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CCSK Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

In the IaaS shared responsibility model, which responsibility typically falls on the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

Encrypting data at rest

B.

Ensuring physical security of data centers

C.

Managing application code

D.

Configuring firewall rules

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Questions 5

Which of the following information security policies defines the use of an organization's IT resources?

Options:

A.

Acceptable Use Policy

B.

Remote Work Policy

C.

Data Handling Policy

D.

Use of Cloud Services Policy

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Questions 6

When mapping functions to lifecycle phases, which functions are required to successfully process data?

Options:

A.

Create, Store, Use, and Share

B.

Create and Store

C.

Create and Use

D.

Create, Store, and Use

E.

Create, Use, Store, and Delete

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Questions 7

Which attack surfaces, if any, does virtualization technology introduce?

Options:

A.

The hypervisor

B.

Virtualization management components apart from the hypervisor

C.

Configuration and VM sprawl issues

D.

All of the above

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Questions 8

What is true of searching data across cloud environments?

Options:

A.

You might not have the ability or administrative rights to search or access all hosted data.

B.

The cloud provider must conduct the search with the full administrative controls.

C.

All cloud-hosted email accounts are easily searchable.

D.

Search and discovery time is always factored into a contract between the consumer and provider.

E.

You can easily search across your environment using any E-Discovery tool.

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Questions 9

Which cloud service model typically places the most security responsibilities on the cloud customer?

Options:

A.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

B.

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

C.

The responsibilities are evenly split between cloud provider and customer in all models.

D.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

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Questions 10

In the Software-as-a-service relationship, who is responsible for the majority of the security?

Options:

A.

Application Consumer

B.

Database Manager

C.

Application Developer

D.

Cloud Provider

E.

Web Application CISO

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Questions 11

Which of the following best describes the multi-tenant nature of cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Cloud customers operate independently without sharing resources

B.

Cloud customers share a common pool of resources but are segregated and isolated from each other

C.

Multiple cloud customers are allocated a set of dedicated resources via a common web interface

D.

Cloud customers share resources without any segregation or isolation

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Questions 12

What is a commonly used method by which hybrid cloud integrates data centers with public cloud?

Options:

A.

Using VPN or dedicated links

B.

Using peer-to-peer networks

C.

Using local area network (LAN)

D.

Using satellite connections

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Questions 13

Who is responsible for the security of the physical infrastructure and virtualization platform?

Options:

A.

The cloud consumer

B.

The majority is covered by the consumer

C.

It depends on the agreement

D.

The responsibility is split equally

E.

The cloud provider

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Questions 14

Which of the following statements are NOT requirements of governance and enterprise risk management in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Inspect and account for risks inherited from other members of the cloud supply chain and take active measures to mitigate and contain risks through operational resiliency.

B.

Respect the interdependency of the risks inherent in the cloud supply chain and communicate the corporate risk posture and readiness to consumers and dependent parties.

C.

Negotiate long-term contracts with companies who use well-vetted software application to avoid the transient nature of the cloud environment.

D.

Provide transparency to stakeholders and shareholders demonstrating fiscal solvency and organizational transparency.

E.

Both B and C.

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Questions 15

What is a primary objective during the Detection and Analysis phase of incident response?

Options:

A.

Developing and updating incident response policies

B.

Validating alerts and estimating the scope of incidents

C.

Performing detailed forensic investigations

D.

Implementing network segmentation and isolation

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Questions 16

Which Cloud Service Provider (CSP) security measure is primarily used to filter and monitor HTTP requests to protect against SQL injection and XSS attacks?

Options:

A.

CSP firewall

B.

Virtual Appliance

C.

Web Application Firewall

D.

Intrusion Detection System

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Questions 17

CCM: Cloud Controls Matrix (CCM) is a completely independent cloud

assessment toolkit that does not map any existing standards.

Options:

A.

True

B.

