open-source libraries are not tools that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. Trusted open-source libraries are collections of reusable code that developers can use to implement common or complex functionalities in their applications. Trusted open-source libraries can help save time and effort for developers, but they do not guarantee that the code is free of defects or vulnerabilities.

D. A single code repository for all developers is not a tool that can help ensure that the code has close to zero defects and zero vulnerabilities. A single code repository for all developers is a centralized storage location where developers can access and manage their source code files. A single code repository for all developers can help facilitate collaboration and version control, but it does not analyze or improve the code itself.

https://www.comparitech.co m/net-admin/best-static-code-analysis-tools/

https://www.perforce.com/blog/sca/what-static-analysis

The analyst should implement every solution one at a time in a virtual lab, running an attack simulation each time while collecting metrics. Roll back each solution and then implement the next. Choose the best solution based on the best metrics. This approach would allow the analyst to test each solution individually and measure its effectiveness against the attack, without affecting the other solutions or the production environment. This would also minimize the downtime required to implement the best solution, as only one change would be needed. The other options would either involve implementing multiple solutions at once, which could cause conflicts or errors, or collecting metrics before running the attack simulation, which would not reflect the actual impact of the solutions.

Order of volatility is a procedure that a computer forensics examiner must follow during evidence collection. It refers to the order in which digital evidence is collected, starting with the most volatile and moving to the least volatile. Volatile data is data that is not permanent and is easily lost, such as data in memory when you turn off a computer. The security analyst should have followed the order of volatility to preserve the most fragile evidence first, such as the malicious script running as a background process, before turning off the infected machine. Verified References:

• https://www.computer-forensics-recruiter.com/order-of-volatility/
• https://www.sans.org/blog/best-practices-in-digital-evidence-collection/
• https://blogs.getcertifiedgetahead.com/order-of-volatility/

Fuzz testing, or fuzzing, is a software testing technique that involves providing invalid, unexpected, or random data as input to a computer program. The program is then monitored for exceptions such as crashes, or failing built-in code assertions or for potential memory leaks. This type of testing can help identify security vulnerabilities that could be exploited by malicious inputs.

OPC (Open Platform Communications) and Modbus are two common protocols used for industrial control systems (ICS). OPC is a standard that allows different devices and applications to exchange data in a vendor-neutral way. Modbus is a serial communication protocol that enables devices to send and receive commands and data over a network. Modbus has two variants: Modbus TCP/IP, which uses TCP port 502 for communication, and Modbus RTU/ASCII, which uses serial ports.

To allow an OPC server to communicate with a Modbus server that is controlling electrical relays, the security engineer should recommend restricting inbound traffic so that only the OPC server is permitted to reach the Modbus server on port 502. This configuration would:

• Permit the OPC server to send commands and data to the Modbus server using Modbus TCP/IP protocol over port 502.
• Limit operational disruptions, by preventing unauthorized or malicious access to the Modbus server from other sources.
• Due to the limitations within the Modbus protocol, such as lack of encryption and authentication, restricting inbound traffic is a necessary security measure to protect the integrity and availability of the ICS.

The command depicted is indicative of a reverse shell, which is a type of shell where the target system initiates an outgoing connection to a remote host, and then standard input and output of the command line interface on the target system is redirected through this connection to the remote host. This is typically used by an attacker after exploitation to open a remote command line interface to control the compromised machine.

WPA3-Personal is a simple, secure solution for a small business with a single access point. It uses a new security protocol called Simultaneous Authentication of Equals (SAE), which replaces the Pre-Shared Key (PSK) exchange with a more secure way to do initial key exchange. SAE also provides forward secrecy, which means that even if the password is compromised, the attacker cannot decrypt past or future data. WPA3-Personal also uses AES-128 in CCM mode as the minimum encryption algorithm, which is resistant to offline password attacks. WPA3-Personal requires low administrative overhead and supports a single SSID with no guest access. Verified References:

• https://www.diffen.com/difference/WPA2_vs_WPA3
• https://www.thewindowsclub.com/wpa3-personal-enterprise-wi-fi-encryption
• https://www.teldat.com/blog/wpa3-wi-fi-network-security-wpa3-personal-wpa3-enterprise/

SaaS, or software as a service, is the solution that can best fulfill the requirements of having the lowest RTO possible, the least shared responsibility possible, and patching as a responsibility of the CSP. SaaS is a cloud service model that provides users with access to software applications hosted and managed by the CSP over the internet. SaaS has the lowest RTO (recovery time objective), which is the maximum acceptable time for restoring a system or service after a disruption, because it does not require any installation, configuration, or maintenance by the users. SaaS also has the least shared responsibility possible because most of the security aspects are handled by the CSP, such as patching, updating, backup, encryption, authentication, etc.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, pages 403-404]

Cipher feedback (CFB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that allows them to encrypt streaming data. CFB uses an initialization vector (IV) and a block cipher to generate a keystream that is XORed with the plaintext to produce the ciphertext. CFB has low latency because it can encrypt each byte or bit of plaintext as soon as it arrives, without waiting for a full block. CFB is suitable for streaming data because it does not require padding or block synchronization.

B. Cipher block chaining message authentication code (CBC-MAC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides both encryption and authentication. CBC-MAC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt the plaintext and generate a MAC value that is appended to the ciphertext. CBC-MAC has high latency because it requires the entire message to be processed before generating the MAC value. CBC-MAC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

C. Cipher block chaining (CBC) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. CBC uses an IV and a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext by XORing it with the previous ciphertext block. CBC has high latency because it requires a full block of plaintext before encryption. CBC is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization.

D. Electronic codebook (ECB) is a mode of operation for block ciphers that provides encryption only. ECB uses a block cipher to encrypt each block of plaintext independently. ECB has low latency because it can encrypt each block of plaintext as soon as it arrives. However, ECB is not suitable for streaming data because it requires padding and block synchronization. Moreover, ECB is insecure because it does not use an IV and produces identical ciphertext blocks for identical plaintext blocks.

Perfect Forward Secrecy (PFS) is a feature of certain key agreement protocols that ensures a session key derived from a set of long-term keys cannot be compromised if one of the long-term keys is compromised in the future. In the context of a VPN, PFS ensures that each session has a unique encryption key, and even if a key is compromised, it will not compromise past or future VPN sessions.

