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CAMS Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition) Questions and Answers

Questions 4

The chief compliance officer at a global bank that operates in the US, EU, and other countries is responsible for navigating the US and EU regulations related to anti-money laundering (AML) and sanctions as well as any local regulations in the countries where it operates.

What should be the primary compliance concern of the bank?

Options:

A.

US anti-money laundering regulations are stricter than the EU AML Directives, making it easier for the global bank to be compliant in the EU

B.

US and EU regulations require the bank to build separate compliance teams, making it necessary to establish completely separate systems for US and EU operations

C.

The EU's sanctions regime is stricter than that of the US Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC), so the bank must prioritize compliance with EU regulations over US laws and train the staff in Europe accordingly

D.

Balancing compliance with the US BSA and OFAC sanctions while ensuring adherence to EU AML directives and the GDPR, which complicates cross-border data sharing

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Questions 5

When assessing and managing money laundering risks while operating in foreign jurisdictions different from that of the head office, an effective AML monitoring program should:

Options:

A.

Be consistent with the head office audits

B.

Be tailored to the higher of standards between the jurisdictions.

C.

Conform to the foreign jurisdiction policies to align with the head office policies.

D.

Provide all foreign jurisdiction reports to the head office for approval.

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Questions 6

Which characteristics of trust and company service providers (TCSPs) can potentially make them vulnerable to financial crime? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

They may market themselves specifically to criminals

B.

Offering nominee directors may increase anonymity by concealing true ownership

C.

They do not have to comply with AML regulations in most jurisdictions

D.

Selling ready-made, off-the-shelf companies to offshore intermediaries

E.

Having minimal face-to-face contact with customers, particularly in offshore arrangements

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Questions 7

When a multinational organization develops its anti-financial crime (AFC) program, what is the most important consideration for ensuring compliance across different jurisdictions?

Options:

A.

Ensuring sanctions coy on international bodies like the UN because there is no requirement to adhere to local laws.

B.

Ensuring group policies and procedures prioritize adherence to US regulations because they are the most influential worldwide.

C.

Applying global AFC and sanctions policies to ensure consistency without the need to adapt to local regulations.

D.

Ensuring group policies cater to compliance with each country's specific AML and sanctions regulations.

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Questions 8

In which of the following situations would it be most crucial for the designated AML compliance officer of a company to perform a complete review of the company's AML program, including identifying the risks and commensurate controls?

Options:

A.

An external audit highlights several deficiencies

B.

The company is merging with or acquiring another entity

C.

Extensive AML legislation is proposed by a legislative body in the company's jurisdiction

D.

A high-profile money laundering case involving another industry is publicized

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Questions 9

A prospective client walks into an accounting firm wanting to incorporate a company. The accountant feels uncomfortable after the meeting.

Which two of the accountant's observations warrant escalation to the compliance officer? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The principal activities of the proposed company are importing and exporting new furniture

B.

The prospective client presents confusing details about the proposed business and has very little knowledge about the proposed business activity

C.

The prospective client is unable to provide information about the beneficial owners

D.

The prospective client exhibits confidence when speaking to the accountant when providing personal details

E.

The prospective client is able to provide source of funds and source of wealth documents

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Questions 10

Which strategies are most effective for prioritizing resources within an anti-financial crime (AFC) program using a risk-based approach (RBA)? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Prioritizing resources towards lower-risk areas to reduce workload

B.

Regularly reassessing risks to adjust resource allocation

C.

Allocating more resources to areas with higher financial crime risk

D.

Providing equal resources to all departments to maintain consistency

E.

Using a fixed resource allocation plan without adjustments

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Questions 11

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) Recommendation regarding "tipping off," which of the following statements accurately describes the obligations of reporting entities?

Options:

A.

Reporting entities are prohibited from disclosing to clients or third parties that a suspicious activity report (SAR) has been filed or that an investigation is ongoing

B.

Reporting entities can share general information about suspicious activities internally within the organization without compromising confidentiality

C.

Reporting entities must inform their clients if a suspicious activity report (SAR) has been filed, as part of maintaining transparency in customer relations

D.

Reporting entities are allowed to discuss suspicious activities with clients if it helps clarify a situation before submitting a suspicious activity report

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Questions 12

A multinational corporation is considering expanding into a new market with a history of political instability and corruption.

Which strategy would be most effective in mitigating reputational risk from a financial crime perspective associated with such an expansion?

Options:

A.

Ensure the jurisdiction risks and other relevant factors have been taken into consideration in the EWRA and the residual risks are within the corporation's risk appetite

B.

Partnering with established local businesses to leverage their knowledge and connections while sharing risks

C.

Ensuring the company has strong ties with local government officials to influence policy and avoid negative scrutiny

D.

Committing to open communication, ethical practices, and community engagement to build trust with stakeholders

E.

Minimizing the company's direct presence in the country to reduce exposure to potential risks

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Questions 13

Which of the following entities could potentially pose a higher money laundering risk and require additional review prior to onboarding? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A large multinational corporation with extensive, documented wire transfer activity

B.

A local convenience store that replenishes the onsite automated teller machine (ATM) with cash from its till

C.

A local used car sale lot that allows individuals to pay their monthly bill in cash

D.

A virtual asset service provider (VASP), facilitating peer-to-peer cryptocurrency transactions

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Questions 14

A financial institution has received complaints about friction in the onboarding process when additional information is requested.

Which potential solutions could help ensure a better customer onboarding experience with reduced friction? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Implement internal or external tools that streamline onboarding processes

B.

Implement new processes only once every three years to ensure consistency

C.

Ensure consistent training of all employees on new processes, policies, and tools

D.

Ensure that only team leads or managers have decision-making power

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Questions 15

Which of the following are considered best practices for effective AML/CFT training programs? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Training should cover practical examples, use case studies, and provide information on how to comply with policies.

B.

Up-to-date records including logs of training and completion dates should be maintained.

C.

Training should be broad, high level, and not role-specific in order to reach the largest audience.

D.

Training should cover the consequences of not complying with policies and procedures.

E.

Training should always be provided by an independent third party.

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Questions 16

Artificial intelligence (AI) and machine learning (ML) procedures help in applying a risk-based approach in AML compliance through: (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Automatically generating Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs) without the need for human review

B.