False

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Questions 18

A defining set of rules composed of claims and attributes of the entities in a transaction, which is used to determine their level of access to cloud-based resources is called what?

Options:

A.

An entitlement matrix

B.

A support table

C.

An entry log

D.

A validation process

E.

An access log

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Questions 19

What's the best way for organizations to establish a foundation for safeguarding data, upholding privacy, and meeting regulatory requirements in cloud applications?

Options:

A.

By implementing end-to-end encryption and multi-factor authentication

B.

By conducting regular security audits and updates

C.

By deploying intrusion detection systems and monitoring

D.

By integrating security at the architectural and design level

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Questions 20

CCM: The following list of controls belong to which domain of the CCM?

GRM 06 – Policy GRM 07 – Policy Enforcement GRM 08 – Policy Impact on Risk Assessments GRM 09 – Policy Reviews GRM 10 – Risk Assessments GRM 11 – Risk Management Framework

Options:

A.

Governance and Retention Management

B.

Governance and Risk Management

C.

Governing and Risk Metrics

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Questions 21

Which of the following best describes the Identity Provider (IdP) and its role in managing access to deployments?

Options:

A.

The IdP is used for authentication purposes and does not play a role in managing access to deployments.

B.

The IdP manages user, group, and role mappings for access to deployments across cloud providers.

C.

The IdP solely manages access within a deployment and resides within the deployment infrastructure.

D.

The IdP is responsible for creating deployments and setting up access policies within a single cloud provider.

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Questions 22

Which of the following represents a benefit of using serverless computing for new workload types?

Options:

A.

Requires short-term commitments and defers upfront costs

B.

Automatic scaling and reduced operational overhead

C.

Large initial configuration is not required

D.

Full control over underlying server environments

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Questions 23

How does network segmentation primarily contribute to limiting the impact of a security breach?

Options:

A.

By reducing the threat of breaches and vulnerabilities

B.

Confining breaches to a smaller portion of the network

C.

Allowing faster data recovery and response

D.

Monitoring and detecting unauthorized access attempts

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Questions 24

What primary aspects should effective cloud governance address to ensure security and compliance?

Options:

A.

Service availability, disaster recovery, load balancing, and latency

B.

Decision making, prioritization, monitoring, and transparency

C.

Encryption, redundancy, data integrity, and scalability

D.

Authentication, authorization, accounting, and auditing

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Questions 25

In the cloud provider and consumer relationship, which entity

manages the virtual or abstracted infrastructure?

Options:

A.

Only the cloud consumer

B.

Only the cloud provider

C.

Both the cloud provider and consumer

D.

It is determined in the agreement between the entities

E.

It is outsourced as per the entity agreement

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Questions 26

When configured properly, logs can track every code, infrastructure, and configuration change and connect it back to the submitter and approver, including the test results.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 27

Which of the following statements best describes an identity

federation?

Options:

A.

A library of data definitions

B.

A group of entities which have decided to exist together in a singlecloud

C.

Identities which share similar attributes

D.

Several countries which have agreed to define their identities withsimilar attributes

E.

The connection of one identity repository to another

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Questions 28

Which aspect of cloud architecture ensures that a system can handle growing amounts of work efficiently?

Options:

A.

Reliability

B.

Security

C.

Performance

D.

Scalability

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Questions 29

Which of the following statements best reflects the responsibility of organizations regarding cloud security and data ownership?

Options:

A.

Cloud providers are responsible for everything under the 'limited O responsibilities clauses.' The customer and the provider have joint accountability.

B.

Cloud providers assume full responsibility for the security obligations, and cloud customers are accountable for overall compliance.

C.

Data ownership rights are solely determined by the cloud provider, leaving organizations with no control or accountability over their data.

D.

Organizations are accountable for the security and compliance of their data and systems, even though they may lack full visibility into their cloud provider's infrastructure.

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Questions 30

Which aspect of assessing cloud providers poses the most significant challenge?