A Privacy Impact Assessment (PIA) is a process used to evaluate and manage privacy risks associated with the collection, use, and storage of personally identifiable information (PII). One of the key functions of a PIA is to document residual risks, which are the privacy risks that remain after controls have been applied. By identifying and documenting these risks, organizations can make informed decisions about whether additional measures are needed or whether certain risks are acceptable.

The SAN (Subject Alternative Name) field in a certificate can include multiple types of entries, including DNS names and email addresses. These are explicit options within the SAN extension, allowing a single certificate to be valid for multiple domain names and email addresses. This is often used in multi-domain SSL certificates, where a single certificate needs to be valid for multiple subdomains or different domain names.

A content delivery network (CDN) is a distributed system of servers that delivers web content to users based on their geographic location, the origin of the content, and the performance of the network. A CDN can help improve the availability and performance of web applications by caching content closer to the users, reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also help mitigate distributed denial-of-service (DDoS) attacks by absorbing or filtering malicious traffic before it reaches the origin servers, reducing the impact on the application availability. Supporting heterogeneous architecture means using different types of hardware, software, or platforms in an IT environment. This can help improve resilience by reducing single points of failure and increasing compatibility, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. Ensuring cloud autoscaling is in place means using cloud services that automatically adjust the amount of resources allocated to an application based on the demand or load. This can help improve scalability and performance by providing more resources when needed, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. Scaling horizontally means adding more servers or nodes to an IT environment to increase its capacity or throughput. This can help improve scalability and performance by distributing the load across multiple servers, but it does not directly prevent DDoS attacks. References: [CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Certification Exam Objectives], Domain 2: Enterprise Security Architecture, Objective 2.4: Select controls based on systems security evaluation models

Agent-based scanning is best suited for environments with multiple subnets, VLANs, and branch offices, as described. It allows for fast scanning with fewer false positives, and since the agents are installed on the servers, they tend to have a lower impact on performance. This type of scanning also facilitates signature-based scanning, which is one of the customer's requirements.

One of the known security concerns with the Distributed Network Protocol version 3 (DNP3), which is used in SCADA systems, is the lack of built-in security features, including authentication. This means that by default, it does not verify the identity of the entities communicating, making it susceptible to unauthorized access and commands.

Based on the SIEM alerts, the security analyst should first disable the jdoe account, as it is likely compromised by an attacker. The alerts show that the jdoe account successfully logged on to the abc-usa-fsl server, which is a file server, and then initiated SMB (445) traffic to the abc-web01 server, which is a web server. This indicates that the attacker may be trying to exfiltrate data from the file server to the web server. Disabling the jdoe account would help stop this unauthorized activity and prevent further damage.

Disabling Administrator on abc-usa-fsl, the local account is compromised, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if the local account is compromised or not. The alert shows that there was a successful logon event for Administrator on abc-usa-fsl, but it does not specify if it was a local or domain account, or if it was authorized or not. Moreover, disabling the local account would not stop the SMB traffic from jdoe to abc-web01.

Shutting down the abc-usa-fsl server, a plaintext credential is being used, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if a plaintext credential is being used or not. The alert shows that there was RDP (3389) traffic from abc-admin1-logon to abc-usa-fsl, but it does not specify if the credential was encrypted or not. Moreover, shutting down the file server would disrupt its normal operations and affect other users.

Shutting down abc-usa-fw01; the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited, is not the first action to take, as it is not clear from the alerts if the remote access VPN vulnerability is exploited or not. The alert shows that there was FTP (21) traffic from abc-usa-dcl to abc-web01, but it does not specify if it was related to the VPN or not. Moreover, shutting down the firewall would expose the network to other threats and affect other services. References: What is SIEM? | Microsoft Security, What is a SIEM Alert? | Cofense

Single-tenant architectures provide a dedicated environment for each client, which enhances data privacy since the resources are not shared with other tenants. This isolation minimizes the risk of data leakage or interference from other tenants, offering a high degree of privacy. Additionally, single-tenancy allows for full control over the database environment, including customization options tailored to specific security requirements or compliance needs, which is not always possible in a multi-tenant architecture.

The network administrator is noticing a web attack that attempts to access the /etc/shadow file on a Linux web server. The /etc/shadow file contains the encrypted passwords of all users on the system and is a common target for attackers. The attack uses a technique called directory traversal, which exploits a vulnerability in the web application that allows an attacker to access files or directories outside of the intended scope by manipulating the file path.

Validating the server input and appending the input to the base directory path would be the best action for the network administrator to take to defend against this type of web attack, because it would:

• Check the user input for any errors, malicious data, or unexpected values before processing it by the web application.
• Prevent directory traversal by ensuring that the user input is always relative to the base directory path of the web application, and not absolute to the root directory of the web server.
• Deny access to any files or directories that are not part of the web application’s scope or functionality.

Signed applications ensure the integrity of the application by verifying that the source code has not been tampered with. Digital signatures provide a cryptographic guarantee that the software is exactly as the developer released it.

Security Information and Event Management (SIEM) systems provide real-time analysis of security alerts generated by applications and network hardware. SIEMs are beneficial in environments where there is a mix of various solutions, as they can collect and aggregate logs from multiple sources, providing the internal security team with a centralized view and visibility into all platforms. This would best meet the objective of ensuring visibility into all platforms, regardless of the differing solutions across the company's locations.

In the context of a private cryptographic key suspected to be exposed, the best immediate action is to revoke the certificate associated with that key. Revoking the certificate ensures that it cannot be used to establish new secure sessions, which prevents attackers from using the potentially compromised key to impersonate or decrypt communications. The revocation process typically involves updating the Certificate Revocation List (CRL) or leveraging the Online Certificate Status Protocol (OCSP), both of which are used by clients to check the validity of certificates.

Regular operating system patching is critical to mitigating vulnerabilities. When a Snort IDS rule is provided to identify a CVE, it typically means there is a known vulnerability that can be exploited. Keeping systems updated with the latest patches helps to close off these vulnerabilities and protect against exploitation.

Record-level encryption is primarily used to protect sensitive information stored in specific fields within a database, such as personal data, financial information, or health records. This encryption method ensures that individual data entries are encrypted, providing a high level of security and privacy by making the data unreadable to unauthorized users or in the event of a database breach, while still allowing the database to be functional for authorized queries and operations.

Due care refers to the effort made by an ordinarily prudent or reasonable party to avoid harm to another party. By not reporting the gaps in the inventory system, the assessor is neglecting their responsibility and not exercising the due care that is expected of them, which could lead to legal ramifications for non-compliance or other security breaches.