Advanced customer risk assessments that synthesize client background information with additional data

C.

Identification of links among apparently unrelated clients who have established complex networks for money laundering

D.

Automatically adapting risk thresholds for customers without any human intervention

E.

Detection of complex money laundering patterns in transactions

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Questions 17

From an international standards perspective both the EU and Financial Action Task Force (FATF) consider data sharing a crucial component of effective anti-money laundenng measures because data sharing:

Options:

A.

allows Financial Intelligence Units (FlUs) to enact sanctions against perpetrators of financial crime

B.

promotes financial transparency and protects the integrity of the financial systems

C.

needs to be approved by the Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) before sharing between financial institutions

D.

helps financial institutions to be more effective in fighting crime with data analysis

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Questions 18

Which of the following is a broader risk specific to casinos and gambling?

Options:

A.

Low thresholds for transactions

B.

Frequent use of cash

C.

Cross-border transactions

D.

Weak KYC policies and procedures

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Questions 19

What are the main benefits of implementing explainable artificial intelligence (AI) or machine learning (ML) technologies to improve operational effectiveness within AML/CFT compliance? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Identifies AML/CFT risks without the need for human involvement

B.

Reduces the need for human resources

C.

Processes and analyzes large data sets more quickly and accurately

D.

Increases auditability, accountability, and overall good governance

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Questions 20

How should risk-related issues be addressed to ensure the effectiveness of the three lines of defense model?

Options:

A.

Ensure that the second line reviews, monitors, and escalates risk-related issues as needed to senior management while maintaining independent oversight from the third line

B.

Have senior management handle risk-related issues directly when possible because they are ultimately responsible for the organisation's overall risk management strategy

C.

Delegate some risk-related issues to the first line to avoid overwhelming the second line and to ensure operational efficiency

D.

Assign risk-related oversight duties to the third line to provide an independent review and address issues more effectively by avoiding conflicts of interest in the first and second lines

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Questions 21

Ateam overseeing the governance and effectiveness of a bank’s transaction monitoring approachshould implement which strategies? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Periodic review of suspicious activity reports (SARs) filed with FinCEN to determine whether any should be withdrawn.

B.

Periodic and ad hoc cooperation with the legal team to appropriately investigate and monitor the transactions of subjects of subpoenas or government inquiries.

C.

Periodic review of client profiles to ensure that the most up-to-date information is on file for high-risk clients in line with the bank’s internal policies and procedures.

D.

Periodic review of the transaction monitoring scenarios and their productivity to ensure that appropriate AML typologies are reflected.

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Questions 22

What are the rules imposed by the Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) for legal entities and persons related to the US? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The head office of a foreign legal entity which has a branch in the US does not need to comply with OFAC rules.

B.

A foreign individual visiting the US for a short vacation is obligated to follow OFAC rules.

C.

Nationals of the US must comply with OFAC rules, regardless of where they are located in the world.

D.

Any foreign corporation is also penalized if it conducts transactions with sanctioned countries under OFAC rules.

E.

A subsidiary of a legal entity of the US, which is formally registered in a foreign country, is exempt from OFAC rules.

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Questions 23

Which attributes are typically used to assess the vulnerability to money laundering risk of products offered by an insurer? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Purpose and intended use

B.

Liquidity

C.

Age of the beneficiary

D.

Customer anonymity or third-party transactions

E.

Length of waiting period

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Questions 24

According to FinCEN, which red flags within a bank account may, taken together, be indications of modern slavery, human trafficking, and exploitation? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Incoming fund transfers from third-party payment processors, with limited originator information

B.

Transactional activity with a registered virtual currency exchange

C.

Large amounts of cash payments to migrant agricultural workers

D.

Frequent payments for online advertisements or non-local classified ads

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Questions 25

Which non-governmental bodies typically issue information and guidance related to AML/CFT issues? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Wolfsberg Group

B.

Transparency International

C.

Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

D.

Tax Justice Network

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Questions 26

When making an independent determination on whether to close an account based on an internal Investigation, a financial institution (F1) should consider. (Select Five.)

Options:

A.

reputational risk.

B.

the customers personal relationships.

C.

the frequency of account activity

D.

the Fl's policies and procedures.

E.

the seriousness of the underlying conduct.

F.

correspondence with law enforcement

G.

the legal basis for closing the account.

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Questions 27

It is essential to identify any "family members" or "close associates" of politically exposed persons (PEPs) as part of the KYC/CDD process because they could be:

Options:

A.

executing cross-border transactions for their own business which is not commensurate to the PEP's wealth.

B.

in a position to provide more information regarding the PEP's whereabouts and hidden properties.

C.

travelling to offshore jurisdictions often on holiday which exposes them to higher risks for AML.

D.

used as intermediaries to facilitate bribery or corruption or to conceal the illicit wealth of the PEP.

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Questions 28

In what ways is the finance industry vulnerable to the risks of money laundering? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

It is subject to heightened regulatory obligations with strict reporting requirements to safeguard the financial system from illicit fund flows and ensure market stability

B.

It invests in new technology and systems to ensure effective and timely detection of financial crime

C.

It offers complex financial products, which can make it easier to obscure the source of funds

D.

It is frequently engaged with high-risk jurisdictions, which can increase exposure to financial crime or weak regulatory oversight

E.

It has high transaction volumes, making it difficult to identify suspicious activities and track the origin of funds

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Questions 29

Which of the options below is an indicator of potential insider activity that may warrant escalation For further investigation?

Options:

A.

A relationship manager advocates for overriding the results of the company's client risk rating model that resulted in a client's high-risk rating.

B.

An If employee shares information about a firm's risk management framework with employees of other firms at an industry convention.

C.

An investigator does not complete the automated transaction monitoring system alerts assigned to them before the time required by company procedures.

D.

A relationship manager makes an exception to company policy and proceeds with onboarding a customer without documenting a passport for customer identification

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Questions 30

A compliance officer is developing management reporting information to provide leadership with insights into the financial crime risk related to an institution's customer population.

Which of the following is a key risk indicator to include in the reporting to allow leadership to monitor whether there are any key changes to the inherent risk of the customer population? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Percentage of regulatory reports for high-risk customers not completed within the required regulatory deadlines

B.