Options:

A.

Poor provider documentation and over-reliance on pooled audit

B.

Inconsistent policy standards and the proliferation of provider requirements

C.

Excessive details shared by the cloud provider and consequent information overload

D.

Limited visibility into internal operations and technology

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Questions 31

Which layer is the most important for securing because it is considered to be the foundation for secure cloud operations?

Options:

A.

Infrastructure

B.

Datastructure

C.

Infostructure

D.

Applistructure

E.

Metastructure

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Questions 32

What is the primary function of Data Encryption Keys (DEK) in cloud security?

Options:

A.

To increase the speed of cloud services

B.

To encrypt application data

C.

To directly manage user access control

D.

To serve as the primary key for all cloud resources

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Questions 33

Any given processor and memory will nearly always be running multiple workloads, often from different tenants.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 34

Which of the following is a primary benefit of using Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in a security context?

Options:

A.

Manual patch management

B.

Ad hoc security policies

C.

Static resource allocation

D.

Automated compliance checks

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Questions 35

In the context of server-side encryption handled by cloud providers, what is the key attribute of this encryption?

Options:

A.

The data is encrypted using symmetric encryption.

B.

The data is not encrypted in transit.

C.

The data is encrypted using customer or provider keys after transmission to the cloud.

D.

The data is encrypted before transmission to the cloud.

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Questions 36

Which feature in cloud enhances security by isolating deployments similar to deploying in distinct data centers?

Options:

A.

A single deployment for all applications

B.

Shared deployments for similar applications

C.

Randomized deployment configurations

D.

Multiple independent deployments for applications

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Questions 37

Which factor is typically considered in data classification?

Options:

A.

CI/CD step

B.

Storage capacity requirements

C.

Sensitivity of data

D.

Data controller

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Questions 38

Which of the following is NOT a cloud computing characteristic that impacts incidence response?

Options:

A.

The on demand self-service nature of cloud computing environments.

B.

Privacy concerns for co-tenants regarding the collection and analysis of telemetry and artifacts associated with an incident.

C.

The possibility of data crossing geographic or jurisdictional boundaries.

D.

Object-based storage in a private cloud.

E.

The resource pooling practiced by cloud services, in addition to the rapid elasticity offered by cloud infrastructures.

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Questions 39

What is the primary function of landing zones or account factories in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

Provide cost-saving recommendations for cloud resources

B.

Consistent configurations and policies for new deployments

C.

Enhance the performance of cloud applications

D.

Automate the deployment of microservices in the cloud

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Questions 40

Why is it important for Cloud Service Providers (CSPs) to document security controls?

Options:

A.

It allows CSPs to reduce operational costs and increase security efficiency

B.

It ensures transparency and accountability for security measures

C.

It reduces the frequency for regular independent audits

D.

It helps CSPs enhance their marketing strategies and relationship with policymakers

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Questions 41

What can be implemented to help with account granularity and limit

blast radius with laaS an PaaS?

Options:

A.

Configuring secondary authentication

B.

Establishing multiple accounts

C.

Maintaining tight control of the primary account holder credentials

D.

Implementing least privilege accounts

E.

Configuring role-based authentication

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Questions 42

What are the essential characteristics of cloud computing as defined by the NIST model?

Options:

A.

Resource sharing, automated recovery, universal connectivity, distributed costs, fair pricing

B.

High availability, geographical distribution, scaled tenancy, continuous resourcing, market pricing

C.

On-demand self-service, broad network access, resource pooling, rapid elasticity, measured service

D.

Equal access to dedicated hosting, isolated networks, scalability resources, and automated continuous provisioning

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Questions 43

Which of the following enhances Platform as a Service (PaaS) security by regulating traffic into PaaS components?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Detection Systems

B.

Hardware Security Modules

C.

Network Access Control Lists

D.

API Gateways

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Questions 44

Which of the following cloud computing models primarily provides storage and computing resources to the users?