Galois/Counter Mode (GCM) is an AES mode of operation that provides both confidentiality and data integrity. It is well-suited for processing streams of data, making it ideal for streaming video services. GCM is known for its strong cryptographic security and good performance, which aligns with the legacy cipher's characteristics and the streaming service's requirements.

The first step in forensic analysis is to collect the most volatile data, which is the information that would be lost when the power is turned off or the system is rebooted. This includes the contents of memory (RAM) and other temporary data that are stored in caches or buffers. A memory dump captures this data and should be done before other less volatile data is collected, like hard drive images or log files, to ensure the most accurate and comprehensive capture of the system's state at the time of the incident.

When a legal records hold is issued, the organization is required to preserve all documents and communications that may relate to the litigation. This includes emails, files, and any other form of communication that contains the requested search terms. It is a process of ensuring that this information is not deleted, altered, or otherwise tampered with.

The incident response cycle's preparation phase includes establishing policies and procedures for reporting lost or stolen devices promptly. If an employee's device was missing for 96 hours before being reported, this indicates a lack of awareness or clear procedures on the employee's part, pointing to inadequacies in the preparation phase of the incident response.

Labeling files and requiring formal access authorization is a method that aligns with the principle of least privilege and the need-to-know basis. By assigning labels to files based on their sensitivity and requiring formal access approval from the data owner, the security officer can ensure that only personnel with the necessary clearance and a legitimate need to access the information can do so. This approach helps in maintaining data confidentiality and integrity in line with the project's security requirements.

In the event of a fire at the main data center, the immediate action should be to review and engage the disaster recovery plan. This is to ensure the continuity of business operations. The CIO should coordinate with IT leaders from both companies to ensure a unified response. Assessing the damage and planning for recovery are crucial, and leveraging the expertise from both companies can help streamline the process.

In cloud computing models, the security of the physical data center is the responsibility of the Cloud Service Provider (CSP). The CSP is responsible for protecting the infrastructure that runs all of the services offered in the cloud, which includes the physical security of the data center.

Updating firewall rules to match new IP addresses in use will help to limit the attack surface in case of an incident by ensuring only legitimate traffic is allowed. It can also improve access control for external and internal network security by ensuring that only authorized entities can access certain resources, and may improve network performance by reducing unnecessary traffic (less congestion).

Subject Alternative Name (SAN) is a part of the X.509 specification for SSL certificates that allows multiple domain names to be protected under a single SSL certificate. Using SAN is the most suitable option when a single Certificate Signing Request (CSR) needs to cover multiple hostnames. It enables the security engineer to list all the required hostnames in one certificate, ensuring secure communications for each listed entity without the need for separate certificates.

Traffic mirroring, also known as port mirroring or SPAN (Switched Port Analyzer), involves creating a copy of the actual network traffic for independent analysis. This would allow the third-party vendor to review communications between infrastructure endpoints, identify unauthorized and malicious data patterns, and perform automated, risk-mitigating configuration changes without impacting the live environment. This is used in network intrusion detection systems (NIDS) and for traffic analysis purposes.

Network segmentation is a method to isolate environments from one another, thus limiting the scope of a potential attack. For IoT systems that cannot be updated or patched, network segmentation is the best mitigation technique. It would contain any compromise to the segmented network and prevent it from affecting the rest of the network infrastructure.

Digital signatures require the use of a cryptographic key pair, which consists of a private key used to sign the application and a public key used to verify the signature. If the certificate used for signing the application is set for the wrong key usage, then the signature will fail. This can happen if the certificate is set for encrypting data instead of signing data, or if the certificate is set for the wrong algorithm, such as using an RSA key for an ECDSA signature.

B. Log aggregator: A log aggregator is a tool that collects, parses, and stores logs from various sources, such as devices, applications, servers, etc. A log aggregator can help meet the requirement of retaining logs for 365 days by providing a centralized and scalable storage solution1 .

D. PAM: PAM stands for privileged access management. It is a technology that controls and monitors the access of privileged users (such as administrators) to critical systems and data. PAM can help meet the requirement of controlling and tracking privileged user access by enforcing policies such as least privilege, multifactor authentication, password rotation, session recording, etc. .

F. SIEM: SIEM stands for security information and event management. It is a technology that analyzes and correlates logs from various sources to detect and respond to security incidents. SIEM can help meet the requirement of identifying ransomware threats and zero-day vulnerabilities by providing real-time alerts, threat intelligence feeds, incident response workflows, etc. .

Modifying the ACLs (access control lists) is the most likely solution to avoid the intermittent access issues with the new cloud application. ACLs are used to define permissions for different users and groups to access resources on a network. The problem may be caused by incorrect or missing ACLs for the marketing department that prevent them from accessing the cloud application or its data sources. The other options are either irrelevant or less effective for the given scenario.

If on VPN concentrator goes down due to a zero day threat, having a redundant VPN concentrator of a different vendor should keep you going.

A MSA stands for master service agreement, which is a document that covers the general terms and conditions of a contractual relationship between two parties. It usually includes payment terms, limitation of liability, intellectual property rights, dispute resolution, and other clauses that apply to all services provided by one party to another. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.upcounsel.com/master-service-agreement

Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board’s concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how-does-it-work.html

Stopping the Print Spooler service and setting the startup type to disabled is the best configuration change to harden a domain controller against lateral movement attacks. The Print Spooler service has been known to be vulnerable to remote code execution exploits that can allow attackers to gain access to domain controllers and other sensitive machines. Disabling this service can reduce the attack surface and prevent exploitation attempts.

A Business Continuity Plan (BCP) is a set of policies and procedures that outline how an organization should respond to and recover from disruptions [1]. It is designed to ensure that critical operations and services can be quickly restored and maintained, and should include steps to identify risks, develop plans to mitigate those risks, and detail the procedures to be followed in the event of a disruption. Resources:

CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner (CASP+) Study Guide, Chapter 4: “Business Continuity Planning,” Wiley, 2018. https://www.wiley.com/en-us/CompTIA+Advanced+Security+Practitioner+CASP%2B+Study+Guide%2C+2nd+Edition-p-9781119396582

Data loss prevention (DLP) is the best option to resolve the board’s concerns for this email migration. DLP is a set of tools and policies that aim to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, or exfiltration of sensitive data. DLP can monitor, filter, encrypt, or block email messages based on predefined rules and criteria, such as content, sender, recipient, attachment, etc. DLP can help protect transactions, customer data, and company information from being compromised by malicious actors or accidental leaks. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/training/books/casp-cas-004-study-guide , https://www.csoonline.com/article/3245746/what-is-dlp-data-loss-prevention-and-how-does-i t-work.html

A denial of service (DoS) attack is a malicious attempt to disrupt the normal functioning of a server by overwhelming it with requests or traffic1. One possible indicator of a DoS attack is a large number of connections from a single source IP address1. In this case, the output of netstat -an shows that there are many connections from 213.37.55.67 with different port numbers and in TIME WAIT state23. This suggests that the attacker is sending many SYN packets to initiate connections but not completing them, thus exhausting the server’s resources and preventing legitimate users from accessing it1.