Percentage change of transaction monitoring alerts escalated for investigation compared to the previous quarter

C.

Percentage of customers for whom onboarding verification was not completed within KYC policy service-level agreement (SLA) requirements

D.

Number and percentage of senior politically exposed persons (PEPs) who were onboarded in the past quarter compared to all active customers

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Questions 31

A large financial institution (FI) is considering expanding business to an area of the world with weak AML laws. The risk-based assessment indicates that the location will increase the FI's risk appetite beyond the stated acceptable amount.

Which risk factors should be used to identify the priority of the FI?

Options:

A.

Cash-intensive businesses risks

B.

Unknown third-party risks

C.

Geographic risks

D.

Anonymous transactions risks

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Questions 32

Which regulation is the cornerstone of AML/CFT legislation in the United States and requires financial institutions (FIs) to establish and maintain robust AML programs, including customer identification and due diligence procedures, as well as record-keeping and reporting of certain transactions to the Financial Crimes Enforcement Network (FinCEN)?

Options:

A.

USA PATRIOT Act

B.

Bank Secrecy Act (BSA)

C.

Money Laundering Control Act (MLCA)

D.

Markets in Crypto-Assets Regulation (MiCA)

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Questions 33

When services are provided by a trust and company service provider (TCSP) connected to a high-risk country, which of the following may present an immediate financial crime risk concern?

Options:

A.

Management structure

B.

Governance framework

C.

Asset structure

D.

Origin of the funds

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Questions 34

Upon learning of a potential weakness through an organization's enterprise-wide sanctions risk assessment relating to a low number of sanctions screening alerts generated compared to the business size and operations identified, which action would best ensure the risk area is properly managed and remediated to the best possible extent?

Options:

A.

Reviewing the enterprise-wide risk assessment methodology

B.

Enhancing staff training on the documentation of justification on closed alerts

C.

Revisiting the post-transaction monitoring system parameters and thresholds

D.

Reviewing the fuzzy logic currently adopted in the screening system

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Questions 35

Why is the prevention of financial crime so important?

Options:

A.

Financial crime does enormous damage to society, undermining market integrity and consumers' and market participants' confidence

B.

Financial crime risk incidents always result in fines and losses for the financial firm

C.

Financial crime prevention processes make the onboarding process for clients unnecessarily burdensome and complex but create work

D.

Financial crime prevention is important as it reduces costs and improves customer services.

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Questions 36

Which of the following are common indicators of possible money laundering within the securities industry? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using brokerage accounts like deposit accounts

B.

Receiving securities into an existing brokerage account following the death of a spouse

C.

Allowing fixed income securities to mature

D.

Engaging in transactions involving nominees or third parties

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Questions 37

The United Nations Security Council’s sanctions are intended to be:

Options:

A.

Encompassing and broad, including the use of force if necessary

B.

Designed to maintain and restore international peace and security

C.

Indefinite to produce economic benefit for a group of states

D.

Punitive to influence foreign governments to change their behavior

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Questions 38

Which techniques are most commonly used in a rules-based approach to transaction monitoring for detecting suspicious activities? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Using predefined rules to flag specific transaction patterns

B.

Randomly flagging transactions for further investigation

C.

Statistical tuning of monitoring scenarios to improve accuracy

D.

Using advanced machine learning models to detect outliers

E.

Setting transaction thresholds for automated alerts

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Questions 39

In order to prevent financial crime risk, the implemented policies, controls, and procedures must:

Options:

A.

include sophisticated and automated controls that use the newest types of technology available (for example, artificial intelligence (Al) and machine learning).

B.

be proportionate with regard to the size and nature of the firm, approved by senior management, and regularly reviewed

C.

be completed by the business and validated by an external firm (for example, an auditing or consulting firm)

D.

be created approved, and owned only by the First Line of Defense business team, and reviewed annually

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Questions 40

Which of the following accurately describes the economic, reputational and social consequences of money laundering (ML) and the risks and consequences of violating AFC regulations? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

ML undermines the integrity and stability of financial systems and makes them vulnerable to illegal activity. This can erode investor confidence and hinder economic growth.

B.

When a financial institution (FI) is found to be promoting ML or violating AFC regulations, this can lead to a loss of confidence in the institution and a loss of customers. Interestingly, this scenario might sidestep any legal consequences for the Fl.

C.

When laundered funds flow into legitimate economies, they can be used for illegal purposes, such as funding terrorist activities or organized crime. This distorts resource allocation and undermines development.

D.

Jurisdictions perceived as having insufficient ML measures might be identified as uncooperative or high-risk, potentially facing restricted access to international markets, though economic sanctions by other countries are an unlikely outcome.

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Questions 41

Financial crime risk related to the use of "hawalas" can stem from: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

difficulty in tracking the originator, recipient, and source of transactions.

B.

remote verification of identity by third-party program managers.

C.

heavy usage by senior political figures.

D.

informal networks used for cross-border transactions outside of the formal banking system.

E.

heightened risks of returned transactions.

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Questions 42

Which money laundering risks are posed by the misuse of trust and asset management services? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Concealing sources of funds

B.

Allowing for third-party custody safekeeping of funds

C.

Adding a layer of anonymity to transactions

D.

Concealing true legal and beneficial owners

E.

Establishing escrow accounts for real estate transactions

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Questions 43

Which control would be most effective as part of a risk-based approach (RBA) to managing AML/CFT risk for a bank established in the EU that also has a branch in a high-risk third country outside of the EU?

Options:

A.

Fully rely on central beneficial owner registry records in the high-risk third country to determine the ultimate beneficial owners of all customers

B.

Apply tailored due diligence measures, based on the level of risk posed by each customer following risk assessment

C.

Monitor every cross-border transaction in real time, flagging all for enhanced scrutiny due to the country risk level

D.

Automatically apply enhanced customer due diligence measures to all customers in the high-risk third-country branch regardless of risk level

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Questions 44

There are three types of factors that can be used to authenticate someone ownership, knowledge, and inherent factors.

Which of the following factors falls under inherent factors?

Options:

A.

Challenge-response

B.

Fingerprint

C.