Options:

A.

Function as a Service (FaaS)

B.

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

C.

Software as a Service (SaaS)

D.

Infrastructure as a Service (laa

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Questions 45

Which factors primarily drive organizations to adopt cloud computing solutions?

Options:

A.

Scalability and redundancy

B.

Improved software development methodologies

C.

Enhanced security and compliance

D.

Cost efficiency and speed to market

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Questions 46

Which statement best describes the Data Security Lifecycle?

Options:

A.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, is strictly linear, and never varies.

B.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

C.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, is circular, and varies in that some data may never pass through all stages.

D.

The Data Security Lifecycle has six stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

E.

The Data Security Lifecycle has five stages, can be non-linear, and is distinct in that data must always pass through all phases.

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Questions 47

What Identity and Access Management (IAM) process decides to permit or deny a subject access to system objects like networks, data, or applications?

Options:

A.

Authorization

B.

Federation

C.

Authentication

D.

Provisioning

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Questions 48

How does running applications on distinct virtual networks and only connecting networks as needed help?

Options:

A.

It reduces hardware costs

B.

It provides dynamic and granular policies with less management overhead

C.

It locks down access and provides stronger data security

D.

It reduces the blast radius of a compromised system

E.

It enables you to configure applications around business groups

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Questions 49

Which communication methods within a cloud environment must be exposed for partners or consumers to access database information using a web application?

Options:

A.

Software Development Kits (SDKs)

B.

Resource Description Framework (RDF)

C.

Extensible Markup Language (XML)

D.

Application Binary Interface (ABI)

E.

Application Programming Interface (API)

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Questions 50

What is a key consideration when handling cloud security incidents?

Options:

A.

Monitoring network traffic

B.

Focusing on technical fixes

C.

Cloud service provider service level agreements

D.

Hiring additional staff

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Questions 51

What is the primary purpose of Identity and Access Management (IAM) systems in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

To encrypt data to ensure its confidentiality

B.

To govern identities' access to resources in the cloud

C.

To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity

D.

To provide a backup solution for cloud data

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Questions 52

What is known as a code execution environment running within an operating system that shares and uses the resources of the operating system?

Options:

A.

Platform-based Workload

B.

Pod

C.

Abstraction

D.

Container

E.

Virtual machine

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Questions 53

Which of the following cloud essential characteristics refers to the capability of the service to scale resources up or down quickly and efficiently based on demand?

Options:

A.

On-Demand Self-Service

B.

Broad Network Access

C.

Resource Pooling

D.

Rapid Elasticity

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Questions 54

In volume storage, what method is often used to support resiliency and security?

Options:

A.

proxy encryption

B.

data rights management

C.

hypervisor agents

D.

data dispersion

E.

random placement

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Questions 55

What is the main purpose of multi-region resiliency in cloud environments?

Options:

A.

To increase the number of users in each region

B.

To ensure compliance with regional and international data laws

C.

To reduce the cost of deployments and increase efficiency

D.

To improve fault tolerance through deployments across multiple regions

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Questions 56

Which of the following best describes a primary focus of cloud governance with an emphasis on security?

Options:

A.

Enhancing user experience with intuitive interfaces.

B.

Maximizing cost savings through resource optimization.

C.

Increasing scalability and flexibility of cloud solutions.

D.

Ensuring compliance with regulatory requirements and internal policies.

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Questions 57

What is known as the interface used to connect with the metastructure and configure the cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Administrative access

B.

Management plane

C.

Identity and Access Management

D.

Single sign-on

E.

Cloud dashboard

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Questions 58

Without virtualization, there is no cloud.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 59

Which of the following is a primary purpose of establishing cloud risk registries?

Options:

A.

In order to establish cloud service level agreements

B.

To monitor real-lime cloud performance

C.

To manage and update cloud account credentials

D.