 Disabling file exchange can help to minimize data leakage by preventing users from sharing sensitive documents or data through the videoconferencing platform. Enabling watermarking can help to maintain customer trust and ensure non-repudiation by adding a visible or invisible mark to the video stream that identifies the source or owner of the content. Enabling the user authentication requirement can help to secure the videoconferencing sessions by verifying the identity of the participants and preventing unauthorized access. Verified References:

• https://www.rev.com/blog/marketing/follow-these-7-video-conferencing-security-best-practices
• https://www.paloaltonetworks.com/blog/2020/04/network-video-conferencing-security/
• https://www.megameeting.com/news/best-practices-secure-video-conferencing/

Executing the files in the sandbox on the web proxy is the best solution to reduce the risk of employees downloading and opening malicious files from the internet. A sandbox is a secure and isolated environment that can run untrusted or potentially harmful code without affecting the rest of the system. By executing the files in the sandbox, the web proxy can analyze their behavior and detect any malicious activity before allowing them to reach the corporate workstations.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 273]

Risk acceptance is the decision to accept the potential risk and continue operating without engaging in extraordinary measures to mitigate it. If the cost of anti-malware exceeds the potential loss from a malware threat, it would be more cost-effective to accept the risk rather than spend more on mitigations that don't provide proportional value. This is part of a cost-benefit analysis in risk management.

A lack of Mobile Device Management (MDM) controls can lead to successful attacks because MDM solutions provide the ability to enforce security policies, remotely wipe sensitive data, and manage software updates, which can prevent unauthorized access and protect corporate data. Without MDM, personal devices are more vulnerable to security risks.

Steganography is the practice of hiding a secret message within another object, in such a way that others cannot discern the presence or contents of the hidden message. It is often used for watermarking to embed a covert sign of ownership in a proprietary document without adding any visible identifying attributes.

Software Composition Analysis (SCA) is a process that identifies the open-source components used in software development to manage the risks associated with third-party components. Implementing SCA into the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC) can help identify outdated third-party packages and ensure they are replaced or updated before the software is distributed.

Mobile application management (MAM) is a solution that allows the organization to control and secure the approved collaboration applications and the data within them on personal devices. MAM can prevent unstructured data from being exfiltrated by restricting the ability to move, copy, or share data between applications. Multi-factor authentication (MFA) is a solution that requires the user to provide more than one piece of evidence to prove their identity when accessing corporate data. MFA can prevent data from being exfiltrated as a result of compromised credentials by adding an extra layer of security. Digital rights management (DRM) is a solution that protects the intellectual property rights of digital content by enforcing policies and permissions on how the content can be used, accessed, or distributed. DRM can prevent sensitive information in emails from being exfiltrated by encrypting the content and limiting the actions that can be performed on it, such as forwarding, printing, or copying. Verified References:

• https://www.manageengine.com/data-security/what-is/byod.html
• https://www.cimcor.com/blog/7-scariest-byod-security-risks-how-to-mitigate

Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal and continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs are actions that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal is a technique that uses baselines, analytics, machine learning, or other methods to establish normal patterns of user activity and identify anomalies or outliers that could indicate malicious or suspicious behavior. Modeling user behavior and monitoring for deviations from normal can help detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments, as it can alert on unusual or unauthorized access attempts, commands, actions, or transactions by users. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs is a technique that uses tools, scripts, automation, or other methods to track and record changes made to code repositories by developers, testers, reviewers, or other parties involved in the software development process. Continuously monitoring code commits to repositories and generating summary logs can help detect authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, as it can audit and verify the source, time, reason, and impact of code changes made by authorized users. Performing static code analysis of committed code and generate summary reports is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect vulnerabilities, errors, bugs, or quality issues in committed code. Implementing an XML gateway and monitor for policy violations is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to protect XML-based web services from threats or attacks by validating XML messages against predefined policies. Monitoring dependency management tools and report on susceptible third-party libraries is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes to environment configurations, but an action that will enable the data feeds needed to identify outdated or vulnerable third-party libraries used in software development projects. Installing an IDS (intrusion detection system) on the development subnet and passively monitor for vulnerable services is not an action that will enable the data feeds needed to detect unauthorized insertions into application development environments and authorized insiders making unauthorized changes

 Execute never is a technology that can be enabled on the ARM architecture to prevent malware from inserting itself in another process memory location and executing code. Execute never is a feature that allows each memory region to be tagged as not containing executable code by setting the execute never (XN) bit in the translation table entry. If the XN bit is set to 1, then any attempt to execute an instruction in that region results in a permission fault. If the XN bit is cleared to 0, then code can execute from that memory region. Execute never also prevents speculative instruction fetches from memory regions that are marked as non-executable, which can avoid undesirable side-effects or vulnerabilities. By enabling execute never, the developer can protect the process memory from being hijacked by malware. Verified References:

• https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0360/f/memory-management-unit/memory-access-control/execute-never-bits
• https://developer.arm.com/documentation/den0013/d/The-Memory-Management-Unit/Memory-attributes/Execute-Never
• https://developer.arm.com/documentation/ddi0406/c/System-Level-Architecture/Virtual-Memory-System-Architecture–VMSA-/Memory-access-control/Execute-never-restrictions-on-instruction-fetching

This is because the homegrown identity management system is not consistent with best practices and leaves the institution vulnerable, which means it needs to be replaced with a more secure and reliable solution. A new IAM system/vendor should be able to provide features such as role-based access control, two-factor authentication, auditing, and compliance that can enhance the security and efficiency of the identity management process. A requirements document can help define the scope, objectives, and criteria for selecting a suitable IAM system/vendor that meets the needs of the institution.