Security token

D.

Passphrase

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Questions 45

Which o! the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

B.

Mandatory attendance and review of alt financial crime trainings

C.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

D.

Setting tone from the top

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Questions 46

Which of the following scenarios warrants enhanced due diligence (EDD)? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

An existing local league footballer trying to open a bank account with a bank in their local jurisdiction

B.

The current prime minister of a country trying to open a bank account in another country

C.

The former personal secretary to the minister of transport in a low-risk country 25 years ago opening a bank account at a bank in a neighboring low-risk country

D.

A bank located in a higher risk country trying to establish a correspondent-respondent banking relationship with a bank in a lower-risk country

E.

An individual with a current bank account who resides in one country becoming the ambassador of another country

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Questions 47

When considering purchasing AFC tools from a vendor to implement into the customer lifecycle, which of the following measures should be taken during the process? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Ensuring the tools are compatible and integration with current systems is possible

B.

Assessing whether internal staff members can provide training on the tools

C.

Assessing the cost of implementation and cost of maintaining the tools

D.

Basing business requirements on the features offered by the vendor's tools

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Questions 48

Which of the following controls is typically implemented at customer onboarding to mitigate the risk of onboarding high-risk customers?

Options:

A.

Enhanced due diligence (EDD)

B.

Transaction monitoring

C.

Customer risk assessment

D.

Sanctions screening

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Questions 49

What is the first step in designing an effective controls framework using a risk-based approach?

Options:

A.

Establishing risk controls

B.

Assessing risk controls

C.

Ongoing risk monitoring

D.

Conducting a risk assessment

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Questions 50

A bank organized under foreign law and located outside of the US maintains a correspondent banking relationship with a US-based bank to handle financial transactions in US dollars for its clients. In compliance with the USA PATRIOT Act of 2001, all US banks and broker-dealers in securities must obtain a signed certification from all non-US foreign bank clients conducting business with them.

What information does the USA PATRIOT Act of 2001 require the foreign bank to certify to the US bank? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

The foreign bank will not allow indirect use of the correspondent bank accounts by Politically Exposed Persons (PEPs)

B.

The jurisdictions in which the foreign bank maintains a physical presence

C.

The foreign bank's operations will be limited to the country of incorporation

D.

The ownership details of the foreign bank

E.

The foreign bank will not allow indirect use of the correspondent bank accounts by shell banks

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Questions 51

Which statement about the extraterritorial reach of US laws and legislation is accurate?

Options:

A.

The Bank Secrecy Act (BSA) extraterritorial reach requires that the Travel Rule be applied to all financial institutions globally, including all USD transactions

B.

The Anti-Money Laundering Act of 2020 (AML Act) extraterritorial reach covers all USD transactions throughout the global economy

C.

The Office of Foreign Assets Control's (OFAC's) economic and trade sanctions may pose extraterritorial risks for financial institutions and businesses outside of the US

D.

Section 319(b) of the USA PATRIOT Act extraterritorial reach permits the seizure of funds from a correspondent bank account in the US that have been opened and maintained for the foreign bank

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Questions 52

Which of the following risk factors are considered by many supervisory authorities as representing a higher inherent risk associated with MSBs? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The use of new technologies to facilitate the onboarding of customers remotely

B.

The prevalence of international wire transfers

C.

Domestic business with small and medium-sized enterprises

D.

The cash-intensive nature of the services offered

E.

The use of digital channels and traceable payment methods

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Questions 53

Money services business (MSB) customers present the greatest financial crime risks to mitigate if they: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Process the activity of a customer’s customer

B.

Conduct a large volume of low-value transactions

C.

Require registration

D.

Often send cross-border transfers

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Questions 54

Which of the following serves as an example of a successful public-private partnership (PPP)?

Options:

A.

The Financial Action Task Force (FATF)

B.

The AUSTRAC Fintel Alliance

C.

The Egmont Group

D.

The Wolfsberg Group

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Questions 55

Which risks inherent to real estate sector carry the highest AML/CFT risk? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Use of cash to purchase property

B.

Unlicensed real estate agents acting as front companies

C.

Use of a registered trust for the purchase of property

D.

Use of a company for the purchase of property

E.

Manipulation of the value of a property

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Questions 56

Why is it important to use multiple sanctions lists, such as United Nations (UN), Office of Foreign Assets Control ("OFAC"), and European Union ("EU") lists, in name screening systems?

Options:

A.

To avoid sanctions breach related to payments

B.

To avoid onboarding customers previously exited due to true match

C.

To meet international regulatory requirements and identify risks across jurisdictions

D.

To be in line with the risk appetite statement

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Questions 57

Which techniques would be most efficient for a complex investigation of unusual patterns of activity involving multiple businesses, triggered by an automated monitoring system alert? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Perform a control and ownership assessment of the businesses involved, using the information available in the client files

B.

Contact local law enforcement and request that they assist in the analysis and investigation

C.

Review the information presented in the automated monitoring system's alert description and decline any future transactions

D.

Contact the account manager and ask for the reasons behind the patterns of activity highlighted in the AML alerts

E.

Use social media platforms to connect with the businesses and request details about the account activity

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Questions 58

A financial institution is exploring automation to assist investigators in reviewing flagged transactions. Currently, investigators spend a significant amount of time gathering data from multiple sources.

Which of the following automation features would be most effective in improving investigator efficiency?

Options:

A.

Pre-populated templates for SAR filing

B.

Integration of open-source tools to gather real-time intelligence

C.

Automated case prioritization based on risk scoring

D.

AI-powered dashboards summarizing flagged transactions

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Questions 59

Which changes at a financial institution (FI) should trigger an enterprise-wide reassessment of its inherent AML risk exposure? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Introduction of new products or services

B.

Mergers or acquisitions

C.

Restructuring of the FI's risk and compliance functions

D.

Use of new technologies for delivering existing products

E.

Changes in the individuals overseeing the FI's product lines and sales strategies

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Questions 60

A bank is using a network analysis tool to identify links between its customers and criminal entities. The system identifies potential indirect relationships but is unable to prioritize them. What should the compliance officer do to enhance the tool’s effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Manually review all flagged relationships for accuracy

B.