Identify and manage risks associated with cloud services

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Questions 60

Which type of security tool is essential for enforcing controls in a cloud environment to protect endpoints?

Options:

A.

Unified Threat Management (UTM).

B.

Web Application Firewall (WAF).

C.

Endpoint Detection and Response (EDR).

D.

Intrusion Detection System (IDS).

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Questions 61

What is an essential security characteristic required when using multi-tenanttechnologies?

Options:

A.

Segmented and segregated customer environments

B.

Limited resource allocation

C.

Resource pooling

D.

Abstraction and automation

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Questions 62

Which of the following BEST describes a benefit of Infrastructure as Code (IaC) in cybersecurity contexts?

Options:

A.

Reduces the need for security auditing

B.

Enables consistent security configurations through automation

C.

Increases manual control over security settings

D.

Increases scalability of cloud resources

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Questions 63

Which of the following strategies best enhances infrastructure resilience against Cloud Service Provider (CSP) technical failures?

Options:

A.

Local backup

B.

Multi-region resiliency

C.

Single-region resiliency

D.

High Availability within one data center

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Questions 64

Which statement best describes why it is important to know how data is being accessed?

Options:

A.

The devices used to access data have different storage formats.

B.

The devices used to access data use a variety of operating systems and may have different programs installed on them.

C.

The device may affect data dispersion.

D.

The devices used to access data use a variety of applications or clients and may have different security characteristics.

E.

The devices used to access data may have different ownership characteristics.

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Questions 65

What is an important step in conducting forensics on containerized and serverless environments?

Options:

A.

Implementing endpoint detection and response (EDR) solutions

B.

Isolating network traffic and analyzing network packets frequently

C.

Regularly updating antivirus and anti-malware software

D.

Capturing container logs and snapshots, and leveraging serverless execution logs

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Questions 66

In which type of environment is it impractical to allow the customer to conduct their own audit, making it important that the data center operators are required to provide auditing for the customers?

Options:

A.

Multi-application, single tenant environments

B.

Long distance relationships

C.

Multi-tenant environments

D.

Distributed computing arrangements

E.

Single tenant environments

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Questions 67

ENISA: Which is not one of the five key legal issues common across all scenarios:

Options:

A.

Data protection

B.

Professional negligence

C.

Globalization

D.

Intellectual property

E.

Outsourcing services and changes in control

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Questions 68

According to NIST, what is cloud computing defined as?

Options:

A.

A shared set of resources delivered over the Internet

B.

A model for more-efficient use of network-based resources

C.

A model for on-demand network access to a shared pool of configurable resources

D.

Services that are delivered over the Internet to customers

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Questions 69

How is encryption managed on multi-tenant storage?

Options:

A.

Single key for all data owners

B.

One key per data owner

C.

Multiple keys per data owner

D.

The answer could be A, B, or C depending on the provider

E.

C for data subject to the EU Data Protection Directive; B for all others

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Questions 70

In a cloud environment spanning multiple jurisdictions, what is the most important factor to consider for compliance?

Options:

A.

Relying on the cloud service provider's compliance certifications for all jurisdictions

B.

Focusing on the compliance requirements defined by the laws, regulations, and standards enforced in the jurisdiction where the company is based

C.

Relying only on established industry standards since they adequately address all compliance needs

D.

Understanding the legal and regulatory requirements of each jurisdiction where data originates, is stored, or processed

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Questions 71

ENISA: Lock-in is ranked as a high risk in ENISA research, a key underlying vulnerability causing lock in is:

Options:

A.

Lack of completeness and transparency in terms of use

B.

Lack of information on jurisdictions

C.

No source escrow agreement

D.

Unclear asset ownership

E.

Audit or certification not available to customers

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Questions 72

Why is it important to plan and coordinate response activities for incidents affecting the Cloud Service Provider (CSP)?

Options:

A.

It eliminates the need for monitoring systems

B.