A public key infrastructure (PKI) is a system of certificates and keys that can provide encryption and authentication for APIs (application programming interfaces). A PKI can be used to store customer keys for accessing APIs and segregating customer data sets. A trusted platform module (TPM) is a hardware device that provides cryptographic functions and key storage, but it is not suitable for storing customer keys for APIs. A hardware security module (HSM) is similar to a TPM, but it is used for storing keys for applications, not for APIs. A localized key store is a software component that stores keys locally, but it is not as secure or scalable as a PKI. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pki https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

This solution would address the three issues as follows:

• Serving static content via distributed CDNs would reduce the latency for international users by delivering images from the nearest edge location to the user’s request.
• Creating a read replica of the central database and pulling reports from there would offload the read-intensive workload from the primary database and avoid affecting the inventory data for order placement.
• Auto-scaling API servers based on performance would dynamically adjust the number of servers to match the demand and balance the load across them at peak times.

Preparation is the process that can be used to identify potential prevention recommendations after a security incident, such as a ransomware attack. Preparation involves planning and implementing security measures to prevent or mitigate future incidents, such as by updating policies, procedures, or controls, conducting training or awareness campaigns, or acquiring new tools or resources. Detection is the process of discovering or identifying security incidents, not preventing them. Remediation is the process of containing or resolving security incidents, not preventing them. Recovery is the process of restoring normal operations after security incidents, not preventing them. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-incident-response https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Data exposure is a security concern that will most likely need to be addressed during migration of all company data to the cloud, as it could involve sensitive or confidential data being accessed or disclosed by unauthorized parties. Data exposure could occur due to misconfigured cloud services, insecure data transfers, insider threats, or malicious attacks. Data exposure could also result in compliance violations, reputational damage, or legal liabilities. Latency is not a security concern, but a performance concern that could affect the speed or quality of data access or transmission. Data loss is not a security concern, but a availability concern that could affect the integrity or recovery of data. Data dispersion is not a security concern, but a management concern that could affect the visibility or control of data. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-exposure https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Key escrow is a process that involves storing encryption keys with a trusted third party, such as a CASB (Cloud Access Security Broker) or a government agency. Key escrow can enable authorized access to encrypted data in case of emergencies, legal issues, or data recovery. However, key escrow also introduces some risks and challenges, such as trust, security, and privacy. References: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/1772/key-escrow https://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/definition/key-escrow

SD-WAN (software-defined wide area network) vertical heterogeneity is a technique that can help preserve network bandwidth and increase speed to both internal and external resources while not sacrificing threat visibility. SD-WAN vertical heterogeneity involves using different types of network links (such as broadband, cellular, or satellite) for different types of traffic (such as voice, video, or data) based on their performance and security requirements. This can optimize the network efficiency and reliability, as well as provide granular visibility and control over traffic flows. Distributed connection allocation is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for distributing network connections among multiple servers or devices. Local caching is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a method for storing frequently accessed data locally to reduce latency or load times. Content delivery network is not a technique for preserving network bandwidth and increasing speed, but a system of distributed servers that deliver web content to users based on their geographic location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-sd-wan https://partners.comptia.org/docs /default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The browser is the application that the security analyst should patch first, given that all the applications have equally high CVSS scores. CVSS stands for Common Vulnerability Scoring System, which is a method for measuring the severity of vulnerabilities based on various factors, such as access conditions, impact, and exploitability. CVSS scores range from 0 to 10, with higher scores indicating higher severity. However, CVSS scores alone are not sufficient to determine the patching priority, as they do not account for other factors, such as the likelihood of exploitation, the exposure of the system, or the criticality of the data. Therefore, the security analyst should also consider the context and the risk of each application when deciding which one to patch first. In this case, the browser is likely to be the most exposed and frequently used application by the network administrator, and also the most likely entry point for an attacker to compromise the system or access the SSO web portal. Therefore, patching the browser first can reduce the risk of a successful attack and protect the system and the data from further damage. Verified References:

• https://nvd.nist.gov/vuln-metrics/cvss
• https://www.darkreading.com/risk/vulnerability-severity-scores-make-for-poor-patching-priority-researchers-find

Delivering an updated threat signature throughout the endpoint detection and response (EDR) system is the best way to take advantage of the security solution that uses a sandbox environment to execute zero-day software and collect indicators of compromise. An EDR system is a solution that monitors and analyzes the activities and behaviors of endpoints, such as computers, mobile devices, or servers, and detects and responds to potential threats. An EDR system can use threat signatures, which are patterns or characteristics of known malicious software or attacks, to identify and block malicious activities on endpoints. By delivering an updated threat signature based on the indicators of compromise collected from the sandbox environment, the organization can enhance its EDR system’s ability to detect and prevent zero-day attacks that exploit unknown vulnerabilities. Verified References:

• https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/security/what-is-endpoint-detection-response.html
• https://www.crowdstrike.com/epp-101/what-is-a-sandbox/

OCSP stapling is a solution that allows the web server to provide a time-stamped OCSP response signed by the CA along with the certificate during the TLS handshake, eliminating the need for the client to contact the CA separately to validate the certificate. OCSP stapling can reduce the delay caused by the certificate validation process by saving a round-trip between the client and the CA. It can also improve the security and privacy of the certificate validation by preventing potential attacks or tracking by malicious third parties. Verified References:

• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/OCSP_stapling
• https://www.digicert.com/knowledgebase/ssl-certificates/ssl-general-topics/what-is-ocsp-stapling.html
• https://www.entrust.com/knowledgebase/ssl/online-certificate-status-protocol-ocsp-stapling

Reviewing video from IP cameras within the facility would be the most likely process to expose an attacker who has compromised an air-gapped system. Since air-gapped systems are isolated from external networks, an attacker would need physical access to the system or use some covert channel to communicate with it. Video surveillance could reveal any unauthorized or suspicious activity within the facility that could be related to the attack. Verified References:

• https://www.welivesecurity.com/wp-content/uploads/2021/12/eset_jumping_the_air_gap_wp.pdf
• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Air-Gap_Malware
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/essentialguide/How-air-gap-attacks-challenge-the-notion-of-secure-networks

Watermarking is a technique of adding an identifying image or pattern to an original image to protect its ownership and authenticity. Watermarks can be customized to include specific information about the external party, such as their name, logo, or date of receipt. This way, if any draft images are leaked to the public, the firm can trace back the source of the leak and take appropriate actions. Verified References:

• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Watermark
• https://www.canva.com/features/watermark-photos/
• https://www.mdpi.com/2078-2489/11/2/110

Wireless network auto joining is the mobile configuration setting that the mobile administrator is verifying by reviewing the mobile device DHCP logs. Wireless network auto joining is a feature that allows mobile devices to automatically connect to a predefined wireless network without requiring user intervention or authentication. This can be useful for corporate or trusted networks that need frequent access by mobile devices. The DHCP logs show that the mobile devices are assigned IP addresses from the wireless network with SSID “CorpWiFi”, which indicates that they are auto joining this network.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 420]

The organization is implementing homomorphic encryption. Homomorphic encryption is a type of encryption that allows computations to be performed on encrypted data without decrypting it first. This means that the organization can analyze the customers’ data and deliver analysis results without being able to see the raw data, preserving the privacy and confidentiality of the customers. Homomorphic encryption can enable various applications, such as cloud computing, machine learning, and data analytics, that require processing sensitive data without compromising security. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/homomorphic-encryption
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/encryption-at-rest
• https://www.ibm.com/topics/homomorphic-encryption

Containerization is a technology that allows applications to run in isolated and portable environments called containers. Containers are lightweight and self-contained units that include all the dependencies, libraries, and configuration files needed for an application to run. Containers can be deployed on any platform that supports the container runtime engine, such as Docker or Kubernetes.

Containerization would allow the company to refactor a monolithic application to take advantage of cloud native services and service microsegmentation to secure sensitive application components, because containerization would:

• Enable the application to be split into smaller and independent components (microservices) that can communicate with each other through APIs or message queues.
• Allow the application to leverage cloud native services, such as load balancers, databases, or serverless functions, that can be integrated with containers through configuration files or environment variables.
• Enhance the security of the application by isolating each container from other containers and the host system, and applying fine-grained access control policies and network rules to each container or group of containers.
• Ensure the portability of the application by enabling it to run on any cloud provider or platform that supports containers, without requiring any changes to the application code or configuration.

In a shared responsibility model for PaaS, the customer’s responsibility is OS security. PaaS stands for Platform as a Service, which is a cloud service model that provides a platform for customers to develop, run, and manage applications without having to deal with the underlying infrastructure. The cloud provider is responsible for the physical security, network security, and host infrastructure of the platform, while the customer is responsible for the security of the operating system, the application, and the data. The customer needs to ensure that the operating system is patched, configured, and protected from malware and unauthorized access. Verified References:

• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/shared-responsibility
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchcloudcomputing/feature/The-cloud-shared-responsibility-model-for-IaaS-PaaS-and-SaaS
• https://www.splunk.com/en_us/blog/learn/shared-responsibility-model.html

Configuring user settings in Group Policy is the best way for an administrator to implement the decision to restrict PowerShell access to only administrators. Group Policy is a feature of Windows that allows administrators to manage and enforce settings for users and computers in a domain. By using Group Policy, an administrator can create a policy that blocks or disables PowerShell for all users except for a particular group, such as administrators. This policy can be applied to all computers in the domain or to specific organizational units. This method is more effective and manageable than uninstalling PowerShell, monitoring event logs, providing user education, or blocking PowerShell via HIDS. Verified References:

• https://www.windowscentral.com/how-disable-powershell-windows-10
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/answers/questions/195218/how-to-restrict-powershell-for-all-users-except-fo
• https://windowsloop.com/block-disable-powershell/

The developer would most likely implement a Root CA in the autonomous vehicle’s software. A Root CA is the top-level authority in a PKI that issues and validates certificates for subordinate CAs or end entities. A Root CA can be self-signed and embedded in the vehicle’s software, which would reduce the need for external communication and verification. A Root CA would also enable the vehicle to use digital signatures and encryption for secure communication with other vehicles or infrastructure. Verified References:

• https://cse.iitkgp.ac.in/~abhij/publications/PKI++.pdf
• https://www.digicert.com/blog/connected-cars-need-security-use-pki
• https://ieeexplore.ieee.org/document/9822667/

Implementing an ongoing, third-party software and library review and regression testing is the best way to maximize risk reduction from vulnerabilities introduced by OpenSSL. Third-party software and libraries are often used by developers to save time and resources, but they may also introduce security risks if they are not properly maintained and updated. By reviewing and testing the third-party software and library regularly, the company can ensure that they are using the latest and most secure version of OpenSSL, and that their proprietary software is compatible and functional with it.

References: [CompTIA CASP+ Study Guide, Second Edition, page 362]

A downgrade attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack that forces two hosts to use an older or weaker version of the TLS protocol or its parameters. The attacker does this by replacing or deleting the STARTTLS command or exploiting the compatibility features of the protocol. The purpose of the attack is to create a pathway for enabling a cryptographic attack that would not be possible in case of a connection that is encrypted over the latest version of TLS protocol. The IOC shows that most client connections are renegotiated after establishing the connections, which could indicate that an entity is performing downgrade attacks on path by interfering with the initial handshake and making the client and server agree on a lower version of TLS or a weaker cipher suite. Verified References:

• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Downgrade_attack
• https://crypto.stackexchange.com/questions/10493/why-is-tls-susceptible-to-protocol-downgrade-attacks
• https://venafi.com/blog/preventing-downgrade-attacks/

Law enforcement officials informed an organization that an investigation has begun. Which of the following is the FIRST step the organization should take?

• Initiate a legal hold.
• Refer to the retention policy
• Perform e-discovery.
• Review the subpoena

Answer: A

A legal hold is a process by which an organization instructs its employees or other relevant parties to preserve specific data for potential litigation. A legal hold is triggered when litigation is reasonably anticipated, such as when law enforcement officials inform an organization that an investigation has begun. The first step the organization should take is to initiate a legal hold to ensure that relevant evidence is not deleted, destroyed, or altered. A legal hold also demonstrates the organization’s good faith and compliance with its duty to preserve evidence. Verified References:

• https://percipient.co/litigation-hold-triggers-and-the-duty-to-preserve-evidence/
• https://www.everlaw.com/blog/ediscovery-best-practices/guide-to-legal-holds/

WAP A: No issue found. The WAP A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

PC A = Enable host-based firewall to block all traffic

This option will turn off the host-based firewall and allow all traffic to pass through. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the connectivity of PC A to other devices on the network. However, this option will also reduce the security of PC A and make it more vulnerable to attacks. Therefore, it is recommended to use other security measures, such as antivirus, encryption, and password complexity, to protect PC A from potential threats.