Implement risk-scoring algorithms for indirect connections

C.

Integrate external databases and social media profiles to cross-check flagged entities

D.

Focus on direct connections between customers and criminal entities

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Questions 61

Which scenario best justifies why a customer's account might be closed by a financial institution?

Options:

A.

The customer is the object of a civil subpoena.

B.

The customer uses a shipping company dealing with specially designated nationals.

C.

The account shows periodic fixed amount remittances for tuition fees.

D.

The account has transactions that triggered multiple suspicious activity reports.

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Questions 62

A company is rapidly expanding into several international markets, including jurisdictions considered high risk in terms of regulatory oversight. The board has requested the Money Laundering Reporting Officer (MLRO) to review and adjust the company’s anti-financial crime (AFC) compliance framework to align with the evolving regulatory landscape and expansion strategy. During this process, the MLRO identifies vulnerabilities, particularly in markets with AML deficiencies, and updates the framework to mitigate these risks.

Which element of the AFC compliance program does this process describe?

Options:

A.

Governance arrangements

B.

Transaction monitoring

C.

Training and awareness

D.

Risk assessment

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Questions 63

Which action could be taken by an organization to better understand the threats faced from proliferation financing?

Options:

A.

Work with the front-line to understand their strategic growth targets specifically aimed at increasing their market share around military technology and dual-use products

B.

Review the organization's sanction risk assessment to better understand the potential for exposure to Russia and the Democratic People's Republic of Korea

C.

Read and analyze the most recent National Proliferation Financing Risk Assessment produced by the relevant body of the organization's jurisdiction

D.

Undertake a detailed review of all payment-related transactions to any clients identified as defense contractors, paying special attention to the beneficial owners of those clients

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Questions 64

Which activities would be considered money laundering red flags when reviewing the business operations of a money services business (MSB)? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

A customer being hesitant to provide beneficiary name or address information when sending international wire transfers

B.

Cash-intensive businesses, such as convenience stores or restaurants, making large cash deposits

C.

A customer exchanging foreign currency from a higher-risk jurisdiction for domestic currency under the reporting threshold

D.

A customer using multiple accounts under different names to conduct transactions

E.

A customer completing frequent small-dollar international money transfers to their native country

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Questions 65

Based on the AML principles outlined by the Wolfsberg Group, what do private and correspondent banks have in common when monitoring for terrorist financing?

Options:

A.

Cash access from a pre-paid card increases the potential that the card will be used for money laundering purposes.

B.

Transaction monitoring examines the relationship between due diligence information and account closings.

C.

Account and transactional activity are monitored after the proper identification and verification of customers.

D.

Numbered or alternate name accounts will only be accepted if the bank has established the identity of the client and beneficial owner.

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Questions 66

Which of the following are considered best practices regarding senior management involvement in a financial crime compliance program? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Setting tone from the top

B.

Mandatory participation in all regulatory inspections

C.

Mandatory attendance and review of all financial crime trainings

D.

Setting clear criteria for escalations to senior management

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Questions 67

To provide aid in investigating a cross-border money laundering case, a Financial Intelligence Unit (PIU) that is a member of the Egmont Group can:

Options:

A.

directly contact financial institutions in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

B.

directly contact other FlUs in another country and share information pertinent to the investigation.

C.

deputize its law enforcement investigators to assist in a material ongoing investigation in another country

D.

assist law enforcement in another country with a material ongoing investigation.

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Questions 68

Which red flags could indicate increased terror financing and money laundering risks related to cultural objects? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Engagement of third-party art advisors as representatives at art auctions

B.

High-quality single pieces of significant value sold on social media platforms

C.

Use of art and antiquity experts to verify an item's authenticity

D.

Paying fair market value or premium prices for valuable art, gems, or precious metals at auction

E.

Use of art storage facilities located in tax-free zones

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Questions 69

Which external data source is most reliable for verifying beneficial ownership during onboarding?

Options:

A.

Adverse media databases

B.

Publicly available information on non-government data repositories

C.

Credit reference agencies

D.

Beneficial ownership registers available in country of incorporation of entity

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Questions 70

Which of the following measures is one that the FATF recommends that Financial Institutions and Designated Non-Financial Businesses and Professions (DNFPB) take to mitigate risks arising from business relationships with foreign politically exposed persons (PEPs)?

Options:

A.

Raise transaction monitoring thresholds for PEP accounts in automated systems to account for higher transaction values and complex legal vehicles and financial structures

B.

Require approval from the prudential regulator for entering into or continuing the business relationship

C.

Subscribe to commercial databases to assist in the detection of PEPs

D.

Establish processes to understand the PEP's source of wealth and the source of funds, and to refresh that understanding on a regular basis

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Questions 71

Customer segmentation is important for effective transaction monitoring because:

Options:

A.

All customers transact in the same way, allowing patterns to be easily spotted

B.

Customer behavior can be compared and analyzed most effectively among similar peer groups

C.

It allows a broad range of customer types to be compared in one large group

D.

It is recommended by regulators solely to prevent sanctions risk

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Questions 72

Which practices should financial institutions (FIs) adopt for the process of terminating customer relationships? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Utilizing a flexible communication style that adapts to different customer situations during the termination process

B.

Implementing a standardized procedure for customer termination that includes risk assessments and necessary documentation

C.

Performing a final review of a customer's transaction history and records to address any unresolved issues prior to termination

D.

Keeping records of the termination process, including the justification for the decision and any correspondence with the customer

E.

Notifying the customer of the termination decision only after completing the termination process to prevent possible disputes

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Questions 73

Which of the following describes a role of the Financial Action Task Force (FATF)?

Options:

A.

Oversight of the Financial Intelligence Units in FATF Member countries

B.

Providing a unique platform for information exchange regarding anti-money laundering efforts

C.

Regulation of financial markets through directives and executive orders

D.

Enhancement of international cooperation to foster anti-money laundering efforts via recommendations and guidance

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Questions 74

The degree of attraction that a company holds to criminal organizations is influenced by the (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

amount of annual fees associated with the jurisdiction.

B.

permissibility of bearer shares.

C.

rules governing the disclosure of beneficial ownership by the jurisdiction.

D.

ease of travel to the jurisdiction.