It ensures a systematic approach, minimizing damage and recovery time

C.

It guarantees that no incidents will occur in the future

D.

It reduces the frequency of security audits required

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Questions 73

Which of the following is used for governing and configuring cloud resources and is a top priority in cloud security programs?

Options:

A.

Management Console

B.

Management plane

C.

Orchestrators

D.

Abstraction layer

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Questions 74

Which of the following is NOT normally a method for detecting and preventing data migration into the cloud?

Options:

A.

Intrusion Prevention System

B.

URL filters

C.

Data Loss Prevention

D.

Cloud Access and Security Brokers (CASB)

E.

Database Activity Monitoring

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Questions 75

What process involves an independent examination of records, operations, processes, and controls within an organization to ensure compliance with cybersecurity policies, standards, and regulations?

Options:

A.

Risk assessment

B.

Audit

C.

Penetration testing

D.

Incident response

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Questions 76

What is a primary objective of cloud governance in an organization?

Options:

A.

Implementing multi-tenancy and resource pooling.

B.

To align cloud usage with corporate objectives

C.

Simplifying scalability and automating resource management

D.

Enhancing user experience and reducing latency

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Questions 77

Which term is used to describe the use of tools to selectively degrade portions of the cloud to continuously test business continuity?

Options:

A.

Planned Outages

B.

Resiliency Planning

C.

Expected Engineering

D.

Chaos Engineering

E.

Organized Downtime

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Questions 78

What is a primary benefit of using Identity and Access Management (IAM) roles/identities provided by cloud providers instead of static secrets?

Options:

A.

They lower storage costs

B.

They reduce the risk of credential leakage

C.

They facilitate data encryption

D.

They improve system performance

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Questions 79

Which of the following best describes an authoritative source in the context of identity management?

Options:

A.

A list of permissions assigned to different users

B.

A network resource that handles authorization requests

C.

A database containing all entitlements

D.

A trusted system holding accurate identity information

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Questions 80

Why is it essential to embed cloud decisions within organizational governance?

Options:

A.

Speeds up cloud service adoption significantly

B.

Reduces the complexity of implementing cloud solutions

C.

Gives IT department autonomous control over cloud resources

D.

Ensures alignment with business objectives and risk management

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Questions 81

What is a key consideration when implementing AI workloads to ensure they adhere to security best practices?

Options:

A.

AI workloads do not require special security considerations compared to other workloads.

B.

AI workloads should be openly accessible to foster collaboration and innovation.

C.

AI workloads should be isolated in secure environments with strict access controls.

D.

Security practices for AI workloads should focus solely on protecting the AI models.

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Questions 82

All cloud services utilize virtualization technologies.

Options:

A.

False

B.

True

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Questions 83

What is a primary benefit of implementing micro-segmentation within a Zero Trust Architecture?

Options:

A.

Simplifies network design and maintenance

B.

Enhances security by isolating workloads from each other

C.

Increases the overall performance of network traffic

D.

Reduces the need for encryption across the network

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Questions 84

In a cloud environment, what does the Shared Security Responsibility Model primarily aim to define?

Options:

A.

The division of security responsibilities between cloud providers and customers

B.

The relationships between IaaS, PaaS, and SaaS providers

C.

The compliance with geographical data residency and sovereignty

D.

The guidance for the cloud compliance framework

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Questions 85

What is a key benefit of using customer-managed encryption keys with cloud key management service (KMS)?

Options:

A.

Customers can bypass the need for encryption

B.

Customers retain control over their encryption keys

C.

Customers can share their encryption keys more easily

D.

It reduces the computational load on the cloud service provider

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Questions 86

Which technique involves assessing potential threats through analyzing attacker capabilities, motivations, and potential targets?

Options:

A.

Threat modeling

B.

Vulnerability assessment

C.

Incident response

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 87

Which type of application security testing tests running applications and includes tests such as web vulnerability testing and fuzzing?