Laptop A: Patch management

This option will install the updates that are available for Laptop A and ensure that it has the most recent security patches and bug fixes. This will comply with the requirement and also improve the performance and stability of Laptop A. However, this option may also require a reboot of Laptop A and some downtime during the update process. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and close any open applications before applying the updates.

Switch A: No issue found. The Switch A is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Switch B: No issue found. The Switch B is configured correctly and meets the requirements.

Laptop B: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the telnet service that is using port 23 on Laptop B. Telnet is a cleartext service that transmits data in plain text over the network, which exposes it to eavesdropping, interception, and modification by attackers. By disabling the telnet service, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of Laptop B. However, this option may also affect the functionality of Laptop B if it needs to use telnet for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to use a secure alternative to telnet, such as SSH or HTTPS, that encrypts the data in transit.

PC B: Enable disk encryption

This option will encrypt the HDD of PC B using a tool such as BitLocker or VeraCrypt. Disk encryption is a technique that protects data at rest by converting it into an unreadable format that can only be decrypted with a valid key or password. By enabling disk encryption, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the confidentiality and integrity of PC B’s data. However, this option may also affect the performance and usability of PC B, as it requires additional processing time and user authentication to access the encrypted data. Therefore, it is recommended to backup any important data and choose a strong key or password before encrypting the disk.

PC C: Disable unneeded services

This option will stop and disable the SSH daemon that is using port 22 on PC C. SSH is a secure service that allows remote access and command execution over an encrypted channel. However, port 22 is the default and well-known port for SSH, which makes it a common target for brute-force attacks and port scanning. By disabling the SSH daemon on port 22, you will comply with the requirement and also improve the security of PC C. However, this option may also affect the functionality of PC C if it needs to use SSH for remote administration or other purposes. Therefore, it is recommended to enable the SSH daemon on a different port, such as 4022, by editing the configuration file using the following command:

sudo nano /etc/ssh/sshd_config

Server A. Need to select the following:

A black and white screen with white text Description automatically generated

The company should use HMAC SHA256 as a cryptographic technique to ensure that packets received between two parties have not been tampered with and the connection remains private. HMAC stands for hash-based message authentication code, which is a method of generating a message authentication code using a cryptographic hash function and a secret key. HMAC can provide both integrity and authenticity of the packets, as well as resistance to replay attacks. SHA256 is a specific hash function that produces a 256-bit output. SHA256 is considered secure and widely used in various cryptographic applications. Verified References:

• https://www.ericsson.com/en/blog/2021/7/cryptography-and-privacy-protecting-private-data
• https://www.mdpi.com/journal/cryptography/special_issues/Preserve_Enhance_Privacy
• https://link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11432-021-3393-x

A content delivery network (CDN) is a geographically distributed network of servers that can cache content close to end users, allowing for faster and more efficient delivery of web content, such as images, videos, and streaming media. A CDN can also handle an increase in customer demand of resources, provide high-quality streaming media, and create a user-friendly interface by reducing latency and bandwidth consumption. A CDN can also improve the security and availability of the website by mitigating DDoS attacks and providing redundancy. Verified References:

• https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/cdn/what-is-a-cdn/
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cdn/cdn-overview
• https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Content_delivery_network

The tools that can be used to provide key information in the risk register are SCAP scanner and vulnerability scanner. SCAP stands for Security Content Automation Protocol, which is a set of standards and specifications for automating the management of security configuration, vulnerability assessment, and compliance evaluation. SCAP scanner is a tool that can scan systems and networks for security issues based on SCAP content. Vulnerability scanner is a tool that can scan systems and networks for known vulnerabilities and weaknesses. These tools can help the security analyst identify and prioritize the risks associated with the systems and networks, as well as provide possible remediation actions. Verified References:

• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/Security-Content-Automation-Protocol
• https://learn.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/security/fundamentals/vulnerability-management
• https://www.techtarget.com/searchsecurity/definition/vulnerability-scanner

The change control board (CCB) is a committee that consists of subject matter experts and managers who decide whether to implement proposed changes to a project. The change control board is part of the change management plan, which defines the roles and processes for managing change within a team or organization. The change control board must review and approve a submission for any change request that affects the scope, schedule, budget, quality, or risks of the project. The change control board evaluates the impact and benefits of the change request and decides whether to accept, reject, or defer it.

A. The implementation engineer requesting direct approval from the systems engineer and the Chief Information Security Officer is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it bypasses the change control board and the project manager. This could lead to unauthorized changes that could compromise the project’s objectives and deliverables.

C. The information system security officer providing the systems engineer with the system updates is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it does not involve the change control board or the project manager. This could lead to unauthorized changes that could introduce security vulnerabilities or conflicts with other system components.

D. The security engineer asking the project manager to review the updates for the client’s system is not a correct process for requesting updates or corrections to the client’s systems, because it does not involve the change control board. The project manager is responsible for facilitating the change management process, but not for approving or rejecting change requests.

https://www.projectmanager.com/blog/change-control-board-roles-responsibilities-processes

Assuring the integrity of messages is the most important security objective when applying cryptography to control messages that tell an ICS (industrial control system) how much electrical power to output. Integrity is the security objective that ensures the accuracy and completeness of data or information, preventing unauthorized modifications or tampering. Assuring the integrity of messages can prevent malicious or accidental changes to the control messages that could affect the operation or safety of the ICS or the electrical power output. Importing the availability of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the accessibility and usability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or disruption of service. Ensuring non-repudiation of messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the authenticity and accountability of data or information, preventing unauthorized denial or dispute of actions or transactions. Enforcing protocol conformance for messages is not a security objective when applying cryptography, but a security objective that ensures the compliance and consistency of data or information, preventing unauthorized deviations or violations of rules or standards. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-integrity https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/reso urces/casp-content-guide