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Questions 75

Which of the following statements is true regarding tipping off?

Options:

A.

Tipping off is an obligation only applied to AFC professionals and bank staff because they are required to file a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR).

B.

Tipping off is a criminal act whereby confidential information about a financial crime investigation is disclosed in an unauthorized manner to a third party who may be the subject of the investigation or able to prejudice it.

C.

Tipping off is not committed when detailed inquiries are made with a customer whose transactions have been flagged by a transaction monitoring system.

D.

When an unusual transaction is detected, an AFC professional can instruct the relationship manager to communicate with the customer to decide whether a SAR should be filed.

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Questions 76

When applying new technologies to AML, application programming interfaces (APIs) allow for:

Options:

A.

Digital identification on mobile devices

B.

Different applications to connect and communicate

C.

Authentication via artificial intelligence (AI) and biometrics

D.

Quick CDD and client traits analysis during onboarding

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Questions 77

Which of the following ate efficient approaches lo performing horizon scanning? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Subscribing lo a regulators' newsletter

B.

Using a specific provider for regulatory horizon scanning

C.

Regularly contacting the regulator to inquire about updates and future developments

D.

Relying on information and insights from peers and working groups

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Questions 78

What is the relationship between the EU Anti-money Laundering Directives (AMLD) and local anti-money laundering (AML) regulations in European Union (EU) member states, in terms of their relevance for, applicability to, and impact on EU banks? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The EU AMLD and local AML regulations are separate and unrelated legal frameworks.

B.

The EU AMLD and local AML regulations must have identical requirements.

C.

Local AML regulations may impose additional or more stringent requirements than the EU AMLD.

D.

The EU AMLD take precedence over local AML regulations.

E.

Local AML laws and regulations override the requirements of the EU AMLD.

F.

The EU AMLD provide a framework that member countries must implement through local AML regulations.

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Questions 79

When under a regulator's consent order or similar action, who at an organization is ultimately accountable for the remediation of any violations of applicable AML/CFT laws and regulations?

Options:

A.

Designated AML compliance officer

B.

Chief executive officer

C.

Chief operating officer

D.

Board of directors

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Questions 80

How canawareness be raisedwithincountries that do not have sanctions regulatory regimes? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Restrict trade between countries that have robust AML/CFT and sanctions regulatory regimes and those that do not.

B.

AFC (Anti-Financial Crime) and sanctions-related seminars, webinars, and training within these countries.

C.

Enforcement and pecuniary fines against these countries.

D.

Bilateral conversations and cooperation between governments.

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Questions 81

Which of the following are part of a risk-based approach? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Determining detailed risk profiles for customers based on their activities and relationships

B.

Focusing monitoring primarily on previously flagged customers while using standard controls for others

C.

Choosing and applying effective controls that align with the identified risk levels

D.

Performing a comprehensive risk assessment to identify customer, transaction, and geographic risks

E.

Allocating resources equally across all customer segments to ensure fairness

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Questions 82

When the Financial Action Task Force (FATF) places a jurisdiction on the list of "jurisdictions under increased monitoring," also known as the "grey list," the jurisdiction:

Options:

A.

Accepts to participate in an off-cycle FATF mutual evaluation to be held within the next 12 months.

B.

Must pay a fine to be removed from the list before the next FATF plenary.

C.

Has committed to swiftly resolving the deficiencies identified in a FATF mutual evaluation.

D.

Poses a high money laundering, terrorist financing and proliferation financing risk and must be restricted from accessing the international financial system.

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Questions 83

The new KYC lead at a bank is particularly focused on enhancing the risk management component of its KYC program and refers to the Basel Committee's customer due diligence (CDD) principles.

Which of the following describe key improvements to a KYC program established in the Basel Committee's CDD principles? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Implementation of a blacklist of correspondent customers with previously detected and investigated suspicious activity

B.

Enhancement of a customer acceptance policy to more clearly identify high-risk customers

C.

Increased frequency of training provided to front office employees

D.

Enhancement of customer identification procedures to appropriately identify trust, nominee, and fiduciary accounts

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Questions 84

The Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) is responsible for:

Options:

A.

Ensuring an effective export control and treaty compliance system

B.

Administering and enforcing economic and trade sanctions

C.

Designating jurisdictions as primary money laundering concerns

D.

Managing trade agreements between the US and foreign countries

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Questions 85

Which of the following are benefits of the latest KYC solutions, including but not limited to digital onboarding, eKYC, digital identity, facial recognition, liveness checks, biometrics, and geolocation? (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

Guaranteeing 100% accuracy in regulatory compliance across all jurisdictions

B.

Improving customer satisfaction by offering personalized recommendations

C.

Reducing identity theft effectively

D.

Providing reliable customer authentication to enhance trust

E.

Decreasing the time required for customer authentication

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Questions 86

The first line of defense is responsible for:

Options:

A.

collecting complete customer information.

B.

ongoing screening of customers.

C.

suspicious activity and sanctions reporting.

D.

evaluating the effectiveness of compliance controls.

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Questions 87

Which customer actions are red flags for virtual currency peer-to-peer transactions? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

A customer receives funds from a popular decentralized mixer

B.

A customer uses funds from their monthly income to purchase virtual currency

C.

A customer makes a transaction on the blockchain that their traditional financial institution is unaware of

D.

A customer receives multiple wires from different sources and uses those funds to purchase virtual currency

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Questions 88

Which measures help ensure that the name screening process is effective in identifying potential risk? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Define in policies and procedures the screening scope, frequency, and alert adjudication process

B.

Identify the most commonly used name screening database in the industry

C.

Assign a designated person to ensure consistent implementation of screening controls

D.

Conduct a risk assessment to determine which data attributes to screen, screening frequency, and database selection

E.

Conduct regular testing to validate that the screening system is performing as expected

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Questions 89

Which of the following are limitations of using search engines to screen adverse media? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Search engines have limited global language coverage

B.

Search engines provide unstructured data that complicates media analysis

C.

Search results are often inefficient in identifying relevant adverse media

D.

The process is time-consuming and requires significant manual effort

E.

Outcomes can be inconsistent due to varying search engine algorithms

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Questions 90

Which of the following laws or regulations can impact the application of AML/CFT programs and require financial institutions (r" Is) to balance multiple compliance requirements?