Options:

A.

Code Review

B.

Static Application Security Testing (SAST)

C.

Unit Testing

D.

Functional Testing

E.

Dynamic Application Security Testing (DAST)

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Questions 88

Which of the following statements is true in regards to Data Loss Prevention (DLP)?

Options:

A.

DLP can provide options for quickly deleting all of the data stored in a cloud environment.

B.

DLP can classify all data in a storage repository.

C.

DLP never provides options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

D.

DLP can provide options for where data is stored.

E.

DLP can provide options for how data found in violation of a policy can be handled.

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Questions 89

In the Incident Response Lifecycle, which phase involves identifying potential security events and examining them for validity?

Options:

A.

Post-Incident Activity

B.

Detection and Analysis

C.

Preparation

D.

Containment, Eradication, and Recovery

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Questions 90

Which two key capabilities are required for technology to be considered cloud computing?

Options:

A.

Abstraction and orchestration

B.

Abstraction and resource pooling

C.

Multi-tenancy and isolation

D.

Virtualization and multi-tenancy

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Questions 91

What is defined as the process by which an opposing party may obtain private documents for use in litigation?

Options:

A.

Discovery

B.

Custody

C.

Subpoena

D.

Risk Assessment

E.

Scope

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Questions 92

Which of the following best describes compliance in the context of cybersecurity?

Options:

A.

Defining and maintaining the governance plan

B.

Adherence to internal policies, laws, regulations, standards, and best practices

C.

Implementing automation technologies to monitor the control implemented

D.

Conducting regular penetration testing as stated in applicable laws and regulations

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Questions 93

Which governance domain focuses on proper and adequate incident detection, response, notification, and remediation?

Options:

A.

Data Security and Encryption

B.

Information Governance

C.

Incident Response, Notification and Remediation

D.

Compliance and Audit Management

E.

Infrastructure Security

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Questions 94

What are the most important practices for reducing vulnerabilities in virtual machines (VMs) in a cloud environment?

Options:

A.

Disabling unnecessary VM services and using containers

B.

Encryption for data at rest and software bill of materials

C.

Using secure base images, patch and configuration management

D.

Network isolation and monitoring

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Questions 95

A cloud deployment of two or more unique clouds is known as:

Options:

A.

Infrastructures as a Service

B.

A Private Cloud

C.

A Community Cloud

D.

A Hybrid Cloud

E.

Jericho Cloud Cube Model

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Questions 96

Why is it important to capture and centralize workload logs promptly in a cybersecurity environment?

Options:

A.

To simplify application debugging processesB Primarily to reduce data storage costs

B.

Logs may be lost during a scaling event

C.

To comply with data privacy regulations

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Questions 97

Which of the following best describes the role of program frameworks in defining security components and technical controls?

Options:

A.

Program frameworks evaluate the performance of individual security tools

B.

Program frameworks focus on implementing specific security technologies

C.

Program frameworks help organize overarching security policies and objectives

D.

Program frameworks primarily define compliance requirements for regulations

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Questions 98

Which of the following best describes a key benefit of Software-Defined Networking (SDN)?

Options:

A.

SDN is a hardware-based solution for optimizing network performance

B.

SDN eliminates the need for physical network devices and cabling

C.

SDN allows networks to be dynamically configured and managed through software

D.

SDN is primarily focused on improving network security through advanced firewalls

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Questions 99

In preparing for cloud incident response, why is updating forensics tools for virtual machines (VMs) and containers critical?

Options:

A.

To comply with cloud service level agreements (SLAs)

B.

To streamline communication with cloud service providers and customers

C.

To ensure compatibility with cloud environments for effective incident analysis

D.

To increase the speed of incident response team deployments

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Exam Code: CCSK
Exam Name: Certificate of Cloud Security Knowledge v5 (CCSKv5.0)
Last Update: Dec 4, 2025
Questions: 332
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