The security analyst should remove the cipher TLS_DHE_DSS_WITH_RC4_128_SHA to support the business requirements, as it is considered weak and vulnerable to on-path attacks. RC4 is an outdated stream cipher that has been deprecated by major browsers and protocols due to its flaws and weaknesses. The other ciphers are more secure and compliant with secure-by-design principles and PCI DSS. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-cipher https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The SIEM events show that powershell.exe was executed on multiple endpoints with an outbound connection to 40.90.23.154, which is an IP address associated with malicious activity. This could indicate a malware infection or a command-and-control channel. The best response action is to configure the forward proxy to block 40.90.23.154, which would prevent further communication with the malicious IP address. Disabling powershell.exe on all endpoints may not be feasible or effective, as it could affect legitimate operations and not remove the malware. Restarting Microsoft Windows Defender may not detect or stop the malware, as it could have bypassed or disabled it. Disabling local administrator privileges on the endpoints may not prevent the malware from running or communicating, as it could have escalated privileges or used other methods. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-forward-proxy https://partners.comptia.o rg/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

 An information-sharing community is a group or network of organizations that share threat intelligence, best practices, and mitigation strategies related to cybersecurity. An information-sharing community can help the company proactively manage the threats of potential theft of its newly developed, proprietary information by providing timely and actionable insights, alerts, and recommendations. An information-sharing community can also enable collaboration and coordination among its members to enhance their collective defense and resilience. References: https://us-cert.cisa.gov/ncas/tips/ST04-016 https://www.cisecurity.org/blog/what-is-an-info rmation-sharing-community/

Steganalysis is the process of detecting hidden data in files or media, such as images, audio, or video. One technique of steganalysis is to identify least significant bit encoding, which is a method of hiding data by altering the least significant bits of each byte in a file. For example, a .wav file could contain hidden data encoded in the least significant bits of each audio sample. Steganalysis techniques can help forensic responders to discover hidden evidence or malicious payloads. Breaking a symmetric cipher, determining the frequency of attacks, or maintaining chain of custody are not related to steganalysis. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-steganography https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default -source/resources/casp-content-guide

Implementing decoy files on adjacent hosts is a technique that can entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it can lure them into accessing fake or irrelevant data that can trigger an alert or reveal their presence. Decoy files are also known as honeyfiles or honeypots, and they are part of deception technology. Deploying a SOAR (Security Orchestration Automation and Response) tool may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as SOAR is mainly focused on automating and streamlining security operations, not deceiving attackers. Modifying user password history and length requirements may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could affect legitimate users and not reveal the attacker’s actions. Applying new isolation and segmentation schemes may not entice the adversary to uncover malicious activity, as it could limit their access and movement, but not expose their presence. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-deception-technology https://partners.comptia.org/ docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

PCI DSS (Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard) is a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information while it is at rest and in transit. PCI DSS is a standard that defines the security requirements and best practices for organizations that process, store, or transmit credit card information, such as merchants, service providers, or acquirers. PCI DSS aims to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of credit card information and prevent fraud or identity theft. NIST (National Institute of Standards and Technology) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an agency that develops standards, guidelines, and recommendations for various fields of science and technology, including cybersecurity. GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but a regulation that defines the data protection and privacy rights and obligations for individuals and organizations in the European Union or the European Economic Area. ISO (International Organization for Standardization) is not a standard that provides the best guidance for protecting credit card information, but an organization that develops standards for various fields of science and technology, including information security. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-pci-dss https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

The output shows a SQL injection attack that is trying to exploit a web application. A WAF (Web Application Firewall) is a security solution that can detect and block malicious web requests, such as SQL injection, XSS, CSRF, etc. Placing a WAF inline would prevent the attack from reaching the web server and database. References: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/SQL_Injection https://www.cloudflare.com/learning/ddos/glossary/web-application-firewall-waf/

A VPN (virtual private network) can provide secure connectivity for remote users to access servers hosted by the cloud provider. A CASB (cloud access security broker) can enforce policies and controls for accessing SaaS applications. A secure web gateway can monitor and filter user browser activity to prevent malicious or unauthorized traffic. Verified References: https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-a-vpn

DLP (data loss prevention) is a solution that can meet the following requirements: identify sensitive data in the provider’s network, maintain compliance with company and regulatory guidelines, detect and respond to insider threats, privileged user threats, and compromised accounts, and enforce data-centric security, such as encryption, tokenization, and access control. DLP can monitor, classify, and protect data in motion, at rest, or in use, and prevent unauthorized disclosure or exfiltration. WAF (web application firewall) is a solution that can protect web applications from common attacks, such as SQL injection or cross-site scripting, but it does not address the requirements listed. CASB (cloud access security broker) is a solution that can enforce policies and controls for accessing cloud services and applications, but it does not address the requirements listed. SWG (secure web gateway) is a solution that can monitor and filter web traffic to prevent malicious or unauthorized access, but it does not address the requirements listed. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guid

The process ID 87 can be the starting point for an investigation of a possible buffer overflow attack, as it shows a high percentage of CPU utilization (99.7%) and a suspicious command name (graphic.linux_randomization.prg). A buffer overflow attack is a type of attack that exploits a vulnerability in an application or system that allows an attacker to write data beyond the allocated buffer size, potentially overwriting memory segments and executing malicious code. A high CPU utilization could indicate that the process is performing intensive or abnormal operations, such as a buffer overflow attack. A suspicious command name could indicate that the process is trying to disguise itself or evade detection, such as by mimicking a legitimate program or using random characters. The other process IDs do not show signs of a buffer overflow attack, as they have low CPU utilization and normal command names. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-buffer-overflow https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide

Microsegmentation enabled by software-defined networking is an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically. Microsegmentation is a technique that divides a network into smaller segments or zones based on granular criteria, such as applications, services, users, or devices. Microsegmentation can provide fine-grained access control and isolation for network resources, preventing unauthorized or lateral movements within the network. Software-defined networking is a technology that decouples the control plane from the data plane in network devices, allowing centralized and programmable management of network functions and policies. Software-defined networking can enable microsegmentation by dynamically creating and enforcing network segments or zones based on predefined rules or policies. Peer-to-peer secure communications enabled by mobile applications is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as peer-to-peer secure communications is a technique that allows direct and encrypted communication between two or more parties without relying on a central server or intermediary. Proxied application data connections enabled by API gateways is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as proxied application data connections is a technique that allows indirect and filtered communication between applications or services through an intermediary device or service that can modify or monitor the traffic. VLANs (virtual local area networks) enabled by network infrastructure devices is not an architectural design that can meet the requirements of allowing users to access only predefined services, having unique allow lists defined for each user, and constructing one-to-one subject/object access paths dynamically, as VLANs are logical segments of a physical network that can group devices or users based on common criteria, such as function, department, or location. Verified References: https://www.comptia.org/blog/what-is-microsegmentation https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/casp-content-guide