Options:

A.

Consumer protection laws may intersect will) AML/CFT requirements when handling customer complaints or disputes, potentially affecting how FIs implement their compliance programs.

B.

AML/CFT laws are the primary focus for FIs, and other regulations like data privacy and consumer protection may only indirectly influence their compliance obligations

C.

Environmental, social, and governance (ESG) frameworks can influence a Fl's risk management strategies but are generally considered separate from core AML/CFT compliance requirements

D.

Data privacy laws can restrict the sharing of customer information, while financial inclusion initiatives require FIs to avoid excessive de-risking that could exclude vulnerable populations.

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Questions 91

Which statement best describes a key money laundering risk associated with virtual asset service providers (VASPs), cryptoassets, and related products?

Options:

A.

Cryptoassets can be transferred across borders quickly, but the volatility of their value still makes them less attractive for money laundering compared to traditional assets

B.

Mandatory reporting requirements have been implemented for certain types of crypto transactions, but gaps in regulation and enforcement still leave room for money laundering activities.

C.

The transparency of blockchain technology helps law enforcement trace transactions, but it can also provide criminals with ways to obscure their financial activities through complex layering techniques.

D.

The pseudonymous nature of transactions allows criminals to hide their identities while transferring large sums of money globally, making it difficult to trace the ultimate beneficial owner.

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Questions 92

When deciding on the fuzzy matching threshold for sanctions screening, consideration should be given to:

Options:

A.

the operational burden of dealing with potential matches.

B.

the value of fines for non-compliance.

C.

the experience of the team dealing with potential matches.

D.

whether the data to be screened is reliable and verified.

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Questions 93

Which obliged entities or gatekeepers may be required to perform customer due diligence (CDD)? (Select Four.)

Options:

A.

Casino security guards

B.

City court judges

C.

Notaries involved in real estate transactions

D.

Dealers in precious metals and stones

E.

Real estate agents

F.

Accountants and auditors

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Questions 94

According to the Financial Action Task Force (FATF). potential risk indicators related to money laundering proceeds from environmental crimes include. (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

waste management sector companies based in high-risk jurisdictions with payments or trade invoices tor types of waste aligned with those they are authorized to process.

B.

frequent payments from companies in the logging. milling, or waste trade sectors to individuals or beneficiaries unrelated to the legal parson activity or business.

C.

unexplained wealth and cash transfers involving senior officials or politically exposed persons for their family members) with a position of responsibility related to the management or preservation of natural resources.

D.

small cash transfers from cash-Intensive businesses to beneficiaries in areas known as a source of gold mining, illegal logging, and Illegal land clearing.

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Questions 95

Which of the following attributes would enhance an AML program's effectiveness?

Options:

A.

Providing basic AML training to all employees

B.

An AML officer being appointed to the board as a working member of management with increased authority

C.

Auditors providing prescriptive guidance and support to the program following a less than satisfactory audit

D.

Providing effective challenge with AML staff and continuous cross-training

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Questions 96

An oil exploration company based in France does business with oil refineries in Iran, which is subject to comprehensive Office of Foreign Assets Control (OFAC) sanctions.

What type of OFAC sanctions should be imposed against the French company?

Options:

A.

List-based

B.

Secondary

C.

Country-based

D.

Sectoral

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Questions 97

An employee in a corporation's finance department hears news of an internal investigation into potential fraud within the company, quits her job, and disappears.

If they had been observed before her resignation, which characteristics of the employee would have been considered red flags? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

The employee was originally from a high-risk jurisdiction

B.

The employee had friends in high-risk industries

C.

The employee had a lavish lifestyle for her income

D.

The employee was constantly evasive about the reasons for leaving her previous corporate finance job

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Questions 98

Country A's anti-corruption authority has been investigating the movement of potential proceeds of bribery and corruption to Country B and is now preparing to take the case to a local court.

Which method of obtaining the required evidence to prosecute the case would be most effective?

Options:

A.

Make an official request directly from the head of Country A's anti-corruption authority to Country B's corresponding law enforcement authority

B.

Make a request for the required evidence using Country A's mutual legal assistance treaty with Country B

C.

Use the International Criminal Police Organization (INTERPOL) network to obtain the required evidence from Country B

D.

Use the Egmont Secure Web to obtain the required evidence from Country B's financial intelligence unit

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Questions 99

Which of the following approaches should be used in combination to ensure customer data protection and AML compliance? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Data encryption

B.

Data minimization

C.

Comprehensive data collection

D.

Access controls

E.

Saving customer data beyond regulatory requirements

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Questions 100

A robust transaction monitoring system includes the capability to:

Options:

A.

Monitor transactions and identify anomalies that might indicate suspicious activity

B.

Automatically translate documents

C.

Integrate social media profiles

D.

File Suspicious Activity Reports (SARs), Currency Transaction Reports (CTRs), and other regulatory reports

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Questions 101

What is the primary advantage of using a risk-based approach in allocating compliance resources?

Options:

A.

It reduces the overall cost of compliance programs.

B.

It eliminates the need for periodic audits of low-risk customers.

C.

It ensures focus on high-risk areas while maintaining operational efficiency.

D.

It standardizes compliance processes across all regions.

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Questions 102

A law enforcement agency submits several requests to a financial institution.

Which request is legitimate and requires the bank to respond?

Options:

A.

Keep an account open upon verbal request

B.

Produce documents and testimony without a subpoena

C.

Seize privileged documents upon written request

D.

Freeze an account in terms of a court order

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Questions 103

Which of the following are red flags pertaining to potentially suspicious transactions by a customer? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

A customer deposits a large number of consecutively numbered money orders.

B.

A customer requests loans made to local companies or secured by obligations of local banks.

C.

A customer has regular deposits and withdrawals primarily in wire transfers.

D.

A customer receives wire transfers from different unknown accounts which are immediately wired onwards to a third party.

E.

A customer withdraws cash in amounts just under the reporting threshold.

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Questions 104

Technology has the potential to increase the efficiency and effectiveness of AML/CFT workflows by: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Eliminating backlogs through the ability to process large volumes of data

B.

Minimizing privacy concerns through minimized human intervention

C.

Minimizing human intervention in repetitive tasks, increasing data accuracy

D.

Allowing for automatic one-stop searches at the front end by analysts

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Questions 105

Business entities established in offshore financial centers (OFCs) pose unique risks for money laundering because they often:

Options:

A.

have informal business arrangements between persons or entities.

B.

are located in geographies that are not accountable to US laws.

C.

include trusts, investment funds, and insurance companies.

D.

have limited organizational disclosure and recordkeeping requirements for establishing these business entities.

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Questions 106

Assessing the money laundering risk related to a product within the financial sector includes assessing the: (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

governance arrangements

B.

complexity of the products

C.

results of the last audit

D.

financial status of the business

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Questions 107

Which technologies are commonly used to help financial institutions (FIs) navigate privacy and data protection regulations while securely sharing client information with private third-party entities? (Choose two.)

Options:

A.

Blockchain to ensure traceability and security in shared data transactions

B.

Data encryption to protect sensitive information from unauthorized access

C.

Privacy-enhancing technologies (PETs) to enable secure and privacy-compliant data sharing

D.

Artificial intelligence (AI) to automating compliance processes like data anonymization and secure sharing

E.

Cloud storage solutions for efficient data handling and management

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Questions 108

Which of the following best describes AML/CFT risk identification and assessment for accountants? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Accountants are not required to keep records of business relationships for more than two years

B.

Drafting a customer acceptance policy can help accountants define customers outside their risk appetite

C.

When determining transaction and service risk, the jurisdiction where the accountant provides the service is not important

D.

Due to their small size and limited resources, accountants are allowed to organize AML/CFT risk only as customer risk or transaction/service risk

E.

Due to the nature of services accountants provide, automated transaction monitoring systems used by financial institutions may not be appropriate

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Questions 109

The recently appointed senior money laundering reporting officer (MLRO) at a newly opened small digital bank has been instructed by the group chief compliance officer to implement an effective AML transaction monitoring system that can identify unusual and suspicious transactions.

What are important considerations for the project to select and implement the AML transaction monitoring system at the digital bank? (Select Two.)

Options:

A.

Whether the vendor has documented appropriate internal controls for designing system and data integration schema

B.

Whether the permissions and user access settings for reviewing, investigating, and reporting details of alerts generated by the system are commensurate with those in use at other banks

C.

Whether the monitoring system is adequate with respect to the bank's size, activities, complexity, and risks

D.

Whether the monitoring system can be configured to enable the bank to execute trend analysis of transaction activity and to identify unusual business relationships and transactions

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Questions 110

The Wolfsberg Group's 2012 "Principles (or Private Banking" established that.

Options:

A.

private banks agree that transparency of client beneficial ownership Is necessary and appropriate.

B.

due diligence requirements tor private banking customers are necessary to prevent predicate offenses.

C.

risk based approaches are insufficient to address the heightened risk presented through private banking

D.

private banks need to better coordinate and align their global AML control environment strategies.

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Questions 111

Which key performance indicators (KPIs) should be considered in the context of ML/TF transaction monitoring? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Number of days required to hire new staff

B.

Number of alerts raised for review or reporting

C.

Number of alerts by region

D.

Number of transactions by top customers

E.

Average time to review an alert

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Questions 112

Which of the following is a common strategy employed by non-governmental organizations (NGOs) to combat money laundering?

Options:

A.

Helping Financial Intelligence Units (FIUs) to analyze the suspicious activity reports (SARs)

B.

Directly prosecuting money launderers in court

C.

Providing financial assistance to governments to strengthen their anti-money laundering efforts

D.

Raising awareness about the issue of money laundering and its consequences

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Questions 113

A Financial Intelligence Unit (FIU) serves as a national center for the receipt and analysis of suspicious activity reports (SARs) and can obtain additional information from other reporting entities relevant to:

Options:

A.

public administration.

B.

legal assessment.

C.

law enforcement.

D.

legal activity.

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Questions 114

When deciding on the frequency of periodic customer due diligence (CDD) refresh, firms should foremost consider the:

Options:

A.

Risk profile of customers

B.

Available level of automation for the process

C.

Operational burden of periodic refresh implementation

D.

Cost of implementation

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Questions 115

According to Basel Committee guidelines, which level of the organization should determine whether or not to enter business relationships with higher risk customers?

Options:

A.

Account opening staff

B.

Middle management

C.

Senior management

D.

First-level management

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Questions 116

The financial industry relies heavily on rules-based approaches to transaction monitoring to detect suspicious activities.

Scenario-based systems use technology and algorithms to identify: (Choose three.)

Options:

A.

fraudulent identities involving stolen or manufactured identification.

B.

suspicious behavior involving a transaction that occurs at an unusual time of day.

C.

hidden beneficial owners.

D.

transaction patterns involving transactions that exceed a certain dollar amount.

E.

anomalies involving a transaction that occurs in a location far away from the customer's usual spending patterns.

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Questions 117

The chief compliance officer (CCO) at a bank approved offering trade finance services to a company which is established within a country with a weak democratic system routinely reviews news on upcoming targeted economic sanction regulations in the EU, a major import partner for the country's production of crude oil.

Which of the following pieces of news would be of greatest concern?

Options:

A.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on refined oil products.

B.

The European Commission and the High Representative issue a joint proposal for an import ban on oil extraction equipment

C.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new export control regime for electronic equipment

D.

The Council of the European Union adopts a new import restriction regime for goods coming from countries that do not respect human rights

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Questions 118

Arecruitment manager in the human resources departmentof a bank hasshortlisted a candidate for the position of relationship manager in its private banking division.

Thebank’s compliance policyrequiresproper background checksto protect againstfraud and money laundering risks.

Whichresourceswould bemost usefulfor identifying potential negative information regarding the shortlisted candidate? (Select Three.)

Options:

A.

Past employment records.

B.

Personal references from close associates.

C.

Personal resume.

D.

Internet and public media searches.

E.

Criminal history searches.

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Exam Code: CAMS
Exam Name: Certified Anti-Money Laundering Specialist (CAMS7 the 7th edition)
Last Update: Feb 20, 2026
Questions: 395